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3) What is the first GBAD Weapon acquired by the RSAF?

Oerlikon 35mm Anti-Air Craft Guns

Blood Hound Mark II

RBS70

I-Hawk

4) What was 1st generation RSAF also known as?

Air Defence Command of Singapore

Singapore Air Defence Command

Singapore Air Defence Force

Air Defence Force of Singapore

5) What are the types of land strike munition threats?***

Ballistic & Guided

Rockets & Missles

Ballistic & Rockets

Cruise & Guided

7) Which of the following is a combat support mission?

Air-to-Air Refuelling

Troop Lift

Surveillance

All of the Above

8) What are the air threats?

Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE

Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE, Attack Helicopter, Utility Helicopter

Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE, Attack Helicopter, Utility Helicopter, Fighter, Transport Aircraft, Light Aircraft

Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE, Attack Helicopter, Fighter, Light Aircraft

9) Which RSAF aircraft performs Air to Air refueling?

KC-135

C-130

Gulfstream G550

Fokker 50

10) Which of these is a common attack profile?

Pop up Attack & Dive Bombing

Dive-Toss bombing & Diversion Bombing

Flaking & Pop up bombing

None of the above

11) Which are the classes for fixed wing threat?***

A) Fighter

B) Transport

C) Trainer

D) Commercial

A only

A & b

A, b and c

A, b, c and d

12) What is RWR?

Radiating Warning Reciever

Radar Warning Reciever

Receiving Warning Radar

None of the above

13) What is DIRCM?

Directional Infra-Red Counter Measure

Divisional Infra-Red Counter Measure

Deceptional Infra-Red Counter Measure

Directional Infra-Red Ceasing Measure

14) What are the 3 considerations for intelligence?

Terrain, Weather, Munition

Terrain, Weather, Security

Terrain, Weather, Enemy Forces

Terrain, Weather, Enemy Aircraft

What are the factors of Platform Capability?

a) Radar Capability

b) Payload

c) Competency of crew

B and c

A and c

A,b and c

A and b

17) What is the lowest level for helicopters?

Low level flight

Nap of Earth

Contour Flight

None of the above

What are ways to counter enemy threat?

a) Terrain Masking

b) Flying above the effective height

c) ECCM

d) Use of munitions

A, b, c and d

A and b

A, b and c

C and d

19) What are the types of UAV missions

Intelligence, Surveillance, Target Acquisition, Reconnaissance

Intelligence, Surveillance, Target Acquisition, Reconnaissance, Target Acquisition, Rendezvous

Intelligence, Spying, Surveillance, Target Acquisition, Reconnaissance

Intelligence, Surveillance, Target Allocating, Reconnaissance

21) Which UAVs have a minimum altitude of 15,000 ft?

All UAVs

Global Hawk

Predator

Predator & Global Hawk

22) What are the types of warfare?

Armed & Un-armed

Land & Air

Conventional & Unconventional

Cold & Hot

23) What are the 4 stages in the execution of Munition Defence Ops?

Discrimination, Detection, Fire Control, Interception

Fire Control, Detection, Fire Control, Interception

Detection, Discrimination, Fire Control, Interception

Interception, Detection, Discrimination, Fire Control

24) Which of these is an Air Space Control Measure?***

Air Corridor

Movement Corridor

Standby Area

Standby Bed

What are the air defence zones?

a) Surveillance & Identification Zone

b) Air Defence Identification Zone

c) Air Defence Engagement Zone

d) Air Weapon Engagement Zone

e) No Fly Zone

A, b and e

B, c and e

A, b, c and e

A, b, c, d and e

26) What is an airspace of defined dimensions where all detected air contacts must be identified for the purpose of national security?

Surveillance and Identification Zone

Air Defence Engagement Zone

Air Defence Identification Zone

Air Weapons Identification Zone

27) What is the sequence for Air Defence Operations?

Target Identification, Target Detection, Threat Assessment, Threat Engagement, Engagement Assessment

Target Detection, Target Identification, Threat Assessment, Threat Engagement, Engagement Assessment

Target Detection, Target Identification, Threat Engagement, Threat Assessment, Engagement Assessment

Target Identification, Target Detection, Threat Engagement, Threat Assessment, Engagement Assessment

28) What are the principles of deployment?

a) Mass

b) Mix

c) Robust

d) Mobility

e) Integration

A, b, c and e

All of the above

A, b and d

A, b, d and e

29) The concentration of fire power towards most likely direction of air or munition threats is?

Weighted Coverage

Mutual Support

Balanced Fire

Overlapping Fire

30) The positioning of GBAD systems so that the fires of one system can engage targets within dead zone of adjacent systems is?

Overlapping Fire

Early Engagement

Mutual Support

Balanced Fire

31) What are the six guidelines for deployment?

Balanced Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Early Engagement, Defence in Depth

Balance Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Prolonged Engagement, Defence in depth

Balanced Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Early Engagement, Depth of Defence

Balance Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Early Engagement, All Around Defence

32) What is achieved through the close control by air defence controllers

Control of Fire

Sustained/Prolonged Operations

Integrated Operations

Fratricide Prevention

33) Air Defence Operations can be classified into?

CAD & NAD

CAD & LBAD

NAD & LBAD

All of the above

34) Which of these are factors in analysing phase?***

a) Own Forces

b) Threat

c) Operating Environment

d) Time and Space

A, b & c

B, c & d

A, c & d

A, b, c & d

35) A measure of how early the asset/forces can recover from damage sustained from air attacks is known as?

Turnover Rate

Recoverability

Recuperability

None of the above

36) What are the phases of planning Air Defence Operations?

Analysis, Design, Evaluate, Implement

Analysis, Plan, Evaluate, Implement

Analysis, Design, Evaluate, Integrate

Analysis, Evaluate, Design, Implement

37) The preperation for operations is usually initiated ythrough the ______ orders

Primary

Warning

First

Preperation

38) What are the key points to brief personnel for operations preparations?

a) Situation

b) Task

c) Co-Ordinating Instructions

d) Combat Service Support

A only

A & b

All of the above

A, b & c

39) Firing units cannot engage any aircraft unless it is in self-defence where the firing unit has been fired upon

Weapons Tight

Weapons Free

Weapons Hold

Weapons Engage

40) Firing units may engage in any aircraft that is not positively identified as friendly.

Weapons Free

Weapons Tight

Weapons Engage

Weapons Hold

41) Surface and sub-surface platforms are within striking range OR aircraft equipped with A-G (air to ground) weapons are within striking range

Amber

White

Yellow

Red

42) Munitions have been launched and are expected to impact anytime soon.

Red

White

Yellow

Amber

44) What is ROE?

Route of Engagement

Road of Engagement

Rules of Engagement

Routine of Engagement

45) Which of the following is not part of field routines:

A) Rest-duty cycles

B) Meals and hydration

C) Maintenance of weapons. Environments and vehicles

None of the above

46) Which is not an element of local security?

Camouflage

Concealment

Deployment of sentries

Rest & ration

48) What are the common forms of ECM?***

a) Communications Jamming

b) Noise Jamming

c) Deception Jamming

d) Imitative Communication Jamming

e) Spot Jamming

B & c

A, b & c

A & e

A, b & e

49) What does DEAD stand for?

Detailing of Enemy Air Defence

Destruction of Enemy Air Defence

Deception of Enemy Air Defence

Destruction of Enemy Artiliery Defence

54) Which sensor aid in locating and identifying targets in darkness?***

NVG Sensor

FLIR Sensor

Infrared Sensor

SRED Sensor

55) _______ is a mission involving troop/equipment lift.***

Combat Mission

Support Mission

Combat Support Mission

None of the above

56) Anti Submarine warfare is a form of?***

Combat Mission

Support Mission

Combat Support Mission

None of the above

58) What are the components required for the management of munition threats?***

Radar, Defence Systems and Networks

Radar, Munitions, Defence Systems and Networks

Radar, Munitions, Defence Systems, Networks and Reconnaissance

Radar, Munitions and Defence Systems

60) Noise Jamming is caused by high level of?***

Electromagnetic waves that produces additional signals

Electromagnetic waves that overwhelm the radars and communication space

Signal waves that produces additional signals

Electromagnetic waves that superimpose and cancels out the radio signal.

61) What will not protect GBAD systems against DEAD and SEAD at Operational level?***

ESM/COMINT

ECM

ECCM

COMSEC

62) The purpose of SEAD is to?***

Suppress Enemy Air Defence

Supply Enemy Air Defence

Support Enemy Air Defence

Supplement Enemy Air Defence

63) MWR warn aircraft of?***

A laser being pointed at them

Sound waves propagated by the missile's movement

Smoke generated by the missile

UV energy from missiles' exhaust plume

64) Which type of profile does not require the pilot to fly over target?***

Pop up Bombing

Dive Bombing

Dive Toss bombing

Diversion Bombing

65) Which type of attack profile will allow the pilot to minimise detection?***

Pop up Bombing

Dive Bombing

Dive Toss Bombing

Diversion Bombing

66) Which of the following is not the fundamental of GBAD execution?***

Early Engagement

Weapon Mass

Integration

Mobility

67) What is WCO? (don't question the phrasing)***

It serves as a guideline for fire units so they know when to fire

It prevents fire units from shooting down aircraft as and when they like

It helps fire units to regulate fire

It serves as a mechanism to prevent inadvertent firing

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