GEN BIO II UNIT TEST (4TH QUARTER)

A vibrant and educational illustration of various biological organisms, including bacteria, algae, and protozoa, in a visually engaging science-themed layout.

General Biology II - 4th Quarter Unit Test

Prepare to test your knowledge of General Biology II with this comprehensive unit test covering a wide range of topics related to taxonomy, microbiology, and protists. This quiz is designed to challenge your understanding and application of biological concepts.

Key features of the quiz:

95 multiple-choice questions
Time limit of 50 minutes
Diverse topics from bacteria to algae

99 Questions25 MinutesCreated by StudyingLeaf42

Multiple Choice Test

General Biology II - 4th Quarter - Unit Test

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Make sure that you write your name and grade & section correctly. Otherwise, the system can't record your scores.
The given time for this quiz is 50 minutes. This is a 95-item quiz so you have 31.5 seconds per item to answer each question. After that, the form will be closed for you.
Students who will not submit their answers in time will receive scores equivalent to what is correctly answered within the timeframe.
You can only submit your answers once.
After you submit your answers, I will evaluate your answers and let you know your score later.
If you have any technical problem during the quiz, please take a screenshot or screen recording and send it to me.

Multiple Choice Test

General Biology II - 4th Quarter - Unit Test

Rules and Regulations:

Make sure that you write your name and grade & section correctly. Otherwise, the system can't record your scores.
The given time for this quiz is 50 minutes. This is a 95-item quiz so you have 31.5 seconds per item to answer each question. After that, the form will be closed for you.
Students who will not submit their answers in time will receive scores equivalent to what is correctly answered within the timeframe.
You can only submit your answers once.
After you submit your answers, I will evaluate your answers and let you know your score later.
If you have any technical problem during the quiz, please take a screenshot or screen recording and send it to me.

Name:

STRAND, Grade & Section

1. Which term refers to the process of assigning features or attributes to a taxon?

A) Identification

B) Classification

C) Hierarchy

D) Description

2. What is the definition of a species?

A) Organisms that have similar characteristics and can interbreed

B) Organisms that have similar characteristics but cannot interbreed

C) Organisms that have distinct characters but can interbreed

D) Organisms that can interbreed with one another and produce fertile offspring

3. What is the purpose of nomenclature in taxonomy?

A) To classify organisms based on similarities

B) To formally name taxa according to a standardized system

C) To assign features or attributes to a taxon

D) To arrange entities into some type of order

4. What is the purpose of a classification system?

A) To arrange entities in a specific order

B) To catalog and express relationships between entities

C) To provide a standardized way of naming organisms

D) To group organisms based on their importance or power

5. What is a hybrid?

A) The formal naming of taxa according to a standardized system

B) The process of associating an unknown taxon with a known one

C) An organism produced by the interbreeding of two different species

D) An organism that can interbreed with another species and produce fertile offspring

6. True or false: The three domains in the three-domain system are Domain Eukarya, Domain Archaea, and Domain Bacteria?

A) True

B) False

7. True or False: The Kingdom Animalia belongs to the Domain Archaea?

A) True

B) False

8. True or False: A dichotomous key offers only one choice for each step in identifying an organism?

A) True

B) False

9. What is the main difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

A) Gram-positive bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer.

B) Gram-positive bacteria have lipopolysaccharides in their outer membrane, while Gram-negative bacteria do not.

C) Gram-positive bacteria are more pathogenic than Gram-negative bacteria.

D) Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that protects them from the host's cell defense.

10. Which type of bacteria is less pathogenic?

A) Gram-positive bacteria

B) Gram-negative bacteria

C) Both are equally pathogenic

D) None of the above

11. What is the function of the lipopolysaccharides in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria?

A) They protect the bacteria from the host's cell defense.

B) They trap the blue/purple stain in the thick peptidoglycan layer.

C) They make the bacteria more pathogenic.

D) They help the bacteria fix nitrogen.

12. Which type of bacteria is responsible for disease like typhoid fever?

A) Bacillus sp.

B) Clostridium sp.

C) Salmonella sp.

D) E. coli

13. What is the function of the flagella in bacteria?

A) To help the bacteria fix nitrogen

B) To protect the bacteria from the host's cell defense

C) To help the bacteria move

D) To trap the blue/purple stain in the peptidoglycan layer

14. What is the importance of bacteria in food production?

A) They help in fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere.

B) They help in the digestion of complex molecules.

C) They are used in gene cloning.

D) They are used in making antibiotics.

15. Which type of bacteria is responsible for causing tetanus?

A) Bacillus sp.

B) Clostridium tetani

C) Vibrio cholerae

D) Treponema pallidum

16. What is the function of heterocysts in bacteria?

A) To help the bacteria move

B) To fix nitrogen

C) To form spores

D) To encode proteins for photosynthesis

17. What is the function of vegetative cells in bacteria?

A) To help the bacteria move

B) To fix nitrogen

C) To form spores

D) To encode proteins for photosynthesis

18. What is the importance of bacteria in bioremediation?

A) They help in fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere.

B) They help in the digestion of complex molecules.

C) They are used in gene cloning.

D) They are used in cleaning up oil spills.

19. What is the dominant photosynthetic pigment in brown algae?

A) Chlorophyll a

B) Chlorophyll b

C) Fucoxanthin

D) Carotene

20. What do brown algae store as carbohydrates?

A) Starch

B) Sucrose

C) Laminarin and mannitol

D) Glucose

21. What is the largest brown algae known as?

A) Fucus sp.

B) Kelp

C) Euglena sp.

D) Paramecium sp.

22. What is the external feature of a Fucus sp.?

A) Thallus divided into holdfast, stipe, and blade

B) Unicellular eukaryotes

C) Cup-shaped chloroplast

D) Red stigma or eye spot

23. What is the function of the holdfast in Fucus sp.?

A) Provide a surface for photosynthesis

B) Detect change in light intensity

C) Anchor kelp to rocks or the sea bottom

D) Synthesize starch

24. What is the shape of a protozoa in the phylum Rhizopoda?

A) Pear-shaped

B) Thallus-shaped

C) Has flagella

D) Irregular-shaped

25. What is the function of the micronucleus in Paramecium sp.?

A) Involved in metabolic activities, growth, and morphogenesis of the animal

B) Involved in sexual processes, as in conjugation

C) Collect and pump out excess water

D) Move and feed using cilia

26. What is the phylum of Plasmodium sp.?

A) Euglenophyta

B) Rhizopoda

C) Ciliophora

D) Apicomplexa

27. How do Plasmodium sp. move?

A) By forming pseudopodia

B) By using cilia

C) By flexing

D) By attaching to its host cell using an apical complex of microtubules.

28. Which of the following is an example of Phylum Rhizopoda?

A) Plasmodium sp.

B) Paramecium sp.

C) Euglena sp.

D) Amoeba sp.

29. Which of the following phyla has no external structure for locomotion?

A) Euglenophyta

B) Rhizopoda

C) Ciliophora

D) Apicomplexa

30. How many nuclei does Ciliophora have?

A) One nucleus

B) Two nuclei: macronucleus and micronucleus

C) No nucleus

D) Three nuclei

31. What is the effect of eutrophication (algal bloom)?

A) Increase dissolved oxygen

B) Reduce dissolved oxygen

C) Increase CO2 concentration

D) Reduce CO2 concentration

32. What causes red tides?

A) Euglenophyta

B) Rhizopoda

C) Ciliophora

D) Dinoflagellates

33. Which protozoa can cause malaria in humans?

A) Euglena sp.

B) Plasmodium sp.

C) Amoeba sp.

D) Paramecium sp.

34. What is the role of protozoans in wastewater treatment processes?

A) To produce good-quality and clean effluents

B) To increase organic load in the output water

C) To reduce nitrogen levels in the water

D) To increase bacterial growth in the water

35. What is the basic unit of the filamentous body plan of fungi?

A) Haustoria

B) Hyphae

C) Mycelia

D) Sporocysts

36. Which phylum of fungi is responsible for breaking down bread and other foods?

A) Phylum Ascomycota

B) Phylum Basidiomycota

C) Phylum Zygomycota

D) None of the above

37. What is the name of the specialized hyphae that bear asexual spores in most ascomycetes?

A) Conidiophores

B) Basidia

C) Ascocarps

D) None of the above

38. Where are sexual spores produced in Phylum Ascomycota?

A) In the hyphae

B) In the ascocarps

C) In the basidia

D) None of the above

39. What is the name of the club-shaped structure where sexual spores develop in Phylum Basidiomycota?

A) Ascocarp

B) Basidium

C) Conidiophore

D) None of the above

40. What is the name of the symbiotic relationship between fungi and algae/cyanobacteria?

A) Mycorrhizae

B) Candidiasis

C) Lichen

D) None of the above

41. What is the name of the symbiotic relationship between fungi and plant roots?

A) Mycorrhizae

B) Candidiasis

C) Lichen

D) None of the above

42. Which type of fungi mostly invade skin, nails, or hair in humans and animals?

A) Decomposers

B) Symbionts

C) Pathogens

D) None of the above

43. Which type of fungi produces Penicillin?

A) Basidiomycetes

B) Ascomycetes

C) Cordyceps sp.

D) Cephalosporium sp.

44. What is the function of the endocarp?

A) To form the skin of the fruit

B) To provide the edible fleshy portion of the fruit

C) To protect the seed

D) To reduce evaporation of water and attack of fungi and insects

45. What is the most important part of the seed?

A) Seed coat

B) Endosperm

C) Embryo

D) Cotyledon

46. Which hormone is responsible for stem elongation?

A) Auxins

B) Gibberellins

C) Cytokinins

D) Abscisic Acid

47. What is the function of ethylene?

A) To promote cell elongation

B) To prevent senescence

C) To initiate leaf growth

D) To ripen fruits

48. What is phototropism?

A) Response to light

B) Response to gravity

C) Response to touch

D) Response to water or soil moisture

49. Which plants flower without regard to the duration of darkness?

A) Day-neutral plants

B) Short-day plants

C) Long-day plants

D) None of the above

50. Which plants flower when days are short?

A) Day-neutral plants

B) Short-day plants

C) Long-day plants

D) None of the above

51. What is the advantage of seed-bearing tracheophytes?

A) They can grow in dry habitats

B) They can grow taller than non-seed-bearing tracheophytes

C) They can reproduce without water

D) They have specialized organs

52. What are the specialized organs of tracheophytes?

A) Roots, stems, and leaves

B) Cones and flowers

C) Fronds and spores

D) Pollen and seeds

53. What is the difference between seed-bearing and non-seed-bearing tracheophytes?

A) Seed-bearing tracheophytes grow in dry habitats

B) Non-seed-bearing tracheophytes have cones and flowers

C) Seed-bearing tracheophytes reproduce without water

D) Non-seed-bearing tracheophytes contain a vascular system

54. Which one of these statements about animal evolution is correct?

A) Animals evolved to have a coelom for extracellular digestion.

B) Animals evolved a body cavity to increase food capacity and digestion.

C) Animals evolved to have a haploid gametophyte stage.

D) Animals evolved to have cell walls for active movement.

55. Which one of these statements accurately describes invertebrates of the phylum Cnidaria?

A) Cnidarians have specialized cells, distinct tissues but no organs.

B) Cnidarians have a coelom for extracellular digestion.

C) Cnidarians exhibit bilateral symmetry.

D) Cnidarians release gastric juices into the gut cavity for digestion.

56. Which phylum is characterized by a bilaterally symmetrical body, a simple body cavity, and a digestive system tube running through the length of the body?

A) Mollusca

B) Arthropoda

C) Nematoda

D) Annelida

57. Which phylum is characterized by a true coelom that increases complexity and specialization of internal organs?

A) Annelida

B) Mollusca

C) Arthropoda

D) Nematoda

58. Which phylum is characterized by segmented worms, with segments that increase mobility and redundancy in body sections?

A) Mollusca

B) Annelida

C) Nematoda

D) Arthropoda

59. What is the function of a body cavity in animals?

A) To aid in extracellular digestion

B) To concentrate their sense organs in the head

C) To provide space for organ system development

D) To release enzymes into the gut cavity for digestion

60. What is Chordata?

A) A type of fish

B) A group of vertebrates

C) A type of reptile

D) A type of amphibian

61. What are the characteristics of fish?

A) Dry skin and armor

B) Legs and moist skin

C) Bony and cartilaginous skeleton, jaws, paired appendages, and scales

D) Internal fertilization and amniotic egg

62. What is the body function of fish?

A) Lungs for gas exchange

B) Gills for gas exchange

C) Diffusion through the skin for gas exchange

D) Thoracic breathing

63. What is the reproduction process of fish?

A) Internal fertilization and external development in amniotic egg

B) External fertilization and external development in aquatic egg

C) Internal fertilization and internal development in amniotic egg

D) External fertilization and internal development in aquatic egg

64. What is the adaptability of transition to land of animals?

A) Evolution of tetrapods

B) Evolution of fish

C) Evolution of reptiles

D) Evolution of amphibians

65. What are the characteristics of amphibians?

A) Dry skin and armor

B) Legs and moist skin

C) Bony and cartilaginous skeleton, jaws, paired appendages, and scales

D) Internal fertilization and amniotic egg

66. What is the reproduction process of amphibians?

A) Internal fertilization and external development in amniotic egg

B) External fertilization and external development in aquatic egg

C) Internal fertilization and internal development in amniotic egg

D) External fertilization and internal development in aquatic egg

67. What are the characteristics of reptiles?

A) Dry skin and armor

B) Legs and moist skin

C) Bony and cartilaginous skeleton, jaws, paired appendages, and scales

D) Internal fertilization and amniotic egg

68. What is the body structure of birds?

A) Hair and specialized teeth

B) Feathers and wings

C) Scales and fins

D) Fur and claws

69. What is the reproduction process of mammals?

A) External fertilization and external development

B) Internal fertilization and external development

C) External fertilization and internal development

D) Internal fertilization and internal development

70. Which group of mammals lays eggs?

A) Placental

B) Marsupials

C) Monotremes

D) None of the above

71. Which type of asexual reproduction involves the body of the parent being divided into two equal parts?

A) Budding

B) Fission

C) Fragmentation

D) Regeneration

72. Which type of asexual reproduction involves the capacity to replace or generate parts lost by injury or shock?

A) Budding

B) Fission

C) Fragmentation

D) Regeneration

73. Which type of asexual reproduction involves an unfertilized egg developing into a complete individual?

A) Budding

B) Fission

C) Fragmentation

D) Parthenogenesis

74. What is the purpose of the barrier method of contraception?

A) To provide physical barriers that keep the sperm from entering the uterus

B) To provide hormonal barriers that prevent ovulation

C) To provide surgical barriers that prevent fertilization

D) To provide chemical barriers that prevent implantation

75. What is Natural Family Planning?

A) A method of family planning that involves the use of contraceptives

B) A method of family planning that is generally accepted by all churches

C) A method of family planning that involves surgery

D) A method of family planning that is expensive

76. What is the Calendar Method?

A) A method of family planning that involves the use of contraceptives

B) A method of family planning that is generally accepted by all churches

C) A method of family planning that relies on women's menstrual cycle

D) A method of family planning that involves surgery

77. What is a pathogen?

A) A disease-causing microorganism, molecule, or virus.

B) A type of bacteria that can only replicate inside living cells.

C) A specialized immune system cell.

D) A type of white blood cell.

78. How do viruses replicate?

A) By taking over the host cell to produce more viral genetic material and protein.

B) By secreting protein signals that recruit more immune cells to the site of the infection.

C) By recognizing and fighting any pathogen while signaling for additional defenses.

D) By increasing the temperature of the body to stop pathogen growth.

79. What is the difference between a virus and a bacterium?

A) Viruses are unicellular organisms while bacteria are multicellular organisms

B) Bacteria can only replicate inside living cells while viruses can replicate outside living cells

C) Viruses have a protein capsid while bacteria do not

D) Bacteria are not considered living organisms while viruses are

80. Why is it important to always have white blood cells in the blood?

A) White blood cells help to break down and ingest pathogens

B) White blood cells increase the temperature of the body to stop pathogen growth

C) White blood cells secrete protein signals that recruit more immune cells to the site of infection

D) All of the above

81. What is the immune system?

A) A type of bacteria that can only replicate inside living cells.

B) A specialized immune system cell.

C) An organ system that works together to attack pathogens that threaten the body.

D) A type of white blood cell.

82. What are physical barriers?

A) Proteins that recruit more immune cells to the site of the infection.

B) Specialized immune system cells that patrol the body's tissues and look for invaders.

C) Non-specific immune cells that recognize molecules found only on the surface of pathogens and bind to them.

D) Barriers that stop pathogens from entering the body, such as skin and mucous membranes.

83. What is the difference between non-specific and specific immunity?

A) Non-specific immunity attacks only specific pathogens, while specific immunity works on any pathogen.

B) Non-specific immunity focuses on attacking only specific pathogens, while specific immunity will respond to any pathogen.

C) Non-specific immunity works on any pathogen, while specific immunity will focus on attacking only specific pathogens.

D) Non-specific immunity and specific immunity are the same things.

84. What is a vaccine?

A) A medicine used to treat or prevent bacterial infection.

B) A preventative measure that introduces antigens into the body so that the immune system can produce antibodies against them.

C) A circulating protein that recognizes specific antigens.

D) A molecule that causes a specific immune response.

85. Why do some viruses require a new vaccine every year?

A) Because they are constantly evolving.

B) Because they are not affected by vaccines.

C) Because they are not recognized by the immune system.

D) Because they are not specific pathogens.

86. What are antibiotics?

A) Molecules that cause a specific immune response.

B) Circulating proteins that recognize specific antigens.

C) Medicines used to treat or prevent bacterial infection.

D) Pathogens that the immune system recognizes.

87. What happens if antibiotic treatment is stopped?

A) The bacteria die

B) The bacteria become weaker

C) The bacteria multiply and become more resistant to antibiotics

D) The bacteria become more susceptible to antibiotics

88. What are white blood cells?

A) Proteins that recruit more immune cells to the site of the infection.

B) Specialized immune system cells that patrol the body's tissues and look for invaders.

C) Non-specific immune cells that recognize molecules found only on the surface of pathogens and bind to them.

D) Cells that secrete histamine to cause inflammation.

89. Why are super high fevers deadly?

A) They cause the body to produce too many white blood cells

B) They denature protein enzymes

C) They prevent the production of antibodies

D) They cause the body to attack specific pathogens

90. Why will a person that was infected with chickenpox as a child most likely never have chickenpox again?

A) They have a high number of white blood cells

B) They have a low number of antigens

C) They have produced antibodies against the chickenpox virus

D) They have a specific immunity to all viruses

91. Which of the following best describes homeostasis?

A) The body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment regardless of external or internal changes

B) The body's ability to control external or internal changes to maintain stability

C) The body's ability to regulate its inner environment in response to external or internal changes

D) The body's ability to respond to external or internal changes by adapting its inner environment

92. What is a stimulus in the context of homeostasis?

A) A change in the afferent pathway

B) A receptor that senses changes in the environment

C) A change in the internal or external environment

D) Information sent from the control center to the effector

93. What is the role of the control center in the homeostasis process?

A) Receive information from the effector and sends signals to the receptor

B) Receive signals from the receptor and sends information to the effector

C) Sense changes in the afferent pathway and sends signals to the effector

D) Sense changes in the environment and sends signals to the control center

94. Which feedback mechanism reduces excessive response and keeps a variable within the normal range?

A) Negative Feedback Mechanism

B) Response Feedback Mechanism

C) Positive Feedback Mechanism

D) Balance Feedback Mechanism

95. Which feedback mechanism intensifies the response until an endpoint is reached?

A) Negative Feedback Mechanism

B) Response Feedback Mechanism

C) Balance Feedback Mechanism

D) Positive Feedback Mechanism

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