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Dental emergency

A medical professional assessing a patient for dental emergencies in a clinical setting, with dental equipment and emergency protocols visible in the background.

Dental Emergency Quiz

Test your knowledge on dental emergencies with this comprehensive quiz designed for dental professionals. Understand the critical signs, symptoms, and appropriate responses to various dental emergency situations.

This quiz covers key areas such as:

Airway obstruction signs
Surgical airway procedures
Common complications during dental treatment
Factors affecting emergencies in dental practices

202 Questions50 MinutesCreated by CaringDentist42

1. What are general signs and symptoms of airway obstruction?

Gasping for breath, patient grabs at throat, panic, and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction

Gasping for breath, patient grabs at throat, and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction

Gasping for breath, patient grabs at throat, panic, shocked, and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction

Cyanosis and suprasternal or supraclavicular retraction

2. Signs and Symptoms of total airway obstruction:

Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing

No noise

Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing and no noise

no noise and snoring

Tachycardia

3. When is cricothyrotomy necessary?

When there is injury to the throat

When airway obstruction is caused by a foreign body that cannot be dislodged

When there is a trauma to the neck region

When fracture of mandible

4. Surgical airway procedure should only be done on:

Kids

Adults

Aging people

Anybody

5. All of the following can have Life-threatening emergencies in the practice of dentistry, except…

A patient

Accompanying the patient

Doctor and Member of office stuff

A patient’s driver

6. The following are the Factor of Emergencies except…..

Increased number of older patients

Medical Advances

Increased drug use

Longer dental appointments

HIV infection

7. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 1 to 4 years?

Accidents and adverse effects

Congenital anomalies

Malignant neoplasms

Homicide and legal intervention

Diseases of the heart

8. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 5 to 14 years?

Accidents and adverse effects

Malignant neoplasms

Homicide and legal intervention

Congenital anomalies

Suicide

9. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 15 to 24 years?

Accidents and adverse effects

Homicide and legal intervention

Suicide

Malignant neoplasms

Diseases of heart

10. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 25 to 44 years?

HIV infection

Accidents and adverse effects

Malignant neoplasms

Diseases of heart

Suicide

11. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 45 to 64 years?

Malignant neoplasms

Diseases of heart

Accidents and adverse effects

Cerebrovascular diseases

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

12. Factor of emergencies by increased number of age, which one is most common cause among the top five causes of death from 55 years old and older?

Diseases of heart

Malignant neoplasms

Cerebrovascular diseases

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Pneumonia and influenza

13. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?

Syncope

Mild allergic reaction

Angina pectoris

Postural hypotension

A Syncope and Angina pectoris

14. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one occurs the most in emergency situation?

Postural hypotension.

Hyperventilation

Cardiac arrest

Anaphylactic reaction

Postural hypotension and Anaphylactic reaction

15. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, except…

Shock Hemorrhage

Syncope

Mild allergic reaction

Angina pectoris

Postural hypotension

16. The following are diagnosis of emergencies in dental office, which one rarely occurs?

Thyroid storm

Syncope

Mild allergic reaction

Angina pectoris

Postural hypotension

17. The following are the time of systemic complications occurrence, which one occurs the most?

Immediate before treatment

During or after local anesthesia

During treatment

After treatment

After leaving dental office

18. The following are the time of systemic complications occurrence, which one rarely occurs?

Immediate before treatment

During or after local anesthesia

During treatment

After treatment

After leaving dental office

19. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?

Tooth extraction

Pulp extirpation

Preparation

Filling

Incision

20. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?

Alveolar plastics

Pulp extirpation

Preparation

Filling

Incision

21. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?

Alveolar plastics

Removal of fillings

Preparation

Filling

Incision

22. The following are data of occurrence of systemic complications during treatment, which one is the most common complication?

Alveolar plastics

Removal of fillings

Apicoectomy

Filling

Incision

23. The following are the anatomy of airway management except…

The tongue

The nose

The pharynx

The mandible

The Maxillary

24. Which one is the major cause of the airway obstructions?

Tongue

Nose

Pharynx

Lung

Tongue, Nose and Pharynx

25. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation except

Short, muscular neck

Protruding maxillary incisors

Long, high, arched palate with narrow mouth

Limited mobility of the neck

The big tongue

26. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with pathologic states except

Hereditary angioedema

Arthritis and ankylosis

Cervical spine immobility

TMJ disease

Short, muscular neck

27. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with pathologic states except

Limited mobility of the neck

Arthritis and ankylosis

Laryngeal abnormalities

Endocrinopathies

Myopathies

28. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with Technical and Mechanical Factors except

Body cast (The form)

Halo traction & cervical collar

Foreign bodies in the airway

Poor technique, inexperience

Mandible fracture

29. The following are the causes of difficult mask ventilation or intubation with Technical and Mechanical Factors except

Halo traction & cervical collar

Foreign bodies in the airway

Poor technique, inexperience.

Leaks around a face mask

Short of the tongue

30. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except

Agitation

Universal distress signal

Coughing

Crowing

Hypoglycemia

31. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except

Crowing (partial obstruction)

Silence (complete obstruction)

Wheezing (To breathe with difficulty and noisily)

Cyanosis

Hypertension

32. The following are the airway equipment for medical emergencies except

Cotton role and gauze

Oxygen tank

Artificial airways and Face masks

Suction Machine and Suction Tubes

Laryngoscope set and Magill forceps

33. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which position is correct for cardiac arrest patient?

The patient needs to be flat on his or her back

Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe

Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated

With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain

34. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which is correct for asthmatic patient?

The patient needs to be flat on his or her back

Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe

Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated

With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain

35. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which is correct for the unconscious patient?

The patient needs to be flat on his or her back

Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe

Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated

With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain

36. The following are the critical airway management in unconscious patient except

The head is tilted back, and the chin is lifted

One hand is placed on the forehead, with two fingers of the other hand on the Mn to rotate the head back

The tongue is attached to the Mn so that when you pull the mandible forward, the tongue also moves forward

Opens the airway so the patient can breathe, or so you can breathe for the patient

Administration of fluid and adrenaline injection

37. The following are management of circulation for unconscious patient except

Maintain the head tilt and check for the carotid pulse

The carotid pulse is missed 40% of the time by medical personnel and paramedics

The pulse should be checked for 10 seconds

If a pulse is not felt, start compressions immediately

Administration of oxygen and fluid

38. Which of the following is the sign and symptom of the congestive heart failure:

Dyspnea, hyperventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis

Dyspnea, hypoventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis

Apnea, hyperventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis

Apnea, hypoventilation, cough, hemoptysis, difficulty in breathing, cyanosis

39. The following are the signs and symptoms of the angina pectoris except:

Pain posterior to the sternum, may be precipitated by fatigue, extreme stress, or a rich meal, and subsides within 2–5 min after rest and the use of vasodilators

Painful discomfort in the chest, with a burning sensation, pressure, or tightness

Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the left shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible

Pain may be present in the cardiac area, radiating to the right shoulder, neck, left arm, sometimes down the chin and teeth of the mandible

40. Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina pectoris:

Written consent by the patient’s cardiologist is desirable

Appropriate premedication, usually 5–10 mg diazepam or 1,5–3 mg bromazepam orally, 1h before the surgical procedure may be helpful

Dental surgery in hospital, when the patient refers many episodes of angina pectoris

Large amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration

Short appointments, as painless as possible

41. Which of the following is the preventive measure recommended for patients with Rheumatic Heart Disease, except…

Premedication before the surgical procedure can be helpful

Avoidance of vasoconstrictors (or maximum concentration 1:100,000)

Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration

Procedure the patient in the morning time

42. The following are preventives measure of patient with cardiac arrhythmia, especially persistent arrhythmia, except…

Consultation with treating physician

In severe cases avoidance of LA containing vasoconstrictors or postponing of dental procedures

Premedication before the surgical procedure can be of help

Short appointments and pain control

Use Antibiotic before procedure

43. Syncope is classified into:

3 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope caused by postural Hypotension, Syncope caused by cerebral factors

4 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope of cardiac origin, Syncope caused by excessive vagal reflexes, Syncope caused by cerebral factors

5 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope of cardiac origin, Syncope caused by postural Hypotension, Syncope caused by excessive vagal reflexes, Syncope caused by cerebral factors

6 types: Vasodepressor syncope, Syncope of cardiac origin, Syncope caused by postural Hypotension, Syncope caused by diabetic, Syncope caused by excessive vagal reflexes, Syncope caused by cerebral factors

44. Which of the following is wrong about Blood Pressure (BP):

BP is recorded as two numbers: systolic and diastolic pressure

The systolic pressure (as the heart relaxes between beats) and the diastolic pressure (as the heart beats

The measurement is written the systolic number on top and the diastolic number on the bottom ( Ex: 120/80 mmHg)

None of all

45. Which of the following is the cause of HBP?

Narrowing of the arteries

Volume of blood is greater than normal

The heart beats faster or more forcefully than normal

Medical problem

All are correct

46. Which of the following is not the treatment medication for HBP?

Diuretics

Beta-blockers and Alpha-blockers

Vasoconstrictor

ACE inhibitors

Angiotensin antagonists

47. The following are the risks to patients with HBP in Exodontia except:

Stroke

Myocardial Infarctus

Post-operative swelling

Post-operative bleeding

48. Which of the following is not drug that causes of hypotension?

Anti-anxiety medications

Vitamin C

Certain antidepressants (tricyclic antidepressants)

Diuretics

Painkillers

49. Which of the following is/are the cause(s) of LBP?

Advanced diabetes

Anaphylaxis

Heart attack

Shock

All are correct

50. Which of the following is not the symptom of hypotension?

Dizziness or lightheadedness

Fainting (syncope)

Clear vision

Nausea

Rapid, shallow breathing

51. Which of the following sentence is wrong about diabetes?

Diabetes mellitus is a syndrome characterized by alteration of the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids caused by abnormalities of the secretion mechanism and effect of insulin

Diabetic hypoglycaemia is most important, presenting when the blood glucose level is higher than 55 mg/100 ml

Diabetic hyperglycemia develops slowly, is observed more rarely and is less dangerous than hypoglycemia

None of all

52. Which of the following is not the cause of chronic renal failure?

Glomerulonephritis,

Hypertensive nephrosclerosis

Diabetes mellitus

Nephrotoxins

Tachycardia

53. Which of the following is not the cause of asthma?

Stress

Allergy

Temperature change

Hematemesis

54. Which of the following is the management of patient with asthma?

Take a detailed medical history of the patient

Administration of sedative medication for stress management

Control of pain (to avoid stress), with sufficient duration and depth of local anesthesia

Short appointments with gentle manipulations during surgical procedure

All are correct

55. Which of the following is not the management of Hepatitis B, C and AIDS?

Programming the surgical procedure as the morning appointment of the day

Using two pairs of disposable gloves. Gloves protect the patient as well as the dentist and should be discarded immediately after use

Special protective glasses and disposable surgical mask

Special protective surgical gown and cap covering scalp hair

Great care should be taken during their use, in order to avoid accidental puncture. Also, the plastic cover of the needle should be replaced with the special reheating device only. This should be a standard technique for all patients

56. The following are the mild allergy symptoms, except….

Skin Rash

Itchy

watery eyes

Congestion

Dyspnea

57. The following are the moderate allergy symptoms, except….

Skin Rash

Itchy, watery eyes

Congestion

Difficulty breathing

Apnea

58. Allergy symptoms can be categorized as following:

Mild allergy symptom

Moderate allergy symptom

Severe allergy symptom

All are correct

59. The following are the allergy symptoms may begin with sudden itching of the eyes or face and within minute’s progress to more serious symptoms, except….

Varying degrees of swellings that can make breathing and swallowing difficult.

Abdominal pain, Cramps

Vomiting , Diarrhea

Mental confusion or dizziness

Cyanosis

60. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….

PNC (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)

Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates

Insulin, Vaccines

Anticonvulsants

Metronidazole

61. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….

PNC (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)

Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates

Insulin, Vaccines

Anticonvulsants

Erythromycins

62. The following are the symptom of anaphylaxis allergic response to more seriously, except…

Swallowing and breathing difficulties

Abdominal pain, Cramps

Diarrhea and Vomiting

Hypertension

Angioedema

63. Which of the following is not the common trigger of Anaphylaxis?

Foods

Insect’s sting

Pollens and other inhaled allergens

Substances can cause reactions are fish and latex

64. Which of the following is the treatment of patient anaphylaxis?

Epinephrine is adrenaline.(I.M)

Rapidly reverses anaphylactic symptoms. It is typically given through an automatic injection

In addition to Epinephrine, treatment for shock includes PIV & medicines that support the action

In shock is stabilized, antihistamine & steroid may be given to reduce symptoms and call for professional medical help immediately

All are correct

65. The Epinephrine is used to reverse as following, except…

Hypotension

Bronchospasm

Laryngeal edema that result from an acute anaphylactic type reaction

Also used to reduce bronchospasm resulting from an acute asthmatic episode that is refractory to inhaler therapy

Tachycardia

66. Which of following is the adverse effect of epinephrine?

Cardiovascular (Tachycardia, Tachyarrhythmia, and hypertension)

Central Nervous System (Agitation, headache, and tremors)

Endocrine System (Increased blood glucose)

Pregnant Female (Can decrease placental blood flow)

All of are correct

67. Which of following is the adverse effect of Nitroglycerin?

Rapid heart rate

Facial flushing

Orthostatic (Postural) hypotension

Dizziness and headache

All are correct

68. The following are the causes of LBP, except…

Advanced diabetes

Anaphylaxis

Heart attack

Shock

Reye’s Syndrome

69. The following are the causes of chronic renal failure, except…

Glomerulonephritis

Hypertensive nephrosclerosis

Diabetes mellitus

Nephrotoxins

Tachycardia

70. The following are the managements of patient with asthma, except…

Take a detailed medical history of the patient

Administration of sedative medication for stress management

Control of pain (to avoid stress), with sufficient duration and depth of local anesthesia

Short appointments with gentle manipulations during surgical procedure

Procedure in the morning

71. The following are the mild allergy symptoms, except….

Skin Rash

Itchy

watery eyes

Congestion

Convulsion

72. The following are the treatments of patient anaphylaxis, except…

Epinephrine is adrenaline.(I.M)

Rapidly reverses anaphylactic symptoms. It is typically given through an automatic injection

In addition to Epinephrine, treatment for shock includes PIV & medicines that support the action

In shock is stabilized, antihistamine & steroid may be given to reduce symptoms

Administration of appropriate antibiotic

73. The following are the adverse effects of epinephrine, except…

Cardiovascular (Tachycardia, Tachyarrhythmia, and hypertension)

Central Nervous System (Agitation, headache, and tremors)

Endocrine System (Increased blood glucose)

Pregnant Female (Can decrease placental blood flow)

Bradycardia

74. Among the following which is the rescue breathing in adult?

6 times/min

18 times/min

12 times/min

24 times/min

75. In patient on artificial ventilation the cycle of exhale air ventilation should be repeated of every:

20 secs

10 secs

5 secs

1 sec

76. To perform tracheoctomy entry should be made at the:

Cricothyroid ligament

Thyroid membrane

Thyroid notch

Cricoid cartilage

77. The primary hazard for unconscious patient in supine position is:

Tongue obstruction

Bronchospasm

Lanyngospasm

Aspiration

78. The best blood product administered preoperatively to patients with haemophilia A is:

Fresh frozen plasma

Factor IX concentrate

Whole blood

Factor VIII concentrate

79. A cardinal symptom of dehydration due to disturbance of fluid and electrolyte balance is:

Hyperthermia

Nausea

Polydipsia

None

80. In medical emergency easiest technique for opening airway is to:

Turn his head back

Turn head to one side

Clear mouth, throat

Strike his back

81. In CPR, if one incorrectly apply pressure over xiphoid process the following may be injured:

Heart

Liver

Spleen

Lungs

82. Instead of responding to treatment for syncope, patients pulse and respiration become weak and irregular with attendant cyanosis. The first resuscitative measure should be to:

Support circulation by injecting 1:1000 adrenaline

Begin closed chest cardiac message

Begin CPR

Place paper bag over patient’s face and risk blood CO2

83. If efforts in CPR are effective there will be:

Constriction of pupils

Dilatation of pupils

Hypertension immediate

None of all

84. Patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is most likely to have which of following postoperative complication:

Infection

Haemorrhage

Oedema

Alveolar osteitis

85. All of the following are various methods to control intra operative haemorrhage except:

Gauge sponge pressure

Artery application to open vessels

Infiltration with lidocaine

Bone compression for surface bleeding

86. Which of the following factor does not play role in haemostasis is:

Prothrombin

Vessel wall calcium

Vit K

Vit B

87. Which is the earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?

Hypotension

Vasoconstriction

Tachycardia

Dyspnoea

88. Preoperative vit K is indicated in patients with:

Diabetes mellitus

Chronic pneumonitis

Liver disease

Accuracy

89. The main cause of bleeding in patients is thrombocytopenic purpura is deficiency of:

Vit B

Prothrombin

Vit K

Platelets

90. During shock vasopressor drugs are preferably given:

Sublingually

Intracardially

Intramuscularly

Intravenously

91. Treatment of syncope is most effectively accomplished by which of the following?

Administer 100 percent O2 for 5 min

Lowering chair to phase patient’s head lower than his feet

Bending patient’s head forward between his knees and asking patient to raise his head against hand pressure

It requires treatment by physician

92. Among the following which is best haemostatic agent for control of local haemorrhage?

Gel foam

Surgical

Bone

Vit K

93. During CPR sternum should the depressed:

2 inches every 5 seconds

2 inches every second

1 inch every 10 seconds

3 inches every 5 seconds

94. Among the following which always indicate obstruction to airway?

Increase respiratory rate

Increase pulse rate

Snoring breathing

Decreased blood pressure

95. Is common to all forms of shock:

Hypovolemia

Hypertension

Impaired tissue perfusion

Vasoconstriction

96. Diazepam is contraindicated for use in patient with history of:

Narrow angle glaucoma

Psychic depression

Severe hypertension

Coronary artery disease

97. Which cardiac conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery?

Recovery insufficiency

Angina pectoris

Rheumatic Heart Disease

Congestive heart disease

98. Among the following with drug is contraindicated in hyperthyroid patients because the subjects are extraordinarily sensitive to drug:

Salicylate

Barbiturates

Adrenaline

Digitalis

99. Among the following which frequently causes infective endocarditis?

Staph. aureus

Strep. Viridans

Staph. pyogens

Parasite

100. The emergency, most frequently encountered during outpatient general anaesthesia is:

Anaphylaxis

Bradycardia

Respiratory obstruction

Hypotension

101. Among the following which drug is drug of choice in management of acute allergic reaction involving bronchospasm and hypotension?

Aminophylline

Dexamethasone

Diphenhydramine

Adrenaline

102. Which of the following is best treatment for hypoglycaemia in an unconscious diabetic patient?

IV administration of 50 percent dextrose in water

Administration of oral carbohydrates

Sublingual injection of 50 percent dextrose

None of All

103. The following are true of CPR, compression, except…

Ventilation ratio in 2 persons CPR is 5:1

Ventilation ratio in single person CPR is 15:2

Should be 60-80/min in adults

Should be 100/min in children

Should be 120/min in children

104. Of the following which is the first step when initiating CPR?

Establish responsiveness

To establish airway

Precardial thumbs

None of All

105. In external cardiac compressions, compression relation cycle should be repeated:

100 times/min

Twice/min

60 times/min

80 times/min

106. Haemorrhagic shocks are the following characterizes, except…

Hypotension

Low blood volume

Increased pulse rate

Decrease pulse rate

107. Of the following which is earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?

Vasoconstriction

Hypotension

Tachycardia

Dyspnoea

108. In elective tracheostomy the entry should be made:

Above cricoid

Below cricoid

Through cricothyroid membrane

Laterally below thyroid cartilage

109. Antibiotics with a low allergic potential is:

Penicillin

Erythromycin

Cephalosporins

Sulphonamide

110. The drug Clindamycin is known for its side effect of :

Ototoxicity

Nephrotoxicity

Ulcerative colitis

Liver necrosis

111. The current recommendation for antibiotic prophylaxis for prevention of bacterial endocarditis is:

2gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 2gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

1gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 1gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

3gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 3m of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

4gm of Amoxicillin orally, 1 hr before surgery / 4gm of Amoxicillin, intravenous 30mn before surgery

112. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:

Metronidazole

Amoxicillin

Cephalosporin

Gentamycin

113. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, should be given:

Ampicillin

Erythromycin

Cephalosporin

Gentamycin

114. Reye’s syndrome is caused by the long-term usage of:

Paracetamol

Aspirin

Ibuprofen

Nimesulide

115. If a patient develops anaphylactic shock, the 1st drug of choice is:

Dexamethasone

Anti-histamine

Adrenaline

Deriphylline

116. An elder patient, with myocardial infarction 5 months back, needs extraction of decayed maxillary 3rd molar. Your line of treatment would be:

Administer oral antibiotics for three days and do the extraction

Hospitalize the patient, administer IV antibiotics and do the extraction

Do the extraction and later, prescribe oral antibiotics

Put on antibiotics, refer the patient to the cardiologist and do the extraction at a later date

117. For patients with hypothyroidism, on medications, extraction of decayed teeth is:

A relative contraindication

An absolute contraindication

Indicated, with maximum precautions

Treated as normal extraction

118. For a patient suffering from cirrhosis of liver, the safest group of LA, is:

General anesthesia

Conscious sedation

Ester group

Amide group

119. The normal platelet count is:

150,000-450,000 microliter of blood

250,000-300,000 microliter of blood

400,000-500,000 microliter of blood

500,000-600,000 microliter of blood

120. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….

Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM

Aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablets

Glucagon, for IM of 1 mg

Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400 μg per metered dose

Antibiotics

121. The following are a core list of drugs and equipment for use in MEs, except….

Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 400μg per metered dose

Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection

Oxygen cylinder (10 litres/minute)

Salbutamol inhaler, 100 μg per actuation

Steroids

122. In addition, dental practices might wish to stock the following drugs to aid the management of patients with mild allergic reactions, except…

Cetirizine 10mg tablets or oral solution (5 mg/5 ml)

Chlorphenamine, 4mg tablets or oral solution (2 mg/5 ml)

Loratadine, 10 mg /tablets

Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection

123. The following are key signs of anaphylaxis, except…

Upper airway oedema and bronchospasm

Stridor and wheezing

Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)

HTA

124. The following are the priority the managements of anaphylaxis, except…

Assess the patient

Call for an ambulance

Secure the patient’s airway

Check BP

Administer IV fluid

125. If cardiac arrest follows an anaphylactic reaction, which the priority of management is?

Start BLS immediately

Administer 100% oxygen, flow rate: 10 litres/minute

Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. Injection

Call for an ambulance

126. The following are signs and symptoms of mild allergy reaction, except….

Urticaria and rash, particularly of chest, hands and feet

Rhinitis

Conjunctivitis

Mild bronchospasm without evidence of severe shortness of breath

Abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea

127. The following are treatment of milder forms of allergy reaction, except…

Administer 1 Cetirizine Tablet, 10 mg for children

Or Administer 1 Chlorphenamine Tablet, 4mg

Or Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation)

Or Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection

128. The following are signs and symptoms of life-threatening asthma, except…

Cyanosis or respiratory rate <8 per minute

Bradycardia (heart rate <50 per minute)

Exhaustion, confusion, decreased conscious level

Abdominal pain and vomiting

129. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic, except….

Inability to complete sentences in one breath

Respiratory rate >25 per minute

Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per minute)

Convulsion and diarrhea

130. The following are managements of asthmatic, except….

Assess the patient and sit patient upright

Administer 100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn

Administer a salbutamol inhaler, 4 puffs (100 μg per actuation), repeat as needed

Administer Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM

131. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except….

Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate

Skin becomes pale and clammy

Nausea and vomiting are common

Pulse might be weak and blood pressure might fall

Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest

132. Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina and MI?

Assess the patient

Administer100% oxygen - flow rate: 10L/mn

Administer glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, 2 puffs (400 μg per metered dose) sublingually

Or Administer aspirin, 300 mg dispersible tablet, orally

Administer antibiotics

133. Which of the following is not true of key signs of cardiac arrest?

Loss of consciousness

Absence of breathing

Loss of pulse

Dilation of pupils

Tachycardia

134. Which of the following is wrong the management of cardiac arrest?

Call for an ambulance

Initiate BLS, using 100% oxygen or ventilation - flow rate: 10 litres/ minute

If a defibrillator is available, carry out early defibrillation

Administer IV blood fluid

135. The following are signs and symptoms of Epilepsy, except….

Sudden loss of consciousness

Patient may become rigid, fall, might give a cry and becomes cyanosed

Jerking movements of the limbs; the tongue might be bitten

Brief warning or ‘aura’ and frothing from the mouth and urinary incontinence

Abdominal pain and vomiting

136. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?

Assess the patient

To restrain convulsive movements

Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury

Secure the patient’s airway

Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

137. Which of the following is not true the management of epilepsy?

Assess the patient

Do not try to restrain convulsive movements

Ensure the patient is not at risk from injury

Secure the patient’s circulation

Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

138. The following are signs and symptoms of faint, except….

Dizzy, light-headed

Slow pulse rate

Loss of consciousness

Pallor and sweating

Abdominal pain and diarrhea

139. Which of the following is wrong to the management of faint?

Assess the patient

Lay the patient flat and, if the patient is not breathless, raise the patient’s feet

Loosen any tight clothing around the neck

Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection

140. The following are key signs of Hypoglycaemia, except…

Aggression and confusion

Sweating

Tachycardia (heart rate >110 per min

Cyanosis

141. The following are the symptoms of Hypoglycaemia, except…

Shaking and trembling

Difficulty in concentration

Slurring of speech and Headache

Fitting and Unconsciousness

Hypertension arterial

142. The following are the managements of Hypoglycaemia, except…

Assess the patient

Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes

Administer adrenaline, 0.5 ml (1:1000), IM. Injection

143. Which of the following is wrong of the management of Hypoglycaemia with the unconscious patient?

Assess the patient

Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn

Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes

Or Administer glucagon, 1 mg, IM

144. Which of the drug is not true for the management of Anxiety patient?

Midazolam

Diazepam

Lorazepam

Ketamine

145. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:

Extreme dyspnea

Hyperventilation

Extreme headache

Cyanosis

146. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:

Cough

Hemoptysis

Difficulty in breathing

Teary eyes

147. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with congestive heart failure is

Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist

Oral premedication

Long painless appointments

Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia

148. The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure is

Standing position

Sitting position

Sleeping position

Sleeping position with legs raised a bit upward

149. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is

Oral premedication, usually 20-50mg diazepam

Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist

Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia

Dental surgery in hospital

150. Precipitating factors of angina pectoris are all, except

Fatigue

Rich meal

Dizziness

Extreme stress

151. All are common about pain of angina pectoris, except

Pain may be present in the cardiac area

Pain may be radiating to neck

Pain may be radiating to right arm

Pain may be radiating to mandible teeth

152. Painful symptoms of angina pectoris can accompany with all, except

Perspiration

Extreme anxiety

Coughing

A feeling of imminent death

153. False information about myocardial infarction is

Myocardial infarction refers to ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart

Myocardial infarction has a sudden onset with severe pain anterior to sternum

Pain of myocardial infarction is more severe than that of angina pectoris

Pain of myocardial infarction lasts longer than 15 minutes

154. Pain of myocardial infarction can radiate to all region, except

Neck

Lip

Mandible

Right arm

155. All are characteristics of myocardial infarction, except

Pain lasting from 5 to 10 minutes

Burning sensation

Extreme tightness

Pressure

156. The pain of myocardial infarction may be associated with all, except

Nausea

Vomiting

Dilation of pupils

Perspiration

157. Angina Pectoris

Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium

Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body

Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart

Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart

158. Congestive heart failure

Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium

Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body

Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart

Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart

159. Myocardial infarction

Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium

Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body

Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart

Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart

160. Cardiac arrhythmia

Is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium

Is the inability of the myocardium to pump enough blood to satisfy the body

Is the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart

Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of heart

161. All are true about hypertension, except

Essential hypertension does not have any known causes

Secondary hypertension has known causes

Patients with hypertension should never undergo surgical procedure

Hypertension is the abnormal elevation of the arterial pressure above the aforementioned values

162. All are the preventive measures of the patients with hypertension before dental procedure, except

Premedication

Blood pressure should be monitored after, not before the surgery

Short appointments

Avoidance of noradrenaline in patients receiving anti-hypertensive agents

163. The most serious complications of hypertension are all, except

Hypertensive encephalopathy

Convulsion

Haemorrhagic diathesis

Coma

164. According to the pathogenic mechanism, the one that is not the group of bleeding disorders is

Vascular disorders

Thrombocytic disorders

Disorders of coagulation

Hemoglobin disorders

165. The incorrect preventive measure for the patients with hemorrhagic diathesis is

Designation for the time and place of procedure

Local control of bleeding

Scheduling of surgical procedure for evening hours

Administration of medication by the treating haematologist

166. The safest vasoconstrictor for patients with hyperthyroidism is considered to be

Adrenaline

Noradrenaline

Felypressin

Lidocaine

167. All are correct about diabetes mellitus, except

Diabetes mellitus is characterized by alteration of metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids

Diabetes mellitus is caused by the abnormalities of the secretion mechanism and effect of insulin

To avoid insulin shock, dental surgery should be performed in the morning

After dental surgery, patients should not eat much because that can cause bleeding and pain

168. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except

Fatigue

Diarrhea

Coma

Death

169. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except

Coma

Vertigo

Xerostomia

Sweating

170. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except

Pallor

Dyspnea

Convulsion

Loss of consciousness

171. Diabetic hyperglycemia is characterized by all, except

Xerostomia

Headache

Vomitting

Diplopia

172. Diabetic hyperglycemia is characterized by all, except

Coma

Dyspnea

Weakness

Blurred vision

173. Patients with controlled diabetes require

Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis

Postoperative antibiotic prophylaxis

Diet change

Dental procedure at the hospital

174. Chronic renal failure is

Clinical syndrome characterized by permanent damage of kidney

Clinical syndrome characterized by temporary kidney damage

Characterized by acute, diffused inflammation of the glomeruli

Syndrome characterized by the alteration of metabolism of carbohydrates

175. Most common causes of chronic renal failure are all, except

Nephrotoxin

Diabetes mellitus

Hypotensive nephrosclerosis

Glomerulonephritis

176. All are necessary preventive measures for the surgical procedure on patients with chronic renal failure, except

Consultation with the patients’ nephrologist

Use of minimal amounts of vasoconstrictors

Use of minimal amounts of local anesthetics

Dental procedure on the day of hemodialysis

177. Stenosis of ducts of small bronchi and bronchioles in the patient of asthma is due to all, except…

Edema of mucosa

Viscous mucosa production

Bronchoconstriction

Vascular haemorrhage

178. When asthma attacks, all are correct about the patient, except

The patient’s expression is anxious

The patient’s face is pale

The patient’s limbs are cold

The patient wants to vomit

179. The incorrect preventive measure for patients with asthma is

Taking detailed medical history

Control of pain

Long appointments with little pain

Administration of sedative medication

180. All are infectious diseases, except

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis C

Diabetes

AIDS

181. Incorrect preventive measure for dentists when a patient with infectious disease comes into the clinic is

Using a pair of sterilized glove

Programming the procedure as the last of the day

Good care of disposable needles

Discarding of surgical blades

182. All are true about epilepsy, except

Epilepsy is a clinical manifestation of abnormal electrical activity of the brain

Epileptic patients may present with epileptic seizures under certain circumstances

Certain epileptic patients may present with status epilepticus

Epilepsy can lead to sensory activity and altered states of consciousness

183. The precipitating factors of epilepsy are all, except

Severe pain

Alcoholic drinks

Hyperglycemia

Severe stress

184. The first phase of epileptic seizure is

Convulsion phase

Aura

Anxiety phase

Post-convulsion phase

185. The second phase of epileptic seizure is

Convulsion phase

Aura

Anxiety phase

Post-convulsion phase

186. The third phase of epileptic seizure is

Convulsion phase

Aura

Anxiety phase

Post-convulsion phase

187. The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following symptoms, except

Tinnitus

Yawning

Dizziness

Vomiting

188. The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following symptoms, except

Anxiety

Characteristic smells

Yawning

Feeling hungry

189. The phase that does not exist in epileptic seizure is

Convulsion phase

Aura

Anxiety phase

Post-convulsion phase

190. The first phase of epileptic seizure lasts

A few seconds

3 to 5 minutes

2 minutes

More than 5 minutes

191. The second phase of epileptic seizure presents with all, except

Forcible jaw closing

Rolling the eyes upward or to the side

Nose bleeding

Convulsion

192. The sign that does not exist in second phase of epilepsy is

Pinkish froth from the mouth

Extreme dizziness

Urinary incontinence

Possible breathless

193. The third phase of epileptic seizure consists of all, except

Weakness

Pallor

Eye bleeding

Disturbances of the consciousness state

194. The recommended time for dental surgery for a patient who used to receive radiotherapy

At least 6 months has passed

At least 8 months has passed

At least 12 months has passed

At least 10 months has passed

195. The analgesics that is considered to be responsible for most allergic reaction is

Aspirin

Codeine

Pethidine

Morphine

196. One type that does not belong to allergic reactions is

Anaphylaxis

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

Delayed-type hyposensitivity

197. The most common allergic reaction is

Anaphylaxis

Urticaria

Angioneurotic edema

Asthma

198. Allergy that is caused by the use of local anesthetics is usually due to

Preservatives in the ampoule

Amount of adrenaline

Amount of noradrenaline

Expired anesthetics

199. The people who are usually affected by allergic reactions from anxiolytic drugs are those who report the history of

Angioneurotic edema

Urticaria

Asthma

Epilepsy

200. The most dangerous type of allergic reactions is

Anaphylaxis

Urticaria

Angioneurotic edema

Allergic asthma

201. Anaphylaxis may present with all, except

Rash

Burning

Blindness

Painful sensation

202. Anaphylaxis may present with all, except

Pruritus

Dyspnea

Cyanosis of limbs

Urinary blockage

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