IR 151-200 "Good shit" D. ROMERO 47
ILS and Navigation Procedures Quiz
Test your knowledge on Instrument Landing System (ILS) approaches, VOR/DME navigation, and air traffic control procedures with this comprehensive quiz designed for aviation enthusiasts and professionals.
Challenge yourself with multiple-choice questions covering topics such as:
- Radar vectoring for ILS approaches
- Minimum navigation equipment for VOR/DME procedures
- Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) and more!
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?
When established on a segment of a published route or IAP
Only after you are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC
You may descend immediately to published glide slope interception altitude
(Refer to figure 123.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
One VOR receiver and DME
One VOR receiver.
Two VOR receivers and DME
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
To all pilots wherever STAR's are available
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR."
Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the "Remarks" section of the flight plan
Which is true regarding STAR's?
STAR's are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic
STAR's are used at certain airports to decrease traffic congestion
STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot
The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC
If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if
Kinesthetic senses are ignored
Yes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
Rely on the kinesthetic sense
Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left
Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is
Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface
Variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions
Movement of the air masses
Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?
Area Forecast
Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a
5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex
5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.
5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex
Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MCA
MRA
MOCA
MEA is an altitude which assures
Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.
Obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME mileage
A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage
Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is
10,000 feet MSL
24,000 feet MSL
18,000 feet MSL
Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
When the pilot requests it
When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic
Whenever the pilot reports the loss of any navigational aid
When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA
Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow
Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable
When on a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on
Magnetic heading
True course
Magnetic course
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
When flying in VFR conditions above clouds.
When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions.
When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance
Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited?
During off-airways direct flights
When flying through Class B airspace
In Class A airspace
What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on-Top clearance?
At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.
Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.
At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition
You check the flight instruments while taxing and find the VSI indicates a descent of 100 fpm. In this case, you
May take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication
Must return to the parking area and have the instrument corrected
May not take off until the instrument is corrected
The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for
Better vertical separation of aircraft
The cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temp aloft
More accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
Pressure altitude at field elevation
True altitude at field elevation
Pressure altitude at sea level
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an altitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a
270* turn
360* turn
180* turn
What indications should you observe on the turn and slip indicator during taxi
The ball moves freely opposite the turn but the needle remains centered
The ball moves freely opposite the turn and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn
The needle deflects in the direction of the turn but the ball remains centered
If a standard rate of turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090* to 300*
30 sec
40 sec
50 sec
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb( full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
Attitude indicator, airspeed and VSI indicate a climb
VSI reaches the predetermined rate of climb
Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb
If you fly into severe turbulence, which condition should you attempt to maintain?
Level flight altitude
Constant altitude and constant airspeed
Constant airspeed (Va)
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?
High altitudes far from the VORTAC
High altitude close to the VORTAC
Low altitudes far from the VORTAC
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 ft AGL?
1.3
1
0
Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint?
Plus 6* or minus 4*
Plus or minus 6*
Plus or minus 4*
What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR check when using VOT?
Plus or minus 4*
Plus or minus 8*
Plus or minus 6*
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni bearing selector and the to/from indicator should read
Within 4* of the selected radial
Within 6* of the selected radial
0* TO only if you are due south of the VOR
When a VOR/DME is collocated under the frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at the interval of
20 sec intervals at 1020 Hz
30 sec intervals at 1350 Hz
60 sec intervals at 1350 Hz
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
Removal of the identification feature
Broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel
Removal of the navigational feature
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 sec from a VORTAC?
The VOR and DME components are operative
VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI
10*
5*
4*
A VOR receiver with normal five dot course sensitivity shows a three dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
2 NM
5 NM
3 NM
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing
And fly thereafter for 45 mins at normal cruising speed
Fly to the alternate and fly thereafter for 30 mins at normal cruising speed
Fly to the alternate and fly thereafter for 45 mins at normal cruising speed
What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without supplementaal oxygen?
10,500 ft
12,000 ft
12,500 ft
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights installed at many airfields is to provide
A warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position
Rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility
Rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
The ceiling is at least 3,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more
The sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted
The ceiling is more than 5,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more
The operation of an airport beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
The ground visibility is less than 3 miles or the ceiling is less than 1,000 ft in Class B, C or D airspace
An IFR clearance is required to operate within the aiport traffic area
The in flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace
A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
Vacate 4,000 ft without notifying ATC
Use any altitude from mminimum IFR to 4,000 ft but must report leaving each altitude
Climb to but not descend from 4,000 ft without further ATC clearance
During the en route phase of an IFR flights, the pilot is advised "Radar service terminated'. What action is appropriate?
Set transponder to 1200
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re establish radar contact
Resume normal position reporting
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
Anytime the pilot reports the field in sight, ATC may aclear the pilot for a contact approach for a visual approach, the pilot must advice that the approach can be made under VFR conditions
The pilot must request a contact approach, the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist
The pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field in sight, ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist
What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at portland international
680 ft MSL visibility 1 NM
680 ft MSL visbility 1 SM
1,100 ft MSL visibility 1 SM
In which airspace is VFR on top operation prohibited?
Class A airspace
Class E airspace
Class B airspace
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on top clearance?
VFR and IFR
VFR when in the clear and IFR when in the clouds
VFR only
A jet stream is defined as wind of
50 knots or greater
40 knots or greater
30 knots or greater
Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
The use of regular white light such as a flashlight will impair night adaptation
Reducing the lighting instensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots
Coloration on shown maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
If assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach
In lieu of conducting a SIAP
In lieu of visual approach
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made
Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude since your DME has failed
Advice ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made
ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist and when within
22 NM of a VOR
25 NM of a VOR
30 NM of a VOR
While being radar vectored an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
Established on a segment of a published route or IAP
Advised to begin descent
Reaching the FAF
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