Dental emergency
Dental Emergency Quiz
Test your knowledge on dental emergencies with this comprehensive quiz designed for dental professionals. Understand the critical signs, symptoms, and appropriate responses to various dental emergency situations.
This quiz covers key areas such as:
- Airway obstruction signs
- Surgical airway procedures
- Common complications during dental treatment
- Factors affecting emergencies in dental practices
1. What are general signs and symptoms of airway obstruction?
Gasping for breath, patient grabs at throat, panic, and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction
Gasping for breath, patient grabs at throat, and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction
Gasping for breath, patient grabs at throat, panic, shocked, and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction
Cyanosis and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction
2. Signs and Symptoms of total airway obstruction:
Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing
No noise
Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing and no noise
no noise and snoring
Tachycardia
3. When is cricothyrotomy necessary?
When there is injury to the throat
When airway obstruction is caused by a foreign body that cannot be dislodged
When there is a trauma to the neck region
When fracture of mandible
4. Surgical airway procedure should only be done on:
Kids
Adults
Aging people
Anybody
5. All of the following can have Life-threatening emergencies in the practice of dentistry, except…
A patient
Accompanying the patient
Doctor and Member of office stuff
A patient’s driver
6. The following are the Factor of Emergencies except…..
Increased number of older patients
Medical Advances
Increased drug use
Longer dental appointments
HIV infection
7. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 1 to 4 years?
Accidents and adverse effects
Congenital anomalies
Malignant neoplasms
Homicide and legal intervention
Diseases of the heart
8. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 5 to 14 years?
Accidents and adverse effects
Malignant neoplasms
Homicide and legal intervention
Congenital anomalies
Suicide
9. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 15 to 24 years?
Accidents and adverse effects
Homicide and legal intervention
Suicide
Malignant neoplasms
Diseases of heart
10. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 25 to 44 years?
HIV infection
Accidents and adverse effects
Malignant neoplasms
Diseases of heart
Suicide
11. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 45 to 64 years?
Malignant neoplasms
Diseases of heart
Accidents and adverse effects
Cerebrovascular diseases
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
12. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 55 years old and older?
Diseases of heart
Malignant neoplasms
Cerebrovascular diseases
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Pneumonia and influenza
13. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?
Syncope
Mild allergic reaction
Angina pectoris
Postural hypotension
A Syncope and Angina pectoris
14. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?
Postural hypotension.
Hyperventilation
Cardiac arrest
Anaphylactic reaction
Postural hypotension and Anaphylactic reaction
15. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, except…
Shock Hemorrhage
Syncope
Mild allergic reaction
Angina pectoris
Postural hypotension
16. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one rarely occurs?
Thyroid storm
Syncope
Mild allergic reaction
Angina pectoris
Postural hypotension
17. The following are the time of systemic complications occurrence, which one occurs the most?
Immediate before treatment
During or after local anesthesia
During treatment
After treatment
After leaving dental office
18. The following are the time of systemic complications occurrence, which one rarely occurs?
Immediate before treatment
During or after local anesthesia
During treatment
After treatment
After leaving dental office
19. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?
Tooth extraction
Pulp extirpation
Preparation
Filling
Incision
20. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?
Alveolar plastics
Pulp extirpation
Preparation
Filling
Incision
21. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?
Alveolar plastics
Removal of fillings
Preparation
Filling
Incision
22. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?
Alveolar plastics
Removal of fillings
Apicoectomy
Filling
Incision
23. The following are the anatomy of airway management except…
The tongue
The nose
The pharynx
The mandible
The Maxillary
24. Which one is the major cause of the airway obstructions?
Tongue
Nose
Pharynx
Lung
Tongue, Nose and Pharynx
25. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation except
Short, muscular neck
Protruding maxillary incisors
Long, high, arched palate with narrow mouth
Limited mobility of the neck
The big tongue
26. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with pathologic states except
Hereditary angioedema
Arthritis and ankylosis
Cervical spine immobility
TMJ disease
Short, muscular neck
27. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with pathologic states except
Limited mobility of the neck
Arthritis and ankylosis
Laryngeal abnormalities
Endocrinopathies
Myopathies
28. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with Technical and Mechanical Factors except
Body cast (The form)
Halo traction & cervical collar
Foreign bodies in the airway
Poor technique, inexperience
Mandible fracture
29. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with Technical and Mechanical Factors except
Halo traction & cervical collar
Foreign bodies in the airway
Poor technique, inexperience.
Leaks around a face mask
Short of the tongue
30. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except
Agitation
Universal distress signal
Coughing
Crowing
Hypoglycemia
31. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except
Crowing (partial obstruction)
Silence (complete obstruction)
Wheezing (To breathe with difficulty and noisily)
Cyanosis
Hypertension
32. The following are the airway equipment for medical emergencies except
Cotton role and gauze
Oxygen tank
Artificial airways and Face masks
Suction Machine and Suction Tubes
Laryngoscope set and Magill forceps
33. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which position is correct for cardiac arrest patient?
The patient needs to be flat on his or her back
Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe
Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated
With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain
34. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which is correct for asthmatic patient?
The patient needs to be flat on his or her back
Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe
Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated
With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain
35. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which is correct for the unconscious patient?
The patient needs to be flat on his or her back
Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe
Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated
With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain
36. The following are the critical airway management in unconscious patient except
The head is tilted back, and the chin is lifted
One hand is placed on the forehead, with two fingers of the other hand on the Mn to rotate the head back
The tongue is attached to the Mn so that when you pull the mandible forward, the tongue also moves forward
Opens the airway so the patient can breathe, or so you can breathe for the patient
Administration of fluid and adrenaline injection
37. The following are management of circulation for unconscious patient except
Maintain the head tilt and check for the carotid pulse
The carotid pulse is missed 40% of the time by medical personnel and paramedics
The pulse should be checked for 10 seconds
If a pulse is not felt, start compressions immediately
Administration of oxygen and fluid
38. Which of the following is the sign and symptom of the congestive heart failure:
Dyspnea, hyperventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis
Dyspnea, hypoventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis
Apnea, hyperventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis
Apnea, hypoventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis
39. The following are the signs and symptoms of the angina pectoris except:
Pain posterior to the sternum, may be precipitated by fatigue, extreme stress, or a rich meal, and subsides within 2–5 min after rest and the use of vasodilators
Painful discomfort in the chest, with a burning sensation, pressure, or tightness
Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the left shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible
Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the right shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible
40. Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina pectoris:
Written consent by the patient’s cardiologist is desirable
Appropriate premedication, usually 5–10 mg diazepam or 1,5–3 mg bromazepam orally, 1h before the surgical procedure may be helpful
Dental surgery in hospital, when the patient refers many episodes of angina pectoris
Large amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration
Short appointments, as painless as possible
41. Which of the following is the preventive measure recommended for patients with Rheumatic Heart Disease, except…
Premedication before the surgical procedure can be helpful
Avoidance of vasoconstrictors (or maximum concentration 1:100,000)
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration
Procedure the patient in the morning time
42. The following are preventives measure of patient with cardiac arrhythmia, especially persistent arrhythmia, except…
Consultation with treating physician
In severe cases avoidance of LA containing vasoconstrictors or postponing of dental procedures
Premedication before the surgical procedure can be of help
Short appointments and pain control
Use Antibiotic before procedure
43. Syncope is classified into:
3 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope caused by postural Hypotension, Syncope caused by cerebral factors
4 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope of cardiac origin, Syncope caused by excessive vagal reflexes, Syncope caused by cerebral factors
5 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope of cardiac origin, Syncope caused by postural Hypotension, Syncope caused by excessive vagal reflexes, Syncope caused by cerebral factors
6 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope of cardiac origin, Syncope caused by postural Hypotension, Syncope caused by diabetic, Syncope caused by excessive vagal reflexes, Syncope caused by cerebral factors
44. Which of the following is wrong about Blood Pressure (BP):
BP is recorded as two numbers: systolic and diastolic pressure
The systolic pressure (as the heart relaxes between beats) and the diastolic pressure (as the heart beats
The measurement is written the systolic number on top and the diastolic number on the bottom ( Ex: 120/80 mmHg)
None of all
45. Which of the following is the cause of HBP?
Narrowing of the arteries
Volume of blood is greater than normal
The heart beats faster or more forcefully than normal
Medical problem
All are correct
46. Which of the following is not the treatment medication for HBP?
Diuretics
Beta-blockers and Alpha-blockers
Vasoconstrictor
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin antagonists
47. The following are the risks to patients with HBP in Exodontia except:
Stroke
Myocardial Infarctus
Post-operative swelling
Post-operative bleeding
48. Which of the following is not drug that causes of hypotension?
Anti-anxiety medications
Vitamin C
Certain antidepressants (tricyclic antidepressants)
Diuretics
Painkillers
49. Which of the following is/are the cause(s) of LBP?
Advanced diabetes
Anaphylaxis
Heart attack
Shock
All are correct
50. Which of the following is not the symptom of hypotension?
Dizziness or lightheadedness
Fainting (syncope)
Clear vision
Nausea
Rapid, shallow breathing
51. Which of the following sentence is wrong about diabetes?
Diabetes mellitus is a syndrome characterized by alteration of the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids caused by abnormalities of the secretion mechanism and effect of insulin
Diabetic hypoglycaemia is most important, presenting when the blood glucose level is higher than 55 mg/100 ml
Diabetic hyperglycemia develops slowly, is observed more rarely and is less dangerous than hypoglycemia
None of all
52. Which of the following is not the cause of chronic renal failure?
Glomerulonephritis,
Hypertensive nephrosclerosis
Diabetes mellitus
Nephrotoxins
Tachycardia
53. Which of the following is not the cause of asthma?
Stress
Allergy
Temperature change
Hematemesis
54. Which of the following is the management of patient with asthma?
Take a detailed medical history of the patient
Administration of sedative medication for stress management
Control of pain (to avoid stress), with sufficient duration and depth of local anesthesia
Short appointments with gentle manipulations during surgical procedure
All are correct
55. Which of the following is not the management of Hepatitis B, C and AIDS?
Programming the surgical procedure as the morning appointment of the day
Using two pairs of disposable gloves. Gloves protect the patient as well as the dentist and should be discarded immediately after use
Special protective glasses and disposable surgical mask
Special protective surgical gown and cap covering scalp hair
Great care should be taken during their use, in order to avoid accidental puncture. Also, the plastic cover of the needle should be replaced with the special reheating device only. This should be a standard technique for all patients
56. The following are the mild allergy symptoms, except….
Skin Rash
Itchy
watery eyes
Congestion
Dyspnea
57. The following are the moderate allergy symptoms, except….
Skin Rash
Itchy, watery eyes
Congestion
Difficulty breathing
Apnea
58. Allergy symptoms can be categorized as following:
Mild allergy symptom
Moderate allergy symptom
Severe allergy symptom
All are correct
59. The following are the allergy symptoms may begin with sudden itching of the eyes or face and within minute’s progress to more serious symptoms, except….
Varying degrees of swellings that can make breathing and swallowing difficult.
Abdominal pain, Cramps
Vomiting , Diarrhea
Mental confusion or dizziness
Cyanosis
60. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….
PNC (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)
Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates
Insulin, Vaccines
Anticonvulsants
Metronidazole
61. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….
PNC (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)
Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates
Insulin, Vaccines
Anticonvulsants
Erythromycins
62. The following are the symptom of anaphylaxis allergic response to more seriously, except…
Swallowing and breathing difficulties
Abdominal pain, Cramps
Diarrhea and Vomiting
Hypertension
Angioedema
63. Which of the following is not the common trigger of Anaphylaxis?
Foods
Insect’s sting
Pollens and other inhaled allergens
Substances can cause reactions are fish and latex
64. Which of the following is the treatment of patient anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine is adrenaline.(I.M)
Rapidly reverses anaphylactic symptoms. It is typically given through an automatic injection
In addition to Epinephrine, treatment for shock includes PIV & medicines that support the action
In shock is stabilized, antihistamine & steroid may be given to reduce symptoms and call for professional medical help immediately
All are correct
65. The Epinephrine is used to reverse as following, except…
Hypotension
Bronchospasm
Laryngeal edema that result from an acute anaphylactic type reaction
Also used to reduce bronchospasm resulting from an acute asthmatic episode that is refractory to inhaler therapy
Tachycardia
66. Which of following is the adverse effect of epinephrine?
Cardiovascular (Tachycardia, Tachyarrhythmia, and hypertension)
Central Nervous System (Agitation, headache, and tremors)
Endocrine System (Increased blood glucose)
Pregnant Female (Can decrease placental blood flow)
All of are correct
67. Which of following is the adverse effect of Nitroglycerin?
Rapid heart rate
Facial flushing
Orthostatic (Postural) hypotension
Dizziness and headache
All are correct
68. The following are the causes of LBP, except…
Advanced diabetes
Anaphylaxis
Heart attack
Shock
Reye’s Syndrome
69. The following are the causes of chronic renal failure, except…
Glomerulonephritis
Hypertensive nephrosclerosis
Diabetes mellitus
Nephrotoxins
Tachycardia
70. The following are the managements of patient with asthma, except…
Take a detailed medical history of the patient
Administration of sedative medication for stress management
Control of pain (to avoid stress), with sufficient duration and depth of local anesthesia
Short appointments with gentle manipulations during surgical procedure
Procedure in the morning
71. The following are the mild allergy symptoms, except….
Skin Rash
Itchy
watery eyes
Congestion
Convulsion
72. The following are the treatments of patient anaphylaxis, except…
Epinephrine is adrenaline.(I.M)
Rapidly reverses anaphylactic symptoms. It is typically given through an automatic injection
In addition to Epinephrine, treatment for shock includes PIV & medicines that support the action
In shock is stabilized, antihistamine & steroid may be given to reduce symptoms
Administration of appropriate antibiotic
73. The following are the adverse effects of epinephrine, except…
Cardiovascular (Tachycardia, Tachyarrhythmia, and hypertension)
Central Nervous System (Agitation, headache, and tremors)
Endocrine System (Increased blood glucose)
Pregnant Female (Can decrease placental blood flow)
Bradycardia
74. Among the following which is the rescue breathing in adult?
6 times/min
18 times/min
12 times/min
24 times/min
75. In patient on artificial ventilation the cycle of exhale air ventilation should be repeated of every:
20 secs
10 secs
5 secs
1 sec
76. To perform tracheoctomy entry should be made at the:
Cricothyroid ligament
Thyroid membrane
Thyroid notch
Cricoid cartilage
77. The primary hazard for unconscious patient in supine position is:
Tongue obstruction
Bronchospasm
Lanyngospasm
Aspiration
78. The best blood product administered preoperatively to patients with haemophilia A is:
Fresh frozen plasma
Factor IX concentrate
Whole blood
Factor VIII concentrate
79. A cardinal symptom of dehydration due to disturbance of fluid and electrolyte balance is:
Hyperthermia
Nausea
Polydipsia
None
80. In medical emergency easiest technique for opening airway is to:
Turn his head back
Turn head to one side
Clear mouth, throat
Strike his back
81. In CPR, if one incorrectly apply pressure over xiphoid process the following may be injured:
Heart
Liver
Spleen
Lungs
82. Instead of responding to treatment for syncope, patients pulse and respiration become weak and irregular with attendant cyanosis. The first resuscitative measure should be to:
Support circulation by injecting 1:1000 adrenaline
Begin closed chest cardiac message
Begin CPR
Place paper bag over patient’s face and risk blood CO2
83. If efforts in CPR are effective there will be:
Constriction of pupils
Dilatation of pupils
Hypertension immediate
None of all
84. Patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is most likely to have which of following postoperative complication:
Infection
Haemorrhage
Oedema
Alveolar osteitis
85. All of the following are various methods to control intra operative haemorrhage except:
Gauge sponge pressure
Artery application to open vessels
Infiltration with lidocaine
Bone compression for surface bleeding
86. Which of the following factor does not play role in haemostasis is:
Prothrombin
Vessel wall calcium
Vit K
Vit B
87. Which is the earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?
Hypotension
Vasoconstriction
Tachycardia
Dyspnoea
88. Preoperative vit K is indicated in patients with:
Diabetes mellitus
Chronic pneumonitis
Liver disease
Accuracy
89. The main cause of bleeding in patients is thrombocytopenic purpura is deficiency of:
Vit B
Prothrombin
Vit K
Platelets
90. During shock vasopressor drugs are preferably given:
Sublingually
Intracardially
Intramuscularly
Intravenously
91. Treatment of syncope is most effectively accomplished by which of the following?
Administer 100 percent O2 for 5 min
Lowering chair to phase patient’s head lower than his feet
Bending patient’s head forward between his knees and asking patient to raise his head against hand pressure
It requires treatment by physician
92. Among the following which is best haemostatic agent for control of local haemorrhage?
Gel foam
Surgical
Bone
Vit K
93. During CPR sternum should the depressed:
2 inches every 5 seconds
2 inches every second
1 inch every 10 seconds
3 inches every 5 seconds
94. Among the following which always indicate obstruction to airway?
Increase respiratory rate
Increase pulse rate
Snoring breathing
Decreased blood pressure
95. Is common to all forms of shock:
Hypovolemia
Hypertension
Impaired tissue perfusion
Vasoconstriction
96. Diazepam is contraindicated for use in patient with history of:
Narrow angle glaucoma
Psychic depression
Severe hypertension
Coronary artery disease
97. Which cardiac conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?
Recovery insufficiency
Angina pectoris
Rheumatic Heart Disease
Congestive heart disease
98. Among the following with drug is contraindicated in hyperthyroid patients because the subjects are extraordinarily sensitive to drug:
Salicylate
Barbiturates
Adrenaline
Digitalis
99. Among the following which frequently causes infective endocarditis?
Staph. aureus
Strep. Viridans
Staph. pyogens
Parasite
100. The emergency, most frequently encountered during outpatient general anaesthesia is:
Anaphylaxis
Bradycardia
Respiratory obstruction
Hypotension
101. Among the following which drug is drug of choice in management of acute allergic reaction involving bronchospasm and hypotension?
Aminophylline
Dexamethasone
Diphenhydramine
Adrenaline
102. Which of the following is best treatment for hypoglycaemia in an unconscious diabetic patient?
IV administration of 50 percent dextrose in water
Administration of oral carbohydrates
Sublingual injection of 50 percent dextrose
None of All
103. The following are true of CPR, compression, except…
Ventilation ratio in 2 persons CPR is 5:1
Ventilation ratio in single person CPR is 15:2
Should be 60-80/min in adults
Should be 100/min in children
Should be 120/min in children
104. Of the following which is the first step when initiating CPR?
Establish responsiveness
To establish airway
Precardial thumbs
None of All
105. In external cardiac compressions, compression relation cycle should be repeated:
100 times/min
Twice/min
60 times/min
80 times/min
106. Haemorrhagic shocks are the following characterizes, except…
Hypotension
Low blood volume
Increased pulse rate
Decrease pulse rate
107. Of the following which is earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?
Vasoconstriction
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Dyspnoea
108. In elective tracheostomy the entry should be made:
Above cricoid
Below cricoid
Through cricothyroid membrane
Laterally below thyroid cartilage
109. Antibiotics with a low allergic potential is:
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Cephalosporins
Sulphonamide
110. The drug Clindamycin is known for its side effect of :
Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Ulcerative colitis
Liver necrosis
111. The current recommendation for antibiotic prophylaxis for prevention of bacterial endocarditis is:
2gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 2gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
1gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 1gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
3gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 3m of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
4gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 4gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery
112. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:
Metronidazole
Amoxicillin
Cephalosporin
Gentamycin
113. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:
Ampicillin
Erythromycin
Cephalosporin
Gentamycin
114. Reye’s syndrome is caused by the long-term usage of:
Paracetamol
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Nimesulide
115. If a patient develops anaphylactic shock, the 1st drug of choice is:
Dexamethasone
Anti-histamine
Adrenaline
Deriphylline
116. An elder patient, with myocardial infarction 5 months back, needs extraction of decayed maxillary 3rd molar. Your line of treatment would be:
Administer oral antibiotics for three days and do the extraction
Hospitalize the patient, administer IV antibiotics and do the extraction
Do the extraction and later, prescribe oral antibiotics
Put on antibiotics, refer the patient to the cardiologist and do the extraction at a later date
117. For patients with hypothyroidism, on medications, extraction of decayed teeth is:
A relative contraindication
An absolute contraindication
Indicated, with maximum precautions
Treated as normal extraction
118. For a patient suffering from cirrhosis of liver, the safest group of LA, is:
General anesthesia
Conscious sedation
Ester group
Amide group
119. The normal platelet count is:
150,000-450,000 microliter of blood
250,000-300,000 microliter of blood
400,000-500,000 microliter of blood
500,000-600,000 microliter of blood
120. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….
Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM
Aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablets
Glucagon, for IM of 1 mg
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400 μg per metered dose
Antibiotics
121. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400μg per metered dose
Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection
Oxygen cylinder (10 litres/minute)
Salbutamol inhaler, 100 μg per actuation
Steroids
122. In addition, dental practices might wish to stock the following drugs to aid the management of patients with mild allergic reactions, except…
Cetirizine 10mg tablets or oral solution (5 mg/5 ml)
Chlorphenamine, 4mg tablets or oral solution (2 mg/5 ml)
Loratadine, 10 mg /tablets
Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection
123. The following are key signs of anaphylaxis, except…
Upper airway oedema and bronchospasm
Stridor and wheezing
Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)
HTA
124. The following are the priority the managements of anaphylaxis, except…
Assess the patient
Call for an ambulance
Secure the patient’s airway
Check BP
Administer IV fluid
125. If cardiac arrest follows an anaphylactic reaction, which the priority of management is?
Start BLS immediately
Administer 100% oxygen, flow rate: 10 litres/minute
Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. Injection
Call for an ambulance
126. The following are signs and symptoms of mild allergy reaction, except….
Urticaria and rash, particularly of chest, hands and feet
Rhinitis
Conjunctivitis
Mild bronchospasm without evidence of severe shortness of breath
Abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea
127. The following are treatment of milder forms of allergy reaction, except…
Administer 1 Cetirizine Tablet, 10 mg for children
Or Administer 1 Chlorphenamine Tablet, 4mg
Or Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation)
Or Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection
128. The following are signs and symptoms of life-threatening asthma, except…
Cyanosis or respiratory rate <8 per minute
Bradycardia (heart rate <50 per minute)
Exhaustion, confusion, decreased conscious level
Abdominal pain and vomiting
129. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic, except….
Inability to complete sentences in one breath
Respiratory rate >25 per minute
Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per minute)
Convulsion and diarrhea
130. The following are managements of asthmatic, except….
Assess the patient and sit patient upright
Administer 100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation), repeat as needed
Administer Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM
131. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except….
Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate
Skin becomes pale and clammy
Nausea and vomiting are common
Pulse might be weak and blood pressure might fall
Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest
132. Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina and MI?
Assess the patient
Administer100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 2 puffs (400 μg per metered dose) sublingually
Or Administer aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablet, orally
Administer antibiotics
133. Which of the following is not true of key signs of cardiac arrest?
Loss of consciousness
Absence of breathing
Loss of pulse
Dilation of pupils
Tachycardia
134. Which of the following is wrong the management of cardiac arrest?
Call for an ambulance
Initiate BLS, using 100% oxygen or ventilation - flow rate: 10 litres/ minute
If a defibrillator is available, carry out early defibrillation
Administer IV blood fluid
135. The following are signs and symptoms of Epilepsy, except….
Sudden loss of consciousness
Patient may become rigid, fall, might give a cry and becomes cyanosed
Jerking movements of the limbs; the tongue might be bitten
Brief warning or ‘aura’ and frothing from the mouth and urinary incontinence
Abdominal pain and vomiting
136. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?
Assess the patient
To restrain convulsive movements
Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury
Secure the patient’s airway
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
137. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?
Assess the patient
Do not try to restrain convulsive movements
Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury
Secure the patient’s circulation
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
138. The following are signs and symptoms of faint, except….
Dizzy, light-headed
Slow pulse rate
Loss of consciousness
Pallor and sweating
Abdominal pain and diarrhea
139. Which of the following is wrong to the management of faint?
Assess the patient
Lay the patient flat and, if the patient is not breathless, raise the patient’s feet
Loosen any tight clothing around the neck
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection
140. The following are key signs of Hypoglycaemia, except…
Aggression and confusion
Sweating
Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per min
Cyanosis
141. The following are the symptoms of Hypoglycaemia, except…
Shaking and trembling
Difficulty in concentration
Slurring of speech and Headache
Fitting and Unconsciousness
Hypertension arterial
142. The following are the managements of Hypoglycaemia, except…
Assess the patient
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes
Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. Injection
143. Which of the following is wrong of the management of Hypoglycaemia with the unconscious patient?
Assess the patient
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes
Or Administer glucagon, 1 mg, IM
144. Which of the drug is not true for the management of Anxiety patient?
Midazolam
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Ketamine
145. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
Extreme dyspnea
Hyperventilation
Extreme headache
Cyanosis
146. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
Cough
Hemoptysis
Difficulty in breathing
Teary eyes
147. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with congestive heart failure is
Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
Oral premedication
Long painless appointments
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
148. The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure is
Standing position
Sitting position
Sleeping position
Sleeping position with legs raised a bit upward
149. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is
Oral premedication, usually 20-50mg diazepam
Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
Dental surgery in hospital
150. Precipitating factors of angina pectoris are all, except
Fatigue
Rich meal
Dizziness
Extreme stress
151. All are common about pain of angina pectoris, except
Pain may be present in the cardiac area
Pain may be radiating to neck
Pain may be radiating to right arm
Pain may be radiating to mandible teeth
152. Painful symptoms of angina pectoris can accompany with all, except
Perspiration
Extreme anxiety
Coughing
A feeling of imminent death
153. False information about myocardial infarction is
Myocardial infarction refers to ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart
Myocardial infarction has a sudden onset with severe pain anterior to sternum
Pain of myocardial infarction is more severe than that of angina pectoris
Pain of myocardial infarction lasts longer than 15 minutes
154. Pain of myocardial infarction can radiate to all region, except
Neck
Lip
Mandible
Right arm
155. All are characteristics of myocardial infarction, except
Pain lasting from 5 to 10 minutes
Burning sensation
Extreme tightness
Pressure
156. The pain of myocardial infarction may be associated with all, except
Nausea
Vomiting
Dilation of pupils
Perspiration
157. Angina Pectoris
Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium
Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body
Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart
Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart
158. Congestive heart failure
Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium
Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body
Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart
Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart
159. Myocardial infarction
Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium
Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body
Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart
Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart
160. Cardiac arrhythmia
Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium
Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body
Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart
Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart
161. All are true about hypertension, except
Essential hypertension does not have any known causes
Secondary hypertension has known causes
Patients with hypertension should never undergo surgical procedure
Hypertension is the abnormal elevation of the arterial pressure above the aforementioned values
162. All are the preventive measures of the patients with hypertension before dental procedure, except
Premedication
Blood pressure should be monitored after, not before the surgery
Short appointments
Avoidance of noradrenaline in patients receiving anti-hypertensive agents
163. The most serious complications of hypertension are all, except
Hypertensive encephalopathy
Convulsion
Haemorrhagic diathesis
Coma
164. According to the pathogenic mechanism, the one that is not the group of bleeding disorders is
Vascular disorders
Thrombocytic disorders
Disorders of coagulation
Hemoglobin disorders
165. The incorrect preventive measure for the patients with hemorrhagic diathesis is
Designation for the time and place of procedure
Local control of bleeding
Scheduling of surgical procedure for evening hours
Administration of medication by the treating haematologist
166. The safest vasoconstrictor for patients with hyperthyroidism is considered to be
Adrenaline
Noradrenaline
Felypressin
Lidocaine
167. All are correct about diabetes mellitus, except
Diabetes mellitus is characterized by alteration of metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids
Diabetes mellitus is caused by the abnormalities of the secretion mechanism and effect of insulin
To avoid insulin shock, dental surgery should be performed in the morning
After dental surgery, patients should not eat much because that can cause bleeding and pain
168. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except
Fatigue
Diarrhea
Coma
Death
169. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except
Coma
Vertigo
Xerostomia
Sweating
170. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except
Pallor
Dyspnea
Convulsion
Loss of consciousness
171. Diabetic hyperglycemia is characterized by all, except
Xerostomia
Headache
Vomitting
Diplopia
172. Diabetic hyperglycemia is characterized by all, except
Coma
Dyspnea
Weakness
Blurred vision
173. Patients with controlled diabetes require
Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
Postoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
Diet change
Dental procedure at the hospital
174. Chronic renal failure is
Clinical syndrome characterized by permanent damage of kidney
Clinical syndrome characterized by temporary kidney damage
Characterized by acute, diffused inflammation of the glomeruli
Syndrome characterized by the alteration of metabolism of carbohydrates
175. Most common causes of chronic renal failure are all, except
Nephrotoxin
Diabetes mellitus
Hypotensive nephrosclerosis
Glomerulonephritis
176. All are necessary preventive measures for the surgical procedure on patients with chronic renal failure, except
Consultation with the patients’ nephrologist
Use of minimal amounts of vasoconstrictors
Use of minimal amounts of local anesthetics
Dental procedure on the day of hemodialysis
177. Stenosis of ducts of small bronchi and bronchioles in the patient of asthma is due to all, except…
Edema of mucosa
Viscous mucosa production
Bronchoconstriction
Vascular haemorrhage
178. When asthma attacks, all are correct about the patient, except
The patient’s expression is anxious
The patient’s face is pale
The patient’s limbs are cold
The patient wants to vomit
179. The incorrect preventive measure for patients with asthma is
Taking detailed medical history
Control of pain
Long appointments with little pain
Administration of sedative medication
180. All are infectious diseases, except
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Diabetes
AIDS
181. Incorrect preventive measure for dentists when a patient with infectious disease comes into the clinic is
Using a pair of sterilized glove
Programming the procedure as the last of the day
Good care of disposable needles
Discarding of surgical blades
182. All are true about epilepsy, except
Epilepsy is a clinical manifestation of abnormal electrical activity of the brain
Epileptic patients may present with epileptic seizures under certain circumstances
Certain epileptic patients may present with status epilepticus
Epilepsy can lead to sensory activity and altered states of consciousness
183. The precipitating factors of epilepsy are all, except
Severe pain
Alcoholic drinks
Hyperglycemia
Severe stress
184. The first phase of epileptic seizure is
Convulsion phase
Aura
Anxiety phase
Post-convulsion phase
185. The second phase of epileptic seizure is
Convulsion phase
Aura
Anxiety phase
Post-convulsion phase
186. The third phase of epileptic seizure is
Convulsion phase
Aura
Anxiety phase
Post-convulsion phase
187. The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following symptoms, except
Tinnitus
Yawning
Dizziness
Vomiting
188. The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following symptoms, except
Anxiety
Characteristic smells
Yawning
Feeling hungry
189. The phase that does not exist in epileptic seizure is
Convulsion phase
Aura
Anxiety phase
Post-convulsion phase
190. The first phase of epileptic seizure lasts
A few seconds
3 to 5 minutes
2 minutes
More than 5 minutes
191. The second phase of epileptic seizure presents with all, except
Forcible jaw closing
Rolling the eyes upward or to the side
Nose bleeding
Convulsion
192. The sign that does not exist in second phase of epilepsy is
Pinkish froth from the mouth
Extreme dizziness
Urinary incontinence
Possible breathless
193. The third phase of epileptic seizure consists of all, except
Weakness
Pallor
Eye bleeding
Disturbances of the consciousness state
194. The recommended time for dental surgery for a patient who used to receive radiotherapy
At least 6 months has passed
At least 8 months has passed
At least 12 months has passed
At least 10 months has passed
195. The analgesics that is considered to be responsible for most allergic reaction is
Aspirin
Codeine
Pethidine
Morphine
196. One type that does not belong to allergic reactions is
Anaphylaxis
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
Delayed-type hyposensitivity
197. The most common allergic reaction is
Anaphylaxis
Urticaria
Angioneurotic edema
Asthma
198. Allergy that is caused by the use of local anesthetics is usually due to
Preservatives in the ampoule
Amount of adrenaline
Amount of noradrenaline
Expired anesthetics
199. The people who are usually affected by allergic reactions from anxiolytic drugs are those who report the history of
Angioneurotic edema
Urticaria
Asthma
Epilepsy
200. The most dangerous type of allergic reactions is
Anaphylaxis
Urticaria
Angioneurotic edema
Allergic asthma
201. Anaphylaxis may present with all, except
Rash
Burning
Blindness
Painful sensation
202. Anaphylaxis may present with all, except
Pruritus
Dyspnea
Cyanosis of limbs
Urinary blockage
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