Firefighter Midterm

Which statement describes the staffing and funding of volunteer fire departments?

What is the mission of the fire service?

Which type of specialized fire company generally has the primary duty of transporting patients to a hospital?

Which type of specialized fire company is assigned to a pumping apparatus and performs suppression duties at structure fires?

A(an) concept allows all responders to use a similar, coordinated approach with a common set of authorities, protections, and resources.

On which National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard are the professional qualifications for Fire Fighter I based?

Multiple fire companies within a response area whose day-to-day functions are overseen by the operations division are called a(an):

Most fire departments are organized in a series of levels, with the intermediate levels made up of personnel assigned by:

In the most common type of fire department organizational structure,:

What is the overall mission of the fire service?

Which organization or agency would assist the fire department with incident scene security, crowd control, and explosive disposal?

Which group of fire department employees provides administrative and logistical support in areas such as finance, maintenance, and training?

Why did the National Fallen Firefighters Association develop the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives in 2004?

Why is the division of labor necessary in the fire service?

What does it mean to practice situational awareness on the fireground?

A type of fire departmental organizational structure where decisions and information are directed from the top and filtered down through intermediate levels to the base can be described as:

What must a fire department's health and safety program address?

Which duty is a Fire Fighter I expected to perform?

Which statement describes the difference in the roles of a Fire Fighter I and a Firefighter II?

Each employee reporting to just one supervisor, who in turn moves up the chain of command, is an example of:

Written regulations such as organization's policies and procedures clarify expectations and:

Which type of specialized fire company generally has the primary duty of searching for victims and removing them from areas of danger or entrapment?

Emergency scene lighting and portable rescue equipment are powered by apparatus-mounted generators, the apparatus' electrical system, or:

The division of labor refers to:

Fire department line personnel are responsible for:

Often referred to as dispatchers, the persons who are trained to answer emergency calls and obtain the correct information are:

What information should be included when broadcasting information on emergencies to department members?

Which type of alarm consists of scrolling message boards and pagers?

Once an emergency has been reported, the information must be:

What information should be gathered by a dispatcher?

Which federal agency issues radio licenses to fire departments that operate radio equipment?

A central location that takes all emergency calls and routes the call to the fire, emergency medical, or law enforcement dispatcher is a:

Which method of alerting fire department members of an emergency alerts the member by tone, light, and/or vibration and can be sent to specific frequencies?

A separate dispatch center operated by a fire department would be categorized as a(an):

Which type of communications center equipment would be used for communications at an emergency scene?

Radios used in fixed locations such as fire stations, telecommunications center, training centers, or administrative offices are referred to as:

Modern 9-1-1 system capabilities now include apps.

Which category of telecommunications systems is in a central location, takes all emergency calls, and then routes calls to appropriate dispatchers?

The power of the transmitter and receiver and the height of the broadcast and receiving antennas determine the:

What communication center equipment is used to receive calls from individuals with hearing impairments?

Type II construction buildings are composed of:

In a Type III construction building, the interior walls, columns, beams, floors, and roofs are completely or partially constructed of:

Which type of factory-built homes are assembled on-site from components constructed of foam insulation sandwiched between sheets of plywood?

The most common type of factory built home that firefighters will encounter is the _____ home.

Which characteristic of Type IV construction buildings can contribute to the intensity of a fire once it starts?

When responding to a fire in a Type I construction building, firefighters should be aware that:

Which type of building construction is commonly encountered in single-family residences and is known as wood frame construction?

Which type of factory-built home is the least expensive, usually has wheel and a permanent steel undercarriage?

What is one construction requirement of newer factory built homes that has helped to reduce fire loss and residential fatalities?

Roof modifications such as rooftop gardens or photovoltaic panels should be identified during preincident surveys and initial size-up:

Type IV buildings are resistant to structural collapse because of the:

With regard to local building codes, firefighters should be aware that:

What are the three main components that make up roof?

What condition often found in Type III construction buildings is likely to negatively influence fire behavior?

Which construction classification includes buildings with exterior load bearing walls composed entirely of wood and is commonly referred to as wood frame construction?

Type V construction buildings may have a veneer of stucco, brick, or stone that:

Fires in basements are likely to become more hazardous than fires in other compartments because of:

Which element is included in the fire tetrahedron that is not part of the fire triangle model?

Hydrogen cyanide (HCN) is a product of combustion that:

The range of concentrations of fuel vapor and air within which combustion can occur is the:

What is the primary consideration affecting how easily solid fuels ignite?

Which statement about energy and combustion is accurate?

Fires involve a heat-producing chemical reaction between fuel and:

Which measurement is often used to measure how long PPE will protect a firefighter in an interior fire environment?

How does a compartment fire affect pressure in and around gases in the compartment?

When a substance changes from one type of matter into another, such as two or more substances combining to form compounds, the substance undergoes a:

What is the measurement of the average kinetic energy in the particles of a sample of matter?

Most residential fires that develop beyond the incipient stage become

The minimum temperature at which a fuel in the air must be heated in order to start self-sustained combustion is known as the:

Which type of fuel is difficult to extinguish using water as the only extinguishing agent?

What is the MOST common source of heat in combustion reactions?

Which is an example of a self-sustaining chemical reaction?

Which element of the fire tetrahedron is included to explain flaming (gas-phase) combustion?

What occurs when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounter an external heat source with sufficient heat or thermal energy to start the combustion reaction?

In order to burn, fuel must be in a ______ state

Which statement about using a portable fire extinguisher is accurate?

Class A portable fire extinguishers are rated from 1-A through 40-A based upon the amount of water and:

How would a fire containing plastics be classified?

Which statement about Class C fires is accurate?

A Class D fire should be extinguished using a:

In a(n) ______extinguisher, compressed air or inert gas within the container forces the agent our of the extinguisher nozzle when the operator presses the handle.

(blank) is an example of a Class D fuel.

An empty portable fire extinguisher should be:

Which type of extinguishing agent is used to extinguish a Class B fire?

Which is a Class D combustible material?

When an extinguishing agent is determined to be safe and effective for use on combustible metals, it will:

Which type of extinguisher is intended to be used on a Class B fire?

Which method of fire extinguishment forms an oxygen-excluding soapy foam over the surface of the burning material?

Which material is a Class A combustible material?

Which material is a Class B fuel?

What type of materials do Class B fires involve?

Which extinguishing agent should be used for a Class D fire?

According to NFPA 1983, what must be used to make life safety rope?

Which type of webbing is commonly used for rescue applications?

Which type of rope is commonly used as utility rope and is constructed by uniformly intertwining strands of rope together in a diagonally overlapping pattern?

How can utility rope be used during rescue operations?

A ______ is a bend in the knot that is created by bending the rope back on itself while keeping the sides parallel.

Which part of the rope is used to tie a knot?

Natural fiber ropes:

Which type of rope is used as a belay line when there is a possibility that a victim or firefighter may fall a long distance while supported by the rope?

Which type of rope construction is used for life safety rope?

What is one disadvantage of synthetic fiber rope?

Rope that is used exclusively for utility rope and is susceptible to abrasion and damage because a large portion of the load-bearing strands are exposed is known as:

Life safety rope must be removed from service if it has been:

What should be done in order to ensure that rope remain in good condition?

Natural fiber ropes are:

Braid-on-braid rope is usually used:

Synthetic fiber rope:

What is one advantage of natural fiber rope?

A(an) ______ knot is primarily used to attach a rope to an object such as a pike pole or hoseline.

At an emergency incident, utility rope can be used for:

A _______ is used to control equipment that is being hoisted by preventing it from spinning or snagging.

Which type of ladder has a fixed length and can be from 6 to 32 feet (2 to 10m) long?

When preparing to carry a ground ladder stored on an apparatus, it is important to know:

When two firefighters are used to raise a ladder, the:

How should a ladder be placed when rescuing a victim from a window?

According to the NFPA 1932, ground ladders should be inspected after every use and at least:

What should be done if damage is found during a ladder inspections?

Swivel plates attached to the butt of the ladder are called:

The recommended climbing angle for ladders is usually______ degrees.

The lowest, widest section of an extension ladder that always maintains contact with the ground while the ladder is being raised is the:

What is method of preventing a ground ladder from moving once it has been placed?

Which ladder should be raised by at least three firefighters?

In order to safely climb a ladder, a firefighter should:

According to NFPA 1931, all ladders are required to have a:

When carrying a roof ladder, the:

If a firefighter needs to use both hands while working on a ladder, he or she should use a ladder belt or ____ to secure to the ladder.

The (Blank ) is the rope or cable used to raise the upper sections of an extension ladder.

Pushing/pulling tools such as pike poles:

To prevent injury while using forcible entry tools, it is best practice to:

Which forcible entry tool has a V-blade and is used to pull lock cylinders?

Before performing forcible entry at a commercial or industrial occupancy, a firefighter should "try before you pry" and:

Which type of tool works as a lever to provide a mechanical advantage when forcing entry?

Which forcible entry task is a pick-head axe well suited to perform?

Which method is safe to use when carrying an axe?

Do NOT operate any power saw when:

Which cutting tool would be used to cut through shingles and other roof coverings?

Before breaching an exterior wall, firefighters must consider:

The most common type of locking or latching mechanisms found in residential homes are:

Which factor affects the decision of where to force entry?

Security barriers such as bars, grilles, and Lexan® windows:

Which type of windows may require a sledge hammer or battering ram to break?

Panic, claustrophobia, and disorientation are effects of:

A search of the fire floor generally:

Air monitoring is performed at incident in order to determine the:

Which situation would be a considered MAYDAY situation?

Which condition specific to search and rescue operations should be communicated to crew members and/or your supervisor?

Immediately after a MAYDAY is broadcast, all:

What is the safest option if there is imminent threat of structural collapse?

Atmosphere is considered oxygen-deficient when oxygen levels are:

Which method is designated to enable a rescuer to move a victim up or down a stairway?

(Blank) consist of at least two trained members standing by in case a firefighter must be rescued

To employ effective air management techniques during search and rescue, firefighters must:

Shelter-in-place is used as an alternative to evacuation when:

Which tool or piece of equipment does a rapid intervention crew (RIC) need to carry?

Which type of search is intended to quickly find victims before or during suppression operations?

Which type of fires are difficult to access without effective ventilation because firefighters would have to descend through intense rising heat and smoke to get to the seat of the fire?

Which inspection hole is the easiest and fastest to cut?

What is the goal of positive-pressure ventilation (PPV)?

When ventilation work on a rood is complete, personnel should:

Which type of ventilation is accomplished by using fans, blowers, or smoke ejectors to create negative or positive pressure?

When ventilating shingle-covered pitch roofs, always cut exhaust openings:

Which type of ventilation is usually required for fires in windowless buildings?

As a fire within a compartment consumes oxygen, the amount of unburned fuel in combustion products:

Which action may improve visibility inside structures so that interior crews can work more effectively?

Which type of ventilation consists of opening doors and windows to allow air currents and pressure differences to remove heat and smoke from a building?

When performing tactical ventilation, what action has the most impact on successful ventilation?

Why should ventilation be immediately followed with exterior or interior fire attack to cool gases and surfaces in the fire room?

Which is an indication of possible roof collapse?

Why is ventilation used during overhaul and loss control?

Tactical ventilation should be coordinated with an emphasis on:

According to NFPA 1962, fire hose should be service tested within 90 days before being placed in service for the first time and then:

A fire hose is labeled according to the:

What is the purpose of lugs on a fire hose coupling?

Which hose roll creates a compact roll that can easily be transported for special situations, such as a high-rise incident?

Which statement describes two-way couplings?

Hard suction hose is commonly used:

The (blank) on a coupling is a flattened angle at the end of the threads that helps prevent cross-threading when connecting couplings.

Which is the best way to load large diameter supply hose?

Which is a characteristic of nonthreaded couplings?

Which is a guideline for loading hose?

Which type of hose is designed to connect the pumping apparatus to a pressurized water source, such as a hydrant?

The part of the coupling where it attaches to the hose is called the:

Fire hose should be washed with mild soap or detergent using scrub brushes:

What must be done when shutting down a dry-barrel hydrant?

Mobile water supply operations, such as water shuttles or relay pumping, must be performed:

What is one advantage of the minuteman load?

A hydrant wrench is primarily used to:

Reduced water volume or pressure from hydrants can result from:

Which type of valve device is used to divide one hoseline into two or more hoselines?

Which type of hydrant is used in climates with prolonged periods of below-freezing temperatures?

A (blank) valve is used to control the flow of water from a fire hydrant.

In which operation would the pumping apparatus start at the fire scene and lay a supply line back to the water source?

Friction loss causes:

Water extinguishes fire by:

In order to prevent obstructions when advancing a charged hoseline down a stairway, excess hose should be:

Hydrants must be opened and closed slowly in order to prevent:

Where are wet-barrel hydrants usually installed?

Which type of nozzle has a straight, smooth tip and produces a solid stream of water?

A dry-barrel hydrant only has water in it when:

When attacking a vehicle fire, crews should:

Directing short bursts of water into the hos gas layer:

When attacking fire in a small unattached structure such as a storage shed,:

What factor has the biggest impact on a ground cover fire?

Which type of alternative vehicle fuel has a flame that is invisible during the day and should be allowed to burn itself out?

Which method of fire suppression is rarely an option at a structure fire?

When a firefighter controls doors and windows during fire attack, it is an example of:

What is the primary goal when attacking fire in exterior stacked or piled Class A materials?

Applying water to a fire is an example of:

Which method of fire attack involved applying water onto burning fuels using a solid or straight stream?

What can happen if excess steam is produced inside the structure as a result of applying water on the fire?

Closing the valve on a natural gas tank to stop the emission of gaseous fuel would be an example of:

What part of a ground cover fire spreads the most rapidly and usually does the most damage?

In which situation would fuel removal be a likely method of extinguishment?

When firefighters apply water to the hot gas layer in a compartment, it will:

Extinguisher agents such as _____ interrupt or inhibit the combustion reaction and stop chemical flame production.

Which statement describes transitional attack?

At a structure fire, a Fire Fighter I:

Which method of protecting building contents keeps items secure and reduces interference with fire suppression and ventilation activities?

Which is a duty of a Fire Fighter I?

Where does overhaul typically begin?

Which is an indicator that a fire was NOT accidental?

Spalled concrete is an indicator of:

Which piece of salvage equipment is designed to carry debris and provide a water basin for immersing small burning objects?

Which hazard are firefighters likely to encounter during overhaul?

Traditionally, how large is the collapse zone?

Why can abandoned buildings pose great danger of fire and collapse?

How does heat affect masonry?

Little or no water runoff from the interior of the structure can be an indicator that:

Which factor is likely to affect the speed with which a steel structural member fails under fire conditions?

What is a concern about lath and plaster during a fire?

Which building material can potentially be harmful to firefighters because it contains a glue called urea formaldehyde that gives off a hazardous gas when it is heated?

Cast iron may crack or shatter when it is:

Which type of building material is used to protect other materials because its moisture content gives it excellent heat resistance?

When heated, steel structural members tend to:

Which type of collapse is common for a Type V construction building?

When should a collapse zone be established at a structure fire?

How does reinforced concrete react to exposure to fire?

When should firefighters begin considering the potential that a building will collapse?

Which statement describes how glass will react under fire conditions?

Which type of building material can produce toxic gases and rapidly deteriorate under fire conditions?

What must a Fire Fighter II be able to do to assist at technical rescue incidents?

The controlled opening near the Command Post is monitored by

When responding to an elevator entrapment rescue,:

Which type of collapse has a good chance of habitable voids but is most vulnerable to secondary collapse?

Before entering into the hot zone, personnel must:

Which type of water or ice rescue is extremely dangerous because of powerful undercurrents and a hydraulic action that make escape virtually impossible?

Which type of rescue has limited means of entry and exit, is not designed for continuous occupancy, and may include cisterns/wells and utility vaults?

Which is a task the Fire Fighter II must know in order to assist in technical rescue incidents?

Stabilizing a rescue incident may involve:

For which type of rescue would the Fire Fighter II monitor communication channels and search lines, operate SAR systems, and assist victims once they have been removed from the hot zone?

Which type of collapse occurs when the floor and/or roof assemblies on both sides of a load-bearing center wall collapse?

The first priority in a structural collapse rescue is to:

An advantage of__________ is that they are widely available on most fire apparatus.

Which type of foam proportioner is directly attached to the pump panel outlet or connected at some point in the hose lay?

A(an) is mounted on an apparatus and uses a centrifugal pump to supply the water for the foam solution and an onboard air compressor to add air to the mixture before discharge.

Fog nozzles can be used with foam solution to produce:

What is a disadvantage of using fog nozzles to apply fire fighting foam?

Which is a characteristic of foam nozzles?

Which type of foam proportioner can compromise firefighter safety by slowing firefighters down since it requires the concentrate to be available where the nozzle is being operated?

Most fire fighting foams are intended to be mixed with:

Which hazard is associated with fire fighting foam concentrate?

The premixing method of foam proportioning is typically used with:

Mixing water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution is referred to as:

Class A foam acts as a surfactant, which means that it:

High-quality foam bubbles are created through the process of:

The rate of application for Class B foam depends on:

Which factor is important when selecting the appropriate foam proportioner to use?

Which extinguishment method involves foam creating a barrier between the fuel gases and any possible ignition sources?

Which is true of polar solvent fuels?

The firefighter in command of the incident must understand alarm assignment, which means that they must know the:

Which is a characteristic of NIMS-ICS?

A crew leader is responsible for:

When the first firefighter arrives on scene, he or she should:

Which piece of information must be communicated to crew members and dispatch when establishing command?

When a firefighter acting as the Incident Commander needs to transfer Command to someone,:

When making operational assignments, the Incident Commander:

What must the acting Incident Commander know in order to forecast fire growth and development?

When making initial assignments, the acting Incident Commander:

Which type of fuel source would require the greatest amount of heat to ignite because it must undergo pyrolysis in order to burn?

When establishing a perimeter around a fire scene, the perimeter must be:

How large should the perimeter outside a structure fire be?

When trying to locate the area of origin of a ground cover fire, you must know:

When examining the interior of a structure for the area of origin,:

The area of origin will usually contain:

Which is a responsibility of a Fire Fighter II concerning evidence at a fire investigation?

An occupant stating that the room smelled like propane immediately before the fire started is an example of ______ evidence.

Which action should be carefully conducted, because it can cause destruction or contamination of evidence at a fire scene?

After completing equipment maintenance, it is important to clean the work area and:

When service testing a fire hose, the:

Why should test lengths of hose not exceed 300 feet (100 m) in length?

Which is a safety procedure related to fire hose testing?

What should you do if you find a problem when maintaining a portable generator?

Which piece of equipment is used to prevent pressurized hose from dangerously whipping back and forth if it ruptures?

In order to prevent damage to a portable generator, always:

Which type of equipment is NOT typically maintained by a Fire Fighter II?

Replace any spark plug that:

When maintaining portable lighting equipment, it is safest to:

When testing fire hose, it is important to:

Battery packs and pneumatic air cylinders should be kept: