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OPH semester 1 final

A digital illustration of an eye anatomy model with labels, emphasizing various parts like the cornea, retina, optic nerve, set against a medical background

OPH Semester 1 Final Quiz

Test your knowledge and understanding of ophthalmology with this comprehensive semester final quiz. This quiz covers key concepts, definitions, and clinical considerations relevant to ophthalmology, making it a great assessment tool for both students and professionals in the field.

90 multiple-choice questions
Covers a wide range of topics in ophthalmology
Ideal for self-assessment or exam preparation

73 Questions18 MinutesCreated by LearningEye202

1. • 90 percent of the cornea is made up of:

• Epithelium

• Bowman’s layer

• Stroma

• Descemet’s membrane

• Endothelium

2. • Which one is not the Cornea characterize :

• Avascular

• Transparence

• High density of nerves supply

• Nutrition by nutrient from Vitreous

• Nutrition by nutrients from Tear and AH

3. • The clarity of the Cornea due to from:

• Epithelium of cornea

• Corneal Stroma

• C/Tear film

• D/Transparent of AH

• Endothelium of cornea

4. • The Nasolacrimal duct exists into:

• superior meatus

• middle-meatus

• inferior meatus

• superior canaliculus

• inferior canaliculus

5. • The only extraocular muscle that does not originate from the annulus of Zinn is the:

• medial rectus

• inferior rectus

• superior rectus

• inferior oblique

• superior oblique

6. • Purulent conjunctival discharge is usually seen in:

• viral conjunctivitis

• allergy conjunctivitis

• bacterial cojunctivitis

• fungal keratoconjunctivitis

• none of the above

7. • Clarity in vision requires:

• an attached retina

• no media opacity

• intact optic nerve

• a functioning visceral cortex

• all of the above

8. • The ethmoid sinus is intimately related to what wall of the orbit?

• lateral wall

• medial wall

• inferior wall (floor)

• superior wall (floor)

• all of the above

9. • The first and probably the most important part of the eye examination is:

• the visual acuity measurement

• finger tonometry

• visual field assessment

• external eyes examination

• pupil examination

10. • The floor of the orbit is made up of the bones:

• frontal, lesser wing, sphenoid

• maxillary, lacrimal, ethmoid

• maxillary, zygomatic, palatine

• greater wing of the sphenoid, zygomatic

1. The management of neovascular glaucoma includes

Peripheral laser iridoplasty

Miotics

Selective laser trabeculoplasty

Cyclodestruction

Unaugmented filtration surgery

2. Which of the following is true regarding Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma?

There are no racial differences

Can be caused by pharmacological dilation

Myopia is a risk factor

Is more common in males

Is a uniocular disease

3. Which is the more common sign in normal-tension glaucoma?

Parapapillary atrophy

Disc hemorrhage

Arcuate retinal nerve fiber layer defect

Shallow cupping with optic nerve pit

Glaukomflaken

4. 5. Which is correct about the stereoscopic disc photography?

The ability to detect change is not related to image quality

The interobserver variability is one of the limitations of this instrument

Clinical examination can detect disc hemorrhage better than the stereoscopic disc photography

The strereoscopic disc photography describes optic disc quantitative change

This technique is the gold standard for detecting generalize nerve fiber layer defect

5. Laser trabeculoplasty is contraindicate in which of the following conditions?

Previous laser trabeculoplasty

Pseudophakia

Fuchs endothelium dystrophy

Pigmentary glaucoma

Inflammatory glaucoma

6. A 66 years old woman was diagnosed of chronic angle closure glaucoma and was treated for about 10 years. Now she retires and moves to live in your provincShe would like to be treated and followed up by you.What finding do you expect to see on slit-lamp examination that would confirm her diagnosis?

Corneal guttata

Peripheral iris bowing

Sampaolesi’s line

Loss of pupillary ruffs

Optic disc hemorrhage

7. Which one of the following techniques is appropriate for decreasing localized corneal edema from laser iridotomy which perform in an Asian eye with shallow peripheral anterior chamber depth?

prefer Abraham lens rather than Wise lens

prefer superior iris rather than inferior iris

prefer localized peripheral iridoplasty before iridotomy

prefer Q-switched mode rather than frequency doubling 532 Nd-YAG

8. An elderly Cambodian patient had undergone trabeculectomy with MMC in the right eye for 10 years. Routine follow-up examination revealed IOP was 6 mmHg without any medications. The filtering bleb was located at the superonasal quadrant, extended from 12 to 1 o’clock clockwisBleb appeared cyctic, avascular, very thin wall and no microcystic epithelium. Otherwise are unremarkablWhich one of the following action is less useful for this patient?

Seidel’s test

Visual acuity test

Look for macular striae

Topical antibiotic prophylaxis

9. Which one of these findings is a significant clue to the presence of an underlying associated secondary glaucoma?

Guttata

Breaks in Descemet’s membrane

Anterior displacement of Schwalbe line

Red line in the posterior portion of trabecular meshwork

Vessels that cross the scleral spur to the trabecular meshwork

1. • The average volume of adult vitreous cavity is

• 3cc

• 4cc

• 5cc

• 6cc

• 7cc

2. • A retrobulbar anesteticis least likely to produce anesthetic of cranial nerve

• II

• III

• IV

• V

• VI

3. • Wich of the following nerves does not enter the orbit through the superior orbital

• II

• III

• IV

• V

• VI

4. • Which of the following statement about persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is true?

• Visual prognosis is excellent

• Early angle closure glaucoma is common

• Retina detachment is rare

• Cataract is uncommon

• Development anterior uveitis is common

5. • optic atrophy

• is an early sign of outer retina layer damage

• usually requires 4-8 weeks to develop after optic nerve injury

• is never segmental

• is always associated with a central scotoma

• is always happen after using long time of anti-glaucoma drug

6. • Congruity of homonymous visual field defects

• indicates a lesion of the optic chiasm

• is seen with occipital lobe disease

• is of little help in topographic localization

• require assessment of the optokinetic response

• indicate a lesion of orbital optic nerve•

7. • Define “Blindness” according to WHO-definition:

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity (BCVA) < 6/60 in the better eye

• Presenting Visual Acuity < 3/60 in the better eye

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity (BCVA) < 3/60 in both eyes

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity (BCVA) < 3/60 in the better eye

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity (BCVA) < 1/60 in the better eye •

8. • 8. Define “Visual Impairment” according to WHO-definition:

• Presenting Visual Acuity < 6/24 – 6/60 in the better eye

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity (BCVA) < 6/12 in the better eye

• Presenting Visual Acuity < 6/24 – 3/60 in both eyes

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity (BCVA) < 6/18 – 6/60 in the better eye

• Presenting Visual Acuity < 6/12 – 6/60 in the better eye

9. • What means “poor outcome” after cataract-surgery according to WHO-definition:

• Presenting Visual Acuity < 6/24 in the operated eye

• Presenting Visual Acuity

• Presenting Visual Acuity < 6/60 in the operated eye

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity < 6/60 in the operated eye

• Best-corrected Visual Acuity < 3/60 in the operated eye

10. • All of the following can produce an RAPD except

• ischemic form of CRVO

• third nerve palsy associated with cataract

• retina detachment

• optic neuritis

• POAG

1. A 6 years old child has a cycloplegic refraction OD +6.00 D, OS +2.00 D. What is the best way to manage the anisometropia?

. Full optical correction

. Partial correction

. Give +4.00 D both eyes and occlude left eye

. Prescribe atropine eye drop and full optical correction

. Pleoptic therapy

2. A low vision patient uses a +16 D stand magnifier which locates 6.25 cm from the book. What is the magnification?

. 2X

. 3X

. 4X

. 5X

. 6X

3. The average posterior chamber intraocular lens power in an adult is

. +17.00 D

. +20.00 D

. +23.00 D

. +27.00 D

. +30.00 D

4. Transposition: Identify the incorrect answer:

. + 1.00 / + 3.00 x 90 : + 4.00 / - 3.00 x 180

. + 5.00 / - 1.00 x 75 : + 4.00 / + 1.00 x 165

. - 6.00 / + 2.50 x 125 : - 3.50 / -2.50 x 35

. – 3.00 / - 1.25 x 180 : - 4.25 / + 1.25 x 180

. +2.00/ -4.00 x 180 : -2.00/ +4.00 x 90

5. Using Spherical Equivalent: Identify the incorrect answer

+ 5.00 / -1.00 x 75 : + 4.50

. – 6.00 / + 2.50 x 125 : - 4.75

. – 3.00 / - 1.25 x 20 : + 1.75

. + 2.00 / - 4.00 x 180 : plano

. -1.50/ +3.25 x 45 : +0.25

6. The best way to measure the patient’s strabismus with intermittent XT is :

. Hirschberg test

Krimsky test

. Maddox rod test

. Prism and cover test

. Brucker test

7. Which of the following muscles does NOT originate from the annulus of Zinn?

. Medial rectus

. Lateral rectus

. Superior rectus

. Superior oblique

. Inferior rectus

8. Mutations in the rhodopsin gene are associated with which inherited ocular disease?

. Juvenile glaucoma

. Leber optic neuropathy

. Retinitis pigmentosa

Stargardt disease

Optic nerve pit

9. 9. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia (CPEO) is a disease with the mode of transmission of:

Autosomal dominant

Autosomal recessive

X-link recessive

X-link dominant

Mitochondrial transmission

10. 10. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous is characterized by: except

A dehiscence in the posterior lens capsule

Secondary cataract

Glaucoma

Spontaneous intraocular hemorrhage

Bilateral occurrence

1. Which of the following statements about cataract surgery in patients with diabetes is correct?

• Patients with diabetes enrolled in the ETDRS who underwent cataract surgery did not show an immediate improvement in visual acuity

• Patients with diabetes with CSME should have cataract surgery performed prior to focal laser

• Patients with diabetes and high-risk proliferative changes visible through their cataract should ideally have scatter laser immediately before cataract extraction

• Patients with diabetes and high-risk proliferative change visible through their cataract should have scatter laser 1 to 2 months prior to cataract extraction

• Preoperative phenylephrine drops for dilation are contraindicated in patients with diabetes undergoing cataract surgery

2. • Which of the following statements about punctate inner choroidopathy (PIC) is correct?

• The condition affects males and females with equal frequency

• Punctate inner choroidopathy is more commonly seen in patients with the ocular histoplasmosis syndrome

• Disease involvement is associated with HLA-DR2 antigen

• The condition is differentiated from MEWDS in that choroidal neovascularization is rarely seen in PIC

• The condition is usually bilateral

3. • The following statement about diffuse unilateral subacute neuroretinitis (DUSN) is correct:

• The disease never occurs bilaterally

• DUSN in a common cause of incorrectly diagnosed “unilateral retitis pigmentosa”

• Eradication of the subretinal nematode often results in an intense inflammatory reaction

• Visual loss typically continues after successful eradication of the subretinal nematode

• The condition is seen only in individuals with a history of travel to endemic areas

4. • The following statement is correct about pneumatic retinopexy:

• Pneumatic retinopexy works by mechanically reattaching the detached retina

• Pneumatic retinopexy is contraindicated in patients with total retinal detachments

• Pseudophakia is an absolute contraindication to pneumatic retinopexy

• Chronic detachments are a relative contraindication for pneumatic retinopexy

• pneumatic retinopexy is contraindicated in failed scleral buckles

5. • Features that may help distinguish CRVO from carotid artery occlusiv disease include all of the following except:

• dilated retinal veins

• tortuosity of retinal veins

• ophthalmodynamometry

• retinal artery pressure

6. • Multiple evanescent white dot syndrome (MEWDS) is characterized by each of the following clinical features except:

• enlargement of the physiologic blind spot on visual field testing

• individual hyperfluorescent spots on fluorescein angiography arranged in a wreathlike pattern around the fovea

• typically presents with unilateral photopsias and loss of vision in young females with myopia

• absence of cell in the anterior chamber

• granular appearance of the fovea

7. • In a randomized, controlled clinical trial, pneumatic retinopexy:

• was superior to scleral buckle in the anatomic success rate of repairing macula-sparing rhegmatogenious retinal detachments in pseudophakic patients

• provided slightly better visual outcome than scleral buckle in patients with macula-involving rhegmatogenous retinal detachments of less than 14-day duration

• included patients with causative breaks in the inferior 90o of the retina

• led to a worse outcome in patients who required an additional scleral buckle procedure for persistent or recurrent retinal detachment than if a scleral buckle procedure had been performed primarily

8. • Patients with acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy (APMPPE) may have all of the following clinical features except:

• anilateral or asymmetric fundus involvement

• recurrent or relentless progression of fundus lesions leading to permanent loss of central vision

• associated cerebral vasculitis

• prompt response to oral steroids

9. • All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

• indirect ophthalmoscopy

• computed tomography

• electrophysiology

• magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

• echography

10. • In phakic asymptomatic patients, which of the following types of retinal break is almost always treated, whereas the others rarely treated?

• operculated tears

• lattice degeneration with or without hole

• retinal dialysis

• atrophic holes

1. • The first line of treatment in chemical injury is

• admission if severe

• topical antibiotics

• topical cycloplegia

• neutralization of pH by irrigation

• oral analgesia

2. • In blow out fracture the commonest bone to fracture is

• maxillary (floor)

• zygomatic (lateral wall)

• lachrymal (medial wall)

• frontal (roof)

• ethmoidal (medial wall)

3. • Following are the features of orbital floor fracture

• diplopa on upgaze and downgaze

• damage to supra-orbital nerve

• haemoptysis

• numbness of lateral canthus

• haziness of ethmiodal sinus on x ray

4. • The most commont cause of proptosis is

• orbital infection

• orbital hemorrhage

• orbital tumor

• orbital pseudo-tumor

• thyroid ophthalmopathy

5. • A patient presents with red eye, decreased visual acuity, raised Intraocular pressure & shallow anterior chamber. The likely diagnosis is

• cataract

• open angle glaucoma

• retinal detachment

• hyphema

• acute angle closure glaucoma

6. • Female with uncontrolled diabetes presents with painful red eye and visual acuity is also decreased. On examination there was raised Intraocular Pressure and new blood vessels on the iris. The treatment includes all except.

• atropine

• beta blockers

• steriods

• pain killers

• pilocarpine

7. • On gonioscopy following structures are visible

• Most anterior is bowmans layer

• Next is trabecular meshwork

• Next scleral spur

• Next ciliary body

• And lastly iris recess

8. • In Addition to High IOP and High vertical cup-disc ratio, risk factors for POAG include all of the following except

o Old age

o Family history

o Retinal nerve fibre defects

o Parapapillary changes

o Hypermetropia

9. • The earliest visual field defect in POAG is

o Isolated paracentral nasal scotoma

o Bjerrums scotoma

o Arcuate scotoma

o Altitudinal Scotoma

o Centrocecal scotoma

10. • Specific sign of glaucomatous damage is

• Baring of circumlinear blood vessels

• Bayoneting

• The laminar dot sign

• Disc haemorrhages

• Superior or inferior polar notching of the cup

11. • WHO grading of trachoma includes all except

• TF follicles

• TI inflammation

• TS scarring

• TT trichiasis

• TP pannus

12. • According to WHO a person is blind when

• vision in better eye is less than 2/60 and/or visual field is less than 30 degrees in better eye

• vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than 30 degrees in better eye

• vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than 20 degrees in better eye

• vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than 60 degrees in better eye

• vision in better eye is less than 5/60 and/or visual field is less than 30 degrees in better eye

13. • The most common cause of reduced vision in the world is

• trachoma

• diabetic retinopathy

• refractive errors

• glaucoma

• cataract

14. • A young male of 22 years present with gradual decrease of visual acuity in both eyes and change of refractive error on examination with retinoscope there was high astigmatism. Give likely diagnosis?

o keratoglobus

o keratoconus

o megalocornea

o buphthalmos

o keratitis

15. • A young boy presented in emergency with watering and photophobia in right eye. Which test is appropriate?

o Schirmer test

o Tear breakup time

o Rose Bengal staining

o Applanation tonometry

o Flouroscine staining

16. • Aphakia can be corrected by following

• Specticles

• Contact lenses

• Anterior chamber IOL

• Posterior chamber IOL

• All of above

17. • Retinoscopy is done for

• Examination retina

• Examination optic nerve

• Refractive power of eye

• Axial length of eye

• To find out the power of IOL

18. • A patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision in left eye. Patient is known diabetic. How you are going to examine the patient except

• Retinoscopy

• Direct ophthalmoscopy

• Indirect ophthalmoscopy

• Slit lamp examination

• Examination with triple mirror

19. • A young patient presented with Rosette shaped cataract which is characteristic of

• Senile cataract

• Complicated cataract

• Secondary to diabetes

• Radiation induced cataract

• Traumatic cataract with blunt trauma

20. • Trachoma is associated with except

• Tranatas dots

• Follicles

• Papillae

• Herbit pits

• Corneal pannus

21. • Nasolacrimal duct opens in

• Superior meatus

• Inferior meatus

• Middle meatus

• Nasopharynx

• None of above

22. • A patient of 45 years old presented with facial palsy. The epiphoria in this patient was due to

o Ectropion

o Entropion

o Lagophthalmos

o Lacrimal pump failure

o Hyper screction of tears

23. • A patient with sudden painless loss of vision and no fundal view was possible. Which of the investigation is helpful to see the retina.

o Keratometry

o Pachymetry

o Scan

o Indirect ophthmoscopy

24. • A hypertensive and diabetic patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision. What are the possibilities except

o CRAO

o CRVO

o Vitrous Hemorrhage

o Retinal detachment

o Neovascular glaucoma

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