Make your own quiz Manage my Quizzes Plans / Features Guides and Help Contact Privacy & Security

G-surgery

A detailed illustration of surgical instruments and a nurse preparing for surgery in a bright, sterile operating room, with educational charts in the background.

Surgical Care Knowledge Quiz

Test your knowledge on preoperative and postoperative care with this engaging quiz! Designed for healthcare professionals, this quiz covers a variety of topics essential for surgical settings.

Explore key concepts in patient care
Challenge yourself with multiple-choice questions
Improve your understanding of sterilization methods and malnutrition markers

87 Questions22 MinutesCreated by SurgicalInsight42

23. Disadvantages of dry heat sterilization are all of the following EXCEPT: (Preoperative care II)

A. Dulls sharp and cutting instruments

B. Burn fabric, plastic or rubber material

C. Spoils metal instruments

D. Does not destroy dry spores

24. Markers of malnutrition during preoperative evaluation are EXCEPT: (Preoperative care II)

A. Serum albumin of <3 g/dL

B. Serum transferrin <150 mg/dL

C. Elevated free thyroxin

D. Weight loss >20%

25. Which symptom does indicate upper Gl bleeding EXCEPT:

A. Acholic (nonbilious) vomitus

B. Hematemesis

C. Melena

D. Coffee-ground vomitus

High risk of thromboembolism has a patient with all of the following condition EXCEPT:

A. Obesity

B. Cancer

C. Myocardial infarction

D. INR>2.5

27. Postoperative thromboembolism can be prevented by:

A. Wearing loose clothes

B. Steroids

C. Avoid walking

D. Low molecular weight heparin

28. Signs of the postoperative paralytic ileus resolution are:

A. Distended abdomen

B. Lack of the audible peristalsis

C. Passage of flatus

D. Loss of the appetite

29. Autoclaving parameters are:

A. 2 atm (121°C) 15 min

B. 2 atm (140°C) 45 min

C. 1 atm (100°C) 15 min

D. 1 atm (161°C) 25 min

This question is not from the 'Wound healing' chapter. Delayed wound healing is expected in following patient group: (Preoperative care II)

A. Protein depletion

B. Receiving large doses of corticosteroids

C. Epilepsy

D. Chemotherapy

1. All of the following contribute for the development of the lung atelectasis EXCEPT:

A. Prolonged posture

B. Thick bronchial discharge

C. Lack of the deep breath

D. Breathing exercises

2. Autoclaving parameters are:

A. 2 atm (121°C) 15 min

B. 2 atm (140°C) 45 min

C. 1 atm (100°C) 15 min

D. 1 atm (161°C) 25 min

3. Who can give Operative Permit (Consent)?

A. Only the patient

B. Patient's lawyer only

C. Hospital manager

D. Emergency lifesaving operations or procedures may have to be done without a permit.

4. Delayed wound healing is expected in following patient group:

A. Receiving large doses of ascorbic acid

B. Diabetes mellitus

C. Constipation

D. Wrestlers

5. In the usual preparation for general surgery, the patient may be:

A. Given ice chips

B. Given specifically ordered oral medications with couple glasses of water

C. Allowed to brush teeth and swallow water

D. NPO for 12 to 14 hours before

6. Signs of the postoperative paralytic ileus resolution are:

A. Distended abdomen

B. Lack of the audible peristalsis

C. Passage of flatus

D. Loss of the appetite

7. Opioid narcotics could aggravate postoperative period by causing:

A. Respiratory stimulation

B. Decreased peristalsis

C. Diarrhea

D. Wound dehiscence

8. Markers of malnutrition during preoperative evaluation are EXCEPT: (Preoperative

A. Serum albumin of <3 g/dL

B. Serum transferrin <150 mg/dL

C. Elevated free thyroxin

D. Weight loss >20%

9. Dry heat sterilisation parameters are:

A. 100°C 4hr

B. 120°C 1hr

C. 130°C. 2hr

D. 160°C 1hr

10. Physical examination of the patient is the part of the: (Preoperative care I)

A. Objective examination

B. Subjective examination

High risk of thromboembolism has a patient with all of the following condition EXCEPT:

A. Obesity

B. Cancer

C. Myocardial infarction

D. INR>2.5

12. Shaving of the operative field is recommended: (Preoperative care II)

A. Before hospitalization at patients home

B. Immediately before the operation

13. Melena or melæna means:

A. Black stools

B. Bloody vomitus

C. Nasal bleeding

D. Bloody urine

14. Disadvantage of ethylene oxide sterilization is:

A. It is expensive

B. It is flammable and toxic

C. Short sterilization time

D. Spoils metal instruments

15. Disadvantages of dry heat sterilization are all of the following EXCEPT: (Preoperative care II)

E. Dulls sharp and cutting instruments

F. Burn fabric, plastic or rubber material

G. Spoils metal instruments

H. Does not destroy dry spores

16. Nosocomial infection could be all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Sexually transmitted infection

B. Catheter associated urinary infection

C. Ventilator associated pneumonia

D. Surgical site infection

17. All vegetative bacteria and most resistant dry spores are destroyed by the following methods of sterilization EXCEPT:

A. Autoclaving

B. Dry heat

C. Boiling

D. Ethylene oxide gas

8. Delayed wound healing is expected in following patient group: (Preoperative care II) E. Protein depletion F. Receiving large doses of corticosteroids G. Epilepsy H. Chemotherapy

E. Protein depletion

F. Receiving large doses of corticosteroids

G. Epilepsy

H. Chemotherapy

19. Delayed wound healing is expected in all of the following groups EXCEPT:

A. Ascorbic acid deficiency

B. Receiving large doses of corticosteroids

C. Cut by sharp knife

D. Diabetes mellitus

20. Delayed wound healing is NOT associated with the following: (Preoperative care II)

A. Protein depletion

B. Receiving large doses of corticosteroids

C. Pneumothorax

D. Chemotherapy

21. General medical state ASA1 means: (Preoperative care I)

A. Mild diseases only without substantive functional limitations.

B. Healthy, non-smoking, no or minimal alcohol use

C. Constant threat to life

D. Not expected to survive without the operation

22. Joseph Lister, british surgeon was a pioneer of:

B. Plastic surgery

C. Anesthesia

D. Anatomy

A. Antiseptics

23. The sterilization device is: (Preoperative care II)

A. Cleaner

B. Boiler

C. Autoclave

D. Steamer

24. Patients general health could be estimated as all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Stabile

B. Serious but stabile

C. Good

D. Critical

. Which of the following studies is most helpful in evaluating a patient's risk for a routine operative procedure:

A. Chest x-ray

B. Physical examination

C. Electrocardiogram

D. History

26. Melena or melana is the sign of:

A. Upper Gl bleeding

B. Lung injury

C. Anal bleeding

D. Goiter

27. Compromised immune competence is expected in all of the following groups EXCEPT

E. Having joint dislocated

F. Receiving corticosteroids

G. Malnutrated patients

H. Organ transplant recipients

28. Postoperative thromboembolism can be prevented by:

A. Compression stockings

B. Diuretics

C. Oxygen therapy

D. Diet

29. Postoperative thromboembolism can be prevented by:

A. Low molecular weight heparin

B. Steroids

C. Avoid walking

D. Wearing loose clothes

The treatment of the coagulopathy caused by liver disease includes the following:

A. Vitamin K, FFP

B. Aspirin

C. Heparin

D. Warfarin

2. Warfarin dose is controlled by the following test:

A. Bleeding time

B. aPTT

C. Factor 8

D. INR/PT

3. Excess healing after gastrointestinal surgery could lead to the following complications

A. Diarrhea

B. Stricture formation

C. Gastrointestinal bleeding

D. Fistula formation

All of the following principles are important for seccessful healing of the bowel anastomosis EXCEPT:

A. Absence of tension

B. Adequate blood supply

C. Depressed bowel motility

D. Adequate nutrition

5. The symptom of superfitial wound infection is:

A. Hypothermia

B. Hyperemia

C. Muscle spasm

D. Cyanosis

6. Major types of chronic wound are EXCEPT:

A. Pressure ulcers

B. Arterial ulcers

C. Diabetic ulcers

D. Post appendectomy wound

7. Which medication is used as antidote in case of the heparin overdose:

A. Protamine sulphate

B. Platelet concentrate

C. FFP

D. Aspirin

8. The correct sequence of wound healing phases is:

� Hemostasis

� Inflammation

� Proliferation

� Remodeling/Maturation

. During remodeling phase of wound healing the tensile strength of the scar tissue gradually increases because of:

E. Collagen type Ill is gradually replaced by stronger type I collagen

F. Number of blood vessels in the scar is reduced

G. The fibroblasts start to disappear

H. Scar shrinkage

10. Marjolin ulcer is:

A. Chronic venous ulcer

B. Malignant transformation of chronic wound

C. Chronic arterial ulcer

D. Chronic diabetic ulcer

11. Damage control resuscitation means all the following principles EXCEPT:

A. O-negative uncrosmathched RBC is used before typing results are available

B. Initial transfusion of red blood cells

C. In case of massive transfusion plasma, platelets and red blood cells are transfused in a 1:1:1 ratio

D. Initial infusion of normal saline

12. Following factors affect wound healing EXCEPT:

E. Wound irrigation

F. Diabetes mellitus

G. Malnutrition

H. Vitamin deficiencies

13. Flowing factors affect wound healing EXCEPT:

E. Steroid use

F. Hypoperfusion of tissues

G. Advanced age

H. Antibiotics

14. Flowing factors affect wound healing EXCEPT:

E. Cancer

F. Cardiac failure

G. Vitamins

H. Chemotherapeutic antimetabolite drugs

15. Wounds could be classified as following EXCEPT:

A. Puncture

B. Preoperative

C. Chronic

D. Closed

16. Wounds could be classified as following EXCEPT:

A. Thermal

B. Congenital

C. Caused by radiation

D. Mechanical

17. Wounds could be classified as following EXCEPT:

A. Partial

B. Penetrating

C. Missile

D. Crushed

18. Tests necessary for RBC transfusion are the following EXCEPT:

A. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing

B. Cross matching

C. Rh typing

D. ABO typing

19. Treatmet of superficial wound rection is:

A. Removal of drains

B. Oral steroids

C. Heparin ointment

D. Opening the small segment of incision and draining of purulent content

20. The extrinsic pathway of hemostasis is initiated by:

A. Tissue thromboplastin

B. Thrombin

C. Red blood cells

D. Plasmin

21. Keloids are characterised by the following points EXCEPT:

A. Excision alone of keloids is subject to a high recurrence rate, ranging from 45 to 100%

B. Is more common in darker-pigmented ethnicities, with individuals of African, Spanish, and Asian ethnicities

C. Rise above the skin level as well, but extend beyond the border of the original wound

D. Often regress over time

22. Wound reepithelisation occurs by:

A. Replacement of epithelium with connective tissue (scar)

B. Covering the granulation tissue with epithelial cells migrating from wound edges

23. Examples of deep wound infections are following EXCEPT:

A. Abscess under diaphragm

B. Abscess under the axillary skin

C. Abscess under fascia

D. Abscess in the Douglass pouch

24. Neurapraxia is:

A. Interruption of axonal continuity but preservation of Schwann cell basal lamina

B. Congenital absence of nerve

C. Focal demyelination of nerve

D. Complete transection of nerve

25. Main enzyme causing thrombosis is: (!!!)

A. Tissue thromboplastin

B. Heparin

C. Plasmin

D. Von Willebrand's factor

26. Phases of bone healing are all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Remodeling

B. Epithelisation

C. Soft callus formation

D. Hard callus formation

27. Laparotomy belongs to the following wound types EXCEPT:

A. Incision

B. Mechanical

C. Abrasion

D. Open

Axonotmesis

A. Interruption of axonal continuity but preservation of Schwann cell basal lamina

B. Complete transection of nerve

C. Focal demyelination of nerve

D. Congenital absence of nerve

29. Wound heals by primary intention when:

A. There is a little gap between wound edges

B. Wound is packed with sterile gauze

C. The wound is infected

D. After wound dehiscence

30. Wound heals by secondary intention during following circumstances EXCEPT:

A. The wound is infected

B. Wound is clean and sutured

C. Wound is packed with sterile gauze

D. Sutures are applied after granulation tissue formation

31. Wound heals by secondary intention when:

A. Wound edges are separated

B. The wound is sutured

C. Incised or cut wounds

D. There is no infection

32. Chronic Granulomatous Disease is caused by:

A. Malnutrition

B. Vitamin deficiency

C. Defective connective tissue

D. The congenital defect of phagocyte function.

33. Symptoms of a superficial wound infection are EXCEPT:

A. Wound swelling

B. Hyperemia

C. Vomitus

D. Hyperthermia

Failure of healing of the gastrointestinal wall sutures could lead to the following complications EXCEPT:

A. Peritonitis

B. Fistula formation

C. Intestinal obstruction

D. Intraabdominal abscess

35. Neurotmesis is:

A. Interruption of axonal continuity but preservation of Schwann cell basal lamina

B. Complete transection of nerve

C. Congenital absence of nerve

D. Focal demyelination of nerve

36. The main pecularity of fetal wound healing is:

A. Absence of healing

B. Absence of scarring

C. Slow healing

D. Excess healing

7. During the hemostasis phase of wound healing main cell type found in the wound is:

A. Platelets

B. Macrophages

C. Fibroblasts

D. Neutrophils

38. During the late inflamation phase of wound healing the main cell type found in the wound is:

A. Platelets

B. Macrophages

C. Fibroblasts

D. Neutrophils

39. During the early inflamation phase of wound healing the main cell type found in the wound is:

A. Platelets

B. Macrophages

C. Fibroblasts

D. Neutrophils

40. During the proliferation phase of wound healing the main cell type found in the wound is:

A. Platelets

B. Macrophages

C. Fibroblasts

D. Neutrophils

41. Following points are true for the necrotizing fasciitis EXCEPT:

A. Treatment - Oral antibiotics

B. Characterized by high mortality rate

C. Is caused by the septic thrombosis of the vessels

D. Treatment - Removal of all necrotized skin and fascia

42. Main components of the extracellular matrix are all EXCEPT:

A. Glycosaminoglycan

B. Proteoglycans

C. Collagen

D. Myosin

43. Symptoms of Class III hypovolemia (loss of 30-40% of blood volume) are:

A. Face hyperemia, bradycardia

B. Dry mouth, normal pulse pressure

C. Tachycardia and decreased pulse pressure but, normal BP (Class II)

D. Tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, oliguria, and changes in mental status

44. Acute is a wound which heals earlier then:

A. 6 weeks

B. 10 weeks

C. 3 months

D. 2 months

45. The following points are tue for Split-thickness skin graft EXCEPT:

A. May be "meshed" to cover larger area

B. Is harvested using dermatomes

C. Consists of epidermis and part of dermis

D. Needs vascular anastomosis for blood supply

46. Hypertrophic scars are:

A. Rise above the skin level as well, but extend beyond the border of theoriginal wound and rarely regress spontaneously

B. Rise above the skin level but stay within the confines of the original wound and often regress over time

47. Methods of mechanical hemostases are the following EXCEPT:

A. Application of the tourniquet

B. Bipolar electrocautery

C. Direct digital pressure over a bleeding site

D. Vascular clamp Simple ligature (transfixion suture) Direct pressure appliedby packs

48. Bleeding from cut bone can be controlled by:

A. Ligature

B. Tourniquet

C. Packing a wax

D. Vascular clamp

49. The correct sequence of acute wound treatment is:

� Temporary hemostasis

� Anesthesia

� Wound toilet

� Debridement/Definite hemostasis

� Proper approximation of wound edges

� Wound dressing

50. In the gastrointestinal surgery serosa-to-serosa approximation is important because:

A. Serosal epithelium releases growth factors for faster healing

B. Serosal epithelium releases growth factors for faster healing

C. Serosa releases fibrin which makes suture line watertight.

D. Serosa has the greatest tensile strength and suture-holding capacity

{"name":"G-surgery", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Test your knowledge on preoperative and postoperative care with this engaging quiz! Designed for healthcare professionals, this quiz covers a variety of topics essential for surgical settings.Explore key concepts in patient careChallenge yourself with multiple-choice questionsImprove your understanding of sterilization methods and malnutrition markers","img":"https:/images/course7.png"}