Exam #1
Nursing Knowledge Challenge
Welcome to the Nursing Knowledge Challenge! This quiz is designed to test your understanding of essential nursing principles and practices. With 135 questions covering a range of topics, it’s perfect for both new graduates and seasoned professionals looking to refresh their knowledge.
Key Features:
- Comprehensive coverage of nursing practices
- Variety of question formats including multiple choice and checkboxes
- Perfect for those preparing for certification or seeking to enhance their knowledge
Nursing is described in various ways. The focus of all nursing interventions should involve which factor(s)? Select all that apply.
Use of evidence-based practice to ensure the best care
pyschosocial dimension of the client
curing the illness in individuals
Birth, health, illness, and death of individuals
human experience and responses of individuals, families, and groups
The new nursing graduate is concerned about some of the critical changes that will be occurring in nursing. What changes does the nurse anticipate will impact nursing care?
Difficulty for nurses to remain current in a rapidly changing medical and technology environment
Rapid growth of nurses and shortage of job opportunities
Limitations that nurses have in the workforce
Decrease in health care costs
Nursing Practice Acts include
SOP
Rules
Define
Legal
Criteria
Licensure
Code of Ethics
In what time period did nursing care as we now know it begin?
pre-civilization
16th to 17th century
early civilization to 16th century
18th to 19th century
Who created the first nursing training school and education for nurses?
Clara Barton
Linda Richards
Florence Nightingale
Mary Elizabeth Mahoney
Florence Nightingale..
Was the first professionally trained American nurse
Determined that nursing is separate from medicine
Educated on the importance of accurate records
Created the foundations of nursing research
Which explanation accurately differentiates the role of the registered nurse (RN) from that of the licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)
The RN directs the workload of an LPN/LVN.
The LPN/LVN should work under the supervision of an RN.
The RN is permitted to prescribe medications.
The LPN/LVN can only work in a long-term care facility.
A nurse educator is discussing the role of nursing based on the American Nurses Association (ANA). Which statement best describes this role
It is the role of the health care provider, not the nurse, to assist clients in understanding their health problems.
Nursing is a profession dependent upon the medical community as a whole.
The essential components of professional nursing care are strength, endurance, and cure.
It is the role of nursing to provide a caring relationship that facilitates health and healing.
You are speaking with a pts family about the correct ways to redress a wound from home. What role in a nurse are you representing?
Counselor
Advocate
Educator
Leader
The principle of autonomy by a client is applied in which situation?
The family of a client is discussing care with the health care provider
An order for an antibiotic is being written in the chart
The client has decided to stop chemotherapy treatments
A hospice consult is ordered by the nurse
A nurse is providing care for a client with cancer. The client's spouse requests that the client not be told that the client is terminal. The nurse complies with this request. The nurse's action is a breach of which ethical principle?
Justice
Fidelity
Altruism
Autonomy
Within the hospital you are working at, you are known to be great with time managment and your coworkers praise you on this. What type of role are you exhibiting as a nurse?
Educator
Leader
Researcher
Collaborative
A nurse is planning to pursue further education in the hopes of becoming an expert in care of older adults who carries out direct care. For which expanded career role is the nurse preparing?
Nurse Practitioner
Anesthetist
Nurse Clinical Specialist
Masters in Nursing
A client tells the nurse that the client does not want to have a painful procedure. By respecting and supporting the client's right to make decisions, the nurse is demonstrating:
Autonomy
Altruism
Advocacy
Fidelity
Which ethical principle refers to the obligation to do good?
Nonmaleficence
Justice
Beneficence
Advocacy
Define Moral Agency
Influence beliefs about human needs, health, illness, the practice of health behaviors, and human responses to illness
Attempted adherence to basic ethical principles results in two conflicting courses of action
The capacity to be ethical and do the ethically right thing for the right reasons
Define Law
Protecting the public by broadly defining the legal scope of nursing practice
Standard or rule of conduct established and enforced by government
The process by which an educational program is evaluated and recognized as having met certain standards
Wrong against a person or the person’s property as well as the public
What are the 4 spheres of nursing care?
Wellness, Disease Prevention
Chronic Disease Management
Regenerative/Restorative Care
Hospice/Palliative Care
Mental Health/Spiritual Care
Nursing as a professional dicipline includes...
Knowledge
Authority
Code of ethics
Standards
Research
Service
Autonomy
Care
Who developed the Code of Ethics?
State Board of Nursing
American Nurses Association
Nursing Practice Acts
Define Ethics
A systematic study of principles of right and wrong conduct, virtue and vice, and good and evil as they relate to conducting and human flourishing
Beliefs about the worth of something, about what matters, that act as a standard to guide one’s behavior
Personal or communal standards of right and wrong
Define Morals
Personal or communal standards of right and wrong
A systematic study of principles of right and wrong conduct, virtue and vice, and good and evil as they relate to conducting and human flourishing
Beliefs about the worth of something, about what matters, that act as a standard to guide one’s behavior
Define Values
A systematic study of principles of right and wrong conduct, virtue and vice, and good and evil as they relate to conducting and human flourishing
Beliefs about the worth of something, about what matters, that act as a standard to guide one’s behavior
Personal or communal standards of right and wrong
The concern for welfare and well-being of others is..
Autonomy
Altruism
Libel
Integrity
The right to self-determination is..
Altruism
Human Dignity
Social Justice
Autonomy
Having respect for inherent worth and uniqueness of individuals and populations means to have..
Social Justice
Human Dignity
Altruism
Slander
Define Accreditation
Which is the process by which a state determines that a candidate meets certain minimum requirements to practice in the profession
Which is the process by which an educational program is evaluated and recognized as having met certain standards
The action or process of providing someone or something with an official document attesting to a status or level of achievement
Define Certification
Which is the process by which a state determines that a candidate meets certain minimum requirements to practice in the profession
The action or process of providing someone or something with an official document attesting to a status or level of achievement
The process by which an educational program is evaluated and recognized as having met certain standards
Define Licensure
The process by which an educational program is evaluated and recognized as having met certain standards
The process by which a state determines that a candidate meets certain minimum requirements to practice in the profession
Violations that can result in disciplinary actions against a nurse and also intend to prevent untrained or unlicensed people from practicing nursing
A Tort includes an intentional or unintentional act of wrongdoing
True
False
Negligence is defined as
Performing an act that a reasonably prudent person under circumstances by professional personnel
Failure to take proper care in doing something as a citizen
Malpractice is defined as
Failure to take proper care in doing something as a citizen
Performing an act that a reasonably prudent person under circumstances by professional personnel
Examples of malpractice include..
Failure to follow standards of care
Failure to assess and monitor
Failure to communicate
Failure to follow the chain of command
What is the primary purpose of reporting incidents?
To protect the nurse
Raise organization’s awareness
Improve health and safety control for the patient
Save time and resources
A disease state resulting from pathogens is defined as
Direct contact
Incubation period
Infection
Portals of entry
In which infectious stage is a person the most ill?
Prodromal
Full Stage
Incubation
Convalescent
The infection cycle includes
Incubation period
Portals of entry
Direct contact
Infectious agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Means of transmission
Susceptible host
Which stage of infection is the most contagious?
Prodramal
Convalescent
Incubation
Full stage
What Labatory data would indicate an infection?
Increased WBC count
Increase in neutrophils
Increase in basophils
Increased eosinophils
Which infections would require hand hygiene with soap and water?
Influenza
Norovirus
Cdiff
MRSA
Cryptosporidiosis
If a pt is at risk for pulmonary infections, what nursing strategies need to be implemented?
Sitting up to eat
Deep breathing/ using the incentive spirometer
Getting the pneumococcal vaccination
Medical asepsis is also known as sterile technique
True
False
Moments that should indicate hand hygiene is needed are
Before touching a pt
Before documenting
After touching pt surroudnings
Before a procedure
After applying gloves
What age related changes happen that result in higher risk of getting UTIs?
Fully emptying bladder
Decrease in sphincter control
Decrease in renal blood flow
Bladder obstruction
Disinfection includes destroys all microorganisms, including spores/endospores
True
False
What is the normal WBC count range?
50,000-100,000
2,000-10,000
5,000-10,000
100,000-300,000
Natural resistance is
Bacteria with no cell wall
Bacteria that adapts
Bacteria that is selective
What is the mode of action for antibacterial drugs?
Inhibits growth with large amount of harm
Selective toxicity
Inhibits growth with minimal/no harm
What are the most common adverse effects of antibiotics?
Allergic reaction
Cdiff
Superinfections
Rash
Dizziness
Organ Failure
Why is it important to order peak and trough concentration levels of drugs?
To find allergic reactions
To see if medication is working
To compare lab results
To identify therapeutic levels
What is peak levels of drugs?
Lowest plasma concentration
Rate of elimination
Rate of absorption
Highest plasma concentration
What is trough levels of drugs?
Rate of absorption
Rate of elimination
Highest plasma concentration
Lowest plasma concentration
What is the normal range for a temperature?
95.7-99
96.1-99.8
96.4-99.5
96.7-100.2
What is the normal range for a pulse?
50-90
60-110
60-100
50-80
Symptoms of bradycardia include
Decreased body temp
Phases of apnea
Hypothyroidism
Increased body temp
Symptoms of tachycardia include
Hyperthyroidism
Increased body temp
Increase in blood pressure
Decrease in blood pressure
What are the normal ranges for respirations?
10-18
12-20
14-22
12-22
Eupnea is abnormal breathing
True
False
Tachycardia is
Increase respiratory and heart rate / Decreased BP
Decrease in respiratory and heart rate
Bradycardia is
Increase respiratory and heart rate
Decrease in respiratory and heart rate
Cheyene Stokes is
Rapid increase and decrease in respiratory rate with phases of apnea
Gradual increase and decrease in respiratory rate with phases of apnea
Biot's is
Rapid increase and decrease in respiratory rate with phases of apnea
Gradual increase and decrease in respiratory rate with phases of apnea
Normal blood pressure range is
130\60
120/60
120/80
140/100
Which BP would indicate hypertension?
120/80
130/90
110/80
90/60
Which BP would indicate hypotension?
130/90
90/60
80/50
140/80
Subjective data includes
Patient experiences and perceptions, are known only by the patient
Directly observed or elicited through general observation and physical examination
Objective data includes
Directly observed or elicited through general observation and physical examination
Patient experiences and perceptions, are known only by the patient
A comprehensive assessment is
Conducted at regular intervals during care of the patient concentrating on identified health problems to monitor positive or negative changes and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions
Conducted when a patient first enters a health care setting, with information providing a baseline for comparing later assessments
Conducted to assess a specific health issue
A focused assessment is
Conducted to assess a specific health issue
Conducted at regular intervals during care of the patient concentrating on identified health problems to monitor positive or negative changes and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions
Conducted when a patient first enters a health care setting, with information providing a baseline for comparing later assessments
Which heart sound is low pitched and heard at mitral and tricuspid point
S1
S2
S3
S4
A ongoing partial assessment is
Conducted when a patient first enters a health care setting, with information providing a baseline for comparing later assessments
Conducted at regular intervals during care of the patient concentrating on identified health problems to monitor positive or negative changes and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions
Conducted to assess a specific health issue
What are the 8 locations for taking a pulse?
Apical
Temporal
Femoral
Tibial
Pedis
Carotid
Popliteal
Brachial
Radial
Identify the position in the picture
Sims
Supine
Prone
Dorsal recumbent
Identify the position in the picture
Supine
Sims
Dorsal recumbent
Prone
Identify the position in the picture
Sims
Prone
Dorsal recumbent
Supine
Identify the position in the picture
Prone
Sims
Supine
Dorsal recumbent
What is the mode of action for Ibuprofen, Naproxen and Acetaminophen?
Antiinflammatory
Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
Increases movement of calcium and stregthens myocardial contraction
What is the mode of action for Digoxin?
Antiinflammatory
Increases movement of calcium and stregthens myocardial contraction
Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
Erythema is
Collection of blood in subcutaneous tissue
Yellow skin
Blue skin
Redness
Diaphoresis is
Blue skin
Yellow skin
Excessive perspiration
Hemorrhagic spots
Petechiae is
Blue skin
Excessive perspiration
Hemorrhagic spots
Yellow skin
Ecchymosis
Excessive perspiration
Collection of blood in subcutaneous tissue
Hemorrhagic spots
Blue skin
What are some musculoskeletal risk factors that you should look out for?
Togor
Pallor
Trauma
Pain
Calcium Intake
Normal lung sounds include
Bronchial
Stridor
Bronchovesicular
Vesicular
What does wheezing in the lungs sounds like?
Snoring
Musical
Harsh
Bubbling
Rubbing
What does Rhonchi in the lungs sounds like?
Snoring
Bubbling
Rubbing
Harsh
Musical
What does Crackling in the lungs sounds like?
Snoring
Bubbling
Harsh
Rubbing
Musical
What is happening in the lungs when wheezing occurs?
Blocking of the airways
Narrowing of the airways
Air passing through fluids
Air passing through secretions
What is happening in the lungs when Rhonchi occurs?
Air passing through secretions
Blocking of the airways
Narrowing of the airways
Air passing through fluids
What is happening in the lungs when Crackling occurs?
Air passing through fluids
Air passing through secretions
Pleura rubbing chest wall
Blocking of the airways
What is happening in the lungs when Friction occurs?
Narrowing of the airways
Pleura rubbing chest wall
Air passing through fluids
Air passing through secretions
What is happening in the lungs when Stridor occurs?
Narrowing of the airways
Air passing through secretions
Blocking of the airways
Air passing through fluids
What are some skin risk factors that you should be assessing for?
Chest Pain
Breakdown
Rashes, Lesions, Bruising
Edema
What does Stridor in the lungs sounds like?
Harsh
Snoring
Bubbling
Musical
Rubbing
What does Friction in the lungs sounds like?
Bubbling
Musical
Harsh
Rubbing
Snoring
What would a pt with a 9/15 on the GSC be?
Eyes: to sound | Verbal: words | Motor: abnormal extension
Eyes: spontaneous | Verbal: oriented | Motor: obeys command
Eyes: to pain | Verbal: unclear | Motor: withdraws
Eyes: no response | Verbal: unclear | Motor: none
What would a patient with a 15/15 on the GCS be?
Eyes: to sound | Verbal: confused | Motor: Localized
Eyes: spontaneous | Verbal: oriented | Motor: obeys command
Eyes: to pain | Verbal: unclear | Motor: withdraws
Eyes: no response | Verbal: unclear | Motor: none
Define CHEILOSIS
INFLAMMATION OF THE GINGIVAE OR GUMS
INFLAMMATION OF THE TONGUE
ULCERATION OF THE LIPS
INFESTATION WITH LICE
Define GINGIVITIS
ULCERATION OF THE LIPS
INFLAMMATION OF THE TONGUE
INFESTATION WITH LICE
INFLAMMATION OF THE GINGIVAE OR GUMS
Define GLOSSITIS
INFESTATION WITH LICE
ULCERATION OF THE LIPS
INFLAMMATION OF THE TONGUE
INFLAMMATION OF THE GUMS
Define PEDICULOSIS
INFLAMMATION OF THE TONGUE
INFESTATION WITH LICE
INFESTATION WITH LICE
EXTENSIVE INFLAMMATION OF THE GUMS
Define PERIODONTITIS
EXTENSIVE INFLAMMATION OF THE GUMS
INFESTATION WITH LICE
INFLAMMATION OF THE TONGUE
INFLAMMATION OF THE GUMS
The skin is the largest organ in the body
True
False
Adequate skin hygiene results in
Maintaining skin integrity
Minimizing absorbtion
Increased water loss
Decreased water loss
Choose the correct sequence of skin layers 1)Dermis 2)Subcutaneous 3)Muscle/Mucous 4)Epidermis
3,4,1,2
2,1,3,4
4,1,2,3
4,2,3,1
The functions of the skin include
Temp regulation
Sensory
Psychosocial
Immunologic
Vitamin C production
Vitamin D production
As we age, our subcutaneous and dermis becomes thinner. What nursing strategies can we do to prevent and protect the skin when this happens?
Change tape regularly
Pad bony prominences
Only use tape when necessary
Assess skin frequently
When the skins sweat gland production decreases due to age or health factors, what nursing strategies should we be aware of?
Use soaps daily to dry skin out
Clean peri area daily
Moisturize and hydrate adequately
When melanocytes decrease in number, we should be aware of any signs of melanoma
True
False
Identify wound
Contusion
Abrasion
Laceration
Incision
Identify wound
Abrasion
Avulsion
Penetration
Puncture
Which injury results from underlying ischemia, resulting from a lack of blood flow to the lower extremities
Diabetic ulcer
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
What position would you want to place a pt that is experiencing dehiscence with evisceration of an abdominal incision
Prone
Sims
Low Fowlers
Supine
Identify the pressure ulcer stage
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
Deep Tissue Injury
Identify the pressure ulcer stage
Stage I
Stage II
Deep Tissue Injury
Stage III
Identify the pressure ulcer stage
Stage I
Stage II
Deep Tissue Injury
Stage III
Stage IV
Identify the pressure ulcer stage
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
Deep Tissue Injury
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