ADK Quiz Bank
1) What are the components of Air Defence?
GBAD
Fighter
C2
All of the above
2) In what year did the complexity of Air Defence increase?
2001
1999
1973
1970
3) What is the first GBAD Weapon acquired by the RSAF?
Oerlikon 35mm Anti-Air Craft Guns
Blood Hound Mark II
RBS70
I-Hawk
4) What was 1st generation RSAF also known as?
Air Defence Command of Singapore
Singapore Air Defence Command
Singapore Air Defence Force
Air Defence Force of Singapore
5) What are the types of land strike munition threats?***
Ballistic & Guided
Rockets & Missles
Ballistic & Rockets
Cruise & Guided
6) How many munition threats are there?
4
6
5
2
7) Which of the following is a combat support mission?
Air-to-Air Refuelling
Troop Lift
Surveillance
All of the Above
8) What are the air threats?
Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE
Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE, Attack Helicopter, Utility Helicopter
Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE, Attack Helicopter, Utility Helicopter, Fighter, Transport Aircraft, Light Aircraft
Micro/Mini, Tactical, MALE, HALE, Attack Helicopter, Fighter, Light Aircraft
9) Which RSAF aircraft performs Air to Air refueling?
KC-135
C-130
Gulfstream G550
Fokker 50
10) Which of these is a common attack profile?
Pop up Attack & Dive Bombing
Dive-Toss bombing & Diversion Bombing
Flaking & Pop up bombing
None of the above
11) Which are the classes for fixed wing threat?***
A) Fighter
B) Transport
C) Trainer
D) Commercial
A only
A & b
A, b and c
A, b, c and d
12) What is RWR?
Radiating Warning Reciever
Radar Warning Reciever
Receiving Warning Radar
None of the above
13) What is DIRCM?
Directional Infra-Red Counter Measure
Divisional Infra-Red Counter Measure
Deceptional Infra-Red Counter Measure
Directional Infra-Red Ceasing Measure
14) What are the 3 considerations for intelligence?
Terrain, Weather, Munition
Terrain, Weather, Security
Terrain, Weather, Enemy Forces
Terrain, Weather, Enemy Aircraft
15) What are some uses of rotary wing?
Troop lift
Resupply
Medevac
All of the Above
What are the factors of Platform Capability?
a) Radar Capability
b) Payload
c) Competency of crew
B and c
A and c
A,b and c
A and b
17) What is the lowest level for helicopters?
Low level flight
Nap of Earth
Contour Flight
None of the above
What are ways to counter enemy threat?
a) Terrain Masking
b) Flying above the effective height
c) ECCM
d) Use of munitions
A, b, c and d
A and b
A, b and c
C and d
19) What are the types of UAV missions
Intelligence, Surveillance, Target Acquisition, Reconnaissance
Intelligence, Surveillance, Target Acquisition, Reconnaissance, Target Acquisition, Rendezvous
Intelligence, Spying, Surveillance, Target Acquisition, Reconnaissance
Intelligence, Surveillance, Target Allocating, Reconnaissance
20) What is the MAX range of HALE class UAV?
15000 km
5000 km
2500 km
500 km
21) Which UAVs have a minimum altitude of 15,000 ft?
All UAVs
Global Hawk
Predator
Predator & Global Hawk
22) What are the types of warfare?
Armed & Un-armed
Land & Air
Conventional & Unconventional
Cold & Hot
23) What are the 4 stages in the execution of Munition Defence Ops?
Discrimination, Detection, Fire Control, Interception
Fire Control, Detection, Fire Control, Interception
Detection, Discrimination, Fire Control, Interception
Interception, Detection, Discrimination, Fire Control
24) Which of these is an Air Space Control Measure?***
Air Corridor
Movement Corridor
Standby Area
Standby Bed
What are the air defence zones?
a) Surveillance & Identification Zone
b) Air Defence Identification Zone
c) Air Defence Engagement Zone
d) Air Weapon Engagement Zone
e) No Fly Zone
A, b and e
B, c and e
A, b, c and e
A, b, c, d and e
26) What is an airspace of defined dimensions where all detected air contacts must be identified for the purpose of national security?
Surveillance and Identification Zone
Air Defence Engagement Zone
Air Defence Identification Zone
Air Weapons Identification Zone
27) What is the sequence for Air Defence Operations?
Target Identification, Target Detection, Threat Assessment, Threat Engagement, Engagement Assessment
Target Detection, Target Identification, Threat Assessment, Threat Engagement, Engagement Assessment
Target Detection, Target Identification, Threat Engagement, Threat Assessment, Engagement Assessment
Target Identification, Target Detection, Threat Engagement, Threat Assessment, Engagement Assessment
28) What are the principles of deployment?
a) Mass
b) Mix
c) Robust
d) Mobility
e) Integration
A, b, c and e
All of the above
A, b and d
A, b, d and e
29) The concentration of fire power towards most likely direction of air or munition threats is?
Weighted Coverage
Mutual Support
Balanced Fire
Overlapping Fire
30) The positioning of GBAD systems so that the fires of one system can engage targets within dead zone of adjacent systems is?
Overlapping Fire
Early Engagement
Mutual Support
Balanced Fire
31) What are the six guidelines for deployment?
Balanced Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Early Engagement, Defence in Depth
Balance Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Prolonged Engagement, Defence in depth
Balanced Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Early Engagement, Depth of Defence
Balance Fire, Weighted Coverage, Mutual Support, Overlapping Fire, Early Engagement, All Around Defence
32) What is achieved through the close control by air defence controllers
Control of Fire
Sustained/Prolonged Operations
Integrated Operations
Fratricide Prevention
33) Air Defence Operations can be classified into?
CAD & NAD
CAD & LBAD
NAD & LBAD
All of the above
34) Which of these are factors in analysing phase?***
a) Own Forces
b) Threat
c) Operating Environment
d) Time and Space
A, b & c
B, c & d
A, c & d
A, b, c & d
35) A measure of how early the asset/forces can recover from damage sustained from air attacks is known as?
Turnover Rate
Recoverability
Recuperability
None of the above
36) What are the phases of planning Air Defence Operations?
Analysis, Design, Evaluate, Implement
Analysis, Plan, Evaluate, Implement
Analysis, Design, Evaluate, Integrate
Analysis, Evaluate, Design, Implement
37) The preperation for operations is usually initiated ythrough the ______ orders
Primary
Warning
First
Preperation
38) What are the key points to brief personnel for operations preparations?
a) Situation
b) Task
c) Co-Ordinating Instructions
d) Combat Service Support
A only
A & b
All of the above
A, b & c
39) Firing units cannot engage any aircraft unless it is in self-defence where the firing unit has been fired upon
Weapons Tight
Weapons Free
Weapons Hold
Weapons Engage
40) Firing units may engage in any aircraft that is not positively identified as friendly.
Weapons Free
Weapons Tight
Weapons Engage
Weapons Hold
41) Surface and sub-surface platforms are within striking range OR aircraft equipped with A-G (air to ground) weapons are within striking range
Amber
White
Yellow
Red
42) Munitions have been launched and are expected to impact anytime soon.
Red
White
Yellow
Amber
43) How many channels are there for air traffic identification?
4096
4086
32
64
44) What is ROE?
Route of Engagement
Road of Engagement
Rules of Engagement
Routine of Engagement
45) Which of the following is not part of field routines:
A) Rest-duty cycles
B) Meals and hydration
C) Maintenance of weapons. Environments and vehicles
A
B
C
None of the above
46) Which is not an element of local security?
Camouflage
Concealment
Deployment of sentries
Rest & ration
47) In how many scenarios can Cease Operations be given?
2
3
4
1
48) What are the common forms of ECM?***
a) Communications Jamming
b) Noise Jamming
c) Deception Jamming
d) Imitative Communication Jamming
e) Spot Jamming
B & c
A, b & c
A & e
A, b & e
49) What does DEAD stand for?
Detailing of Enemy Air Defence
Destruction of Enemy Air Defence
Deception of Enemy Air Defence
Destruction of Enemy Artiliery Defence
50) DEAD can be affected by _______?
Artilery
Special Forces
Aircraft
All of the Above
51) Which unit operates the SPYDER?***
160 SQN
163 SQN
165 SQN
18 DA
52) Which system will the Aster 30 replace?***
RBS 70
Spyder
I-Hawk
Igla Mech
53) What is the range of the SHIKRA system?***
50km
70km
100km
125km
54) Which sensor aid in locating and identifying targets in darkness?***
NVG Sensor
FLIR Sensor
Infrared Sensor
SRED Sensor
55) _______ is a mission involving troop/equipment lift.***
Combat Mission
Support Mission
Combat Support Mission
None of the above
56) Anti Submarine warfare is a form of?***
Combat Mission
Support Mission
Combat Support Mission
None of the above
57) What is an example of MALE UAV?***
Searcher II
Hermes 450
Predator
Global Hawk
58) What are the components required for the management of munition threats?***
Radar, Defence Systems and Networks
Radar, Munitions, Defence Systems and Networks
Radar, Munitions, Defence Systems, Networks and Reconnaissance
Radar, Munitions and Defence Systems
59) Which is not an example of integrated operations airspace?***
ACZ
BCZ
TUA
CFZ
60) Noise Jamming is caused by high level of?***
Electromagnetic waves that produces additional signals
Electromagnetic waves that overwhelm the radars and communication space
Signal waves that produces additional signals
Electromagnetic waves that superimpose and cancels out the radio signal.
61) What will not protect GBAD systems against DEAD and SEAD at Operational level?***
ESM/COMINT
ECM
ECCM
COMSEC
62) The purpose of SEAD is to?***
Suppress Enemy Air Defence
Supply Enemy Air Defence
Support Enemy Air Defence
Supplement Enemy Air Defence
63) MWR warn aircraft of?***
A laser being pointed at them
Sound waves propagated by the missile's movement
Smoke generated by the missile
UV energy from missiles' exhaust plume
64) Which type of profile does not require the pilot to fly over target?***
Pop up Bombing
Dive Bombing
Dive Toss bombing
Diversion Bombing
65) Which type of attack profile will allow the pilot to minimise detection?***
Pop up Bombing
Dive Bombing
Dive Toss Bombing
Diversion Bombing
66) Which of the following is not the fundamental of GBAD execution?***
Early Engagement
Weapon Mass
Integration
Mobility
67) What is WCO? (don't question the phrasing)***
It serves as a guideline for fire units so they know when to fire
It prevents fire units from shooting down aircraft as and when they like
It helps fire units to regulate fire
It serves as a mechanism to prevent inadvertent firing
68) Are you going to pass this test?
Yes
No
Maybe
I want to out of course
69) Is this the last question?
Yes
No
Maybe
LOL, 69
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