Immunology Exam 1, Ch.1-6

Which of the following generally does not apply to bone marrow (a primary lymphoid organ) but does apply to secondary lymphoid organs?

Cellular proliferation

Differentiation of lymphocytes

Cellular interaction

Antigen-dependent response

Which of the following is a correct statement about NK cells?

They proliferate in response to antigen

They kill target cells by phagocytosis and intracellular digestion

They are a subset of polymorphonuclear cells

They kill target cells in an extracellular fashion

They are particularly effective against certain bacteria.

Mature dendritic cells are capable of which of the following?

Activating naïve antigen-specific T cells

Removing red blood cells

Producing bradykinin

Extracellular killing of target cells

Killer-cell inhibitory receptors (KIRs) expressed by NK cells bind to which of the following to prevent killing of normal cells:

Complement receptors

MHC class I

Immunoglobulin

Toll-like receptors

Which of the following applies uniquely with respect to B cells found in secondary lymphoid organs?

Present as precursor B cells

Express only IgM

Terminally differentiate into plasma cells

Undergo proliferation

The germinal centers found in the cortical region of lymph nodes and the peripheral region of splenic periarteriolar lymphatic tissue

Support the development of immature B and T cells

Function in the removal of damaged erythrocytes from the circulation

act as the major source of stem cells and thus help maintain hematopoiesis

Provide an infrastructure that on antigenic stimulation contains large populations of B lymphocytes and plasma cells

Are the sites of natural killer T (NKT)-cell differentiation

Which of the following sequence correctly describes lymphocyte migration from lymph nodes to blood?

Postcapillary venules, efferent lymphatic vessels, thoracic duct, vena cava, heart

Postcapillary venules, afferent lymphatic vessels, thoracic duct, vena cava, heart

Postcapillary venules, efferent lymphatic vessels, vena cava, thoracic duct, heart

Postcapillary venules, afferent lymphatic vessels, vena cava, thoracic duct, heart

Clonal expansion of which of the following cells occurs following their direct interaction with the antigen for which they are specific?

A large g.protein has been digested in the lab to yield a mix of g.peptide ranging in size of 4-6 AA in length. What would be expected if the peptide mix were admin’d to an experimental animal w/ an adjuvant such as complete Freund adjuvant?

Peptide-specific antibodies would be generated using the peptide mixture alone

Carbohydrate-specific antibodies would be generated only if an adjuvant were administered with the peptide mixture

Peptide-specific antibodies would be generated only if they were injected with a separate uncoupled protein carrier

Peptide-specific and carbohydrate-specific antibody and T-cell responses would be generated using the peptide mixture alone

There would be neither a humoral nor cell-mediated immune response to the peptides in the mixture

The protection against smallpox virus infection afforded by prior infection with cowpox virus represents

Converting a toxin to a toxoid

Makes the toxin more immunogenic

Reduces the pharmacological activity of the toxin

Enhances binding with antitoxin

Induces only innate immunity

Increases phagocytosis

Haptens

Require carrier molecules to be immunogenic

React with specific antibodies when homologous carriers are not employed

Interact with specific antibody even if the hapten is monovalent

Cannot stimulate secondary antibody responses without carriers

All of the above

An adjuvant is a substance that

Increases the size of the immunogen

Enhances the immunogenicity of haptens

Increases the chemical complexity of the immunogen

Enhances the immune response to the immunogen

Enhances immunologic cross-reactivity

A polyclonal antibody made against a large protein antigen reacts w/ it even when it is denatured by disrupting all disulfide bonds. Another monoclonal antibody against the antigen fails to react when it is similarly denatured. The most likely explanation

The polyclonal antibody contains antibodies specific for several non-conformational epitopes expressed by the antigen.

The monoclonal antibody recognizes both conformational and non-conformational epitopes

The monoclonal antibody is specific for disulfide bonds

The polyclonal antibody has a higher affinity for the antigen.

The idiotype of an antibody molecule is determined by the amino acid sequence of the

Constant region of the light chain

Variable region of the light chain

Constant region of the heavy chain

Constant regions of the heavy and light chains

Variable regions of the heavy and light chains

Which of the following would generate a polyclonal rabbit antiserum specific for human γ heavy-chain, κ chain, λ chain, and Fc regions of Ig:

An individual was found to be heterzygous for IgG1 allotypes 3 and 12. The different possible IgG1 antibodies produced by this individual will never have

Two heavy chains of allotype 12

Two light chains of either κ or λ

Two heavy chains of allotype 3

Two heavy chains, one of allotype 3 and one of allotype 12

Papain digestion of an IgG preparation of antibody specific for the antigen hen egg albumin (HEA) will

If an individual who is highly allergic to cat dander is exposed to a pet cat in a friend’s house, which class of immunoglobulin would most likely be found to be elevated soon after this exposure?

The relative level of pathogen-specific IgM antibodies can be of diagnostic significance because

IgM is easier to detect than the other isotypes

Viral infection often results in very high IgM responses

IgM antibodies are more often protective against reinfections than are the other isotypes

Relatively high levels of IgM often correlate with a first and recent exposure to the inducing agent

Primary and secondary antibody responses differ in

The predominant isotype generated

The number of lymphocytes responding to antigen

The time it takes for measurable amounts of antibodies to appear in the serum

The biologic functions manifested by the Ig isotypes produced

All of the above

In an individual predisposed to allergic responses, which of the following statement best describes the outcome of his/her exposure to an allergen:

Within weeks of exposure, large amounts of allergen-specific IgM will be present in the serum.

Clinical reactions such as wheezing and sneezing may soon manifest soon after exposure due to the presence of allergen-specific IgE that is retained by cells such as mast cells that express Fcε receptors

IgG responses will control the allergic responses by suppressing the ability of activated allergen-specific B cells to undergo IgE class switching.

Circulating allergen-specific IgE will initiate an inflammatory response that may manifest as runny, itchy eyes.

All of the above

Which of the following is required to ensure the integrity and stability of immunoglobulin molecules but is not associated with interactions between antigens and antibodies?

If an IgG antibody preparation specific for hen egg lysosome (HEL) is treated with papain to generate Fab fragments, which of the following statements concerning the avidity of such fragments is true?

They will have a lower avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG.

They will have a higher avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG.

They will have the same avidity for HEL as the intact IgG

They will have lost their avidity to bind to HEL.

They will have the same avidity but will have a lower affinity for HEL.

Western blot assays used to test serum samples for the presence of antibodies to infectious agents, such as HIV, are particularly useful as diagnostic assays because

They are more sensitive than ELISA

Antibodies specific for multiple antigenic epitopes can be detected

They provide quantitative data for sample analysis

They allow multiple samples to be tested simultaneously.

They are less expensive and take less time to perform as compared with ELISA.

The major difference between transgenic mice and knockout mice is that

Transgenic mice always employ the use of cloned genes derived from other species.

Transgenic mice have foreign genes that integrate at targeted loci through homologous recombination.

Transgenic mice have a functional foreign gene added to their genome.

Knockout mice always have a unique phenotype.

Which of the following statements regarding B cell hybridomas is true?

They are immortal cell lines that produce antibodies with more than one specificity.

They are derived from B cells that are first cloned and grown in cell culture for short periods

They contain two nuclei.

They are derived by fusing B cells with malignant plasma cells that are unable to secrete immunoglobulin.

An ELISA designed to test for the presence of serum antibody for a new strain of pathogenic bacteria is under development. Initially, a monoclonal antibody specific for a single epitope of the organism was used both to sensitize the wells of the ELISA plate and as the enzymelabeled detecting antibody in a conventional sandwich ELISA. The ELISA failed to detect the antigen despite the use of a wide range of antibody concentrations. What is the most probable cause of this problem?

The antigen used in the assay is too large

The antibody has a low affinity for the antigen

The monoclonal antibody used to sensitize the wells is blocking access of the epitope; thus when the same antibody is enzyme-labeled, it cannot bind to the antigen.

The enzyme-labeled antibody used should have been a different isotype than the sensitizing antibody

The monoclonal antibody used is probably unstable

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Immunology Exam 1, Ch.1-6

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