Pharmacology Challenge Quiz
Pharmacology Challenge Quiz
Test your knowledge of pharmacology with this comprehensive quiz! Designed for students, health professionals, and enthusiasts alike, this quiz covers a wide range of topics related to drug administration, metabolism, and effects.
Key Features:
- 30 Multiple Choice Questions
- Focus on Clinical and Pharmaceutical Knowledge
- Assess Your Understanding and Knowledge Retention
Which route of drug administration is used with potent and lipophilic drugs in a patch formulation and avoids first-pass metabolism
Topical
Sublingual
Rectal
Oral
Transdermal
Which one of the following routes of administration does not have an absorption phase?
Subcutaneous
Subcutaneous
Intravenous
Sublingual
Inhalation
Which of the following correctly describes the intramuscular route of parenteral drug administration?
Drug absorption is erratic and unpredictable
Used to administer drug suspensions that are slowly absorbed
Bypasses the process of drug absorption to achieve an immediate effect
Cannot be used for drugs that undergo a high degree of first-pass metabolism
An elderly patient has problems remembering to take her medication three times a day. Which one of the drug formulations might be particularly useful in this case?
Extended-release
Suspension
Suppository
Skin patch
Enteric-coated
Which form of a drug name is most likely known by patients from exposure to drug advertisements?
Nonproprietary name
British Approved Name
Chemical name
Generic name
Trade name
If food decreases the rate but not the extent of the absorption of a particular drug from the gastrointestinal tract, then taking the drug with food will result in a smaller
Area under the plasma drug concentration time curve.
Maximal plasma drug concentration
Time at which the maximal plasma drug concentration occurs.
Fractional bioavailability.
Total clearance.
If a drug exhibits first-order elimination, then
(A) the elimination half-life is proportional to the plasma drug concentration
The drug is eliminated at a constant rate.
Hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes are saturated.
Drug clearance will increase if the plasma drug concentration increases.
The rate of drug elimination (mg/min) is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.
The volume of distribution of a drug will be greater if the drug
Is more ionized inside cells than in plasma.
Is administered very rapidly.
Is highly ionized in plasma.
) has poor lipid solubility.
has a high molecular weight.
The description of molecular events initiated with the ligand binding and ending with a pharmacologic effect is called
) receptor down-regulation.
Signal transduction pathway.
Ligand-receptor binding.
Law of mass action
Intrinsic activity or efficacy.
G protein–coupled receptors that activate an inhibitory Gα subunit alter the activity of adenylate cyclase to
Increase the coupling of receptor to G protein.
Block the ligand from binding.
Initiate the conversion of GTP to GDP.
Generate intracellular inositol triphosphate.
Decrease the production of cAMP.
The law of mass action explains the relationship between
The dose of drug and physiologic response
The concentration of drug and the association/ dissociation of drug-receptor complex.
Receptors and the rate of signal transduction.
An enzyme and ligands that inhibit the enzyme.
) graded and quantal dose-response curves.
. In a log dose-response plot, drug efficacy is determined by the maximal height of the measured response on the effect axis, whereas drug potency is determined by
The number of animals exhibiting an all-or-none response
The signal transduction pathway.
The formula, including the affinity of the drug and the number of drug receptors.
The position of the curve along the log-dose axis.
The steepness of the dose-response curve
A partial agonist is best described as an agent that
) has low potency but high efficacy
Has affinity but lacks efficacy
) interacts with more than one receptor type.
Blocks the effect of the antagonist
Cannot produce the full effect, even at high doses
The 4th to the 10th week of gestation is the period of time when there is the greatest concern about drug-induced
Fetal cardiac arrest.
Fetal hemorrhage.
Fetal malformations.
Fetal jaundice.
Which of the following drug interaction mechanisms is most likely to lead to sustained elevations of plasma drug concentrations and drug toxicity?
Induction of CYP2C19
Inhibition of CYP3A4
Displacement of a drug from plasma albumin– binding sites
Acceleration of gastric emptying by a “prokinetic” drug
Elderly persons may have altered drug disposition because of
A markedly reduced absorption of many drugs
Higher volumes of distribution for water-soluble drug
An accelerated renal excretion of ionized drugs.
An increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier.
A reduced capacity to oxidize drugs.
Calcium disodium EDTA is employed in the treatment of which metal poisoning
Lead
Cadmium
Mercury
Mercury
Beryllium
Which herbicide can cause renal failure after accidental or intentional ingestion?
2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D)
Glyphosate
Paraquat
Diquat
Diazinon
What is the most characteristic feature of chronic mercury poisoning
Hypothermia
Heart failure
Biliary obstruction and jaundice
Anger, depression, irrational behavior
) rhabdomyolysis
Which agent is used to reduce the gastrointestinal absorption of ingested poisons?
Succimer
Activated charcoal
Dimercaprol
Unithiol
An increased risk of which disease has been linked to exposure to 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D)?
Hypertension
Hyponatremia
Pulmonary fibrosis
Dementia
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
A woman with facial muscle spasms is treated with an agent that inhibits the release of acetylcholine. Which side effect is most likely to occur in this patient?
Bradycardia
Urinary incontinence
Dry mouth
Diarrhea
Constriction of the pupils
A man complains of dry mouth after radiation therapy for throat cancer, and he is treated with cevimeline. Which mechanism produces the therapeutic effect of this drug
Activation of muscarinic M2 receptors
Increased formation of IP3
Increased cAMP levels
Increased cGMP levels
Increased potassium efflux
A woman in a smoking cessation program receives a drug that reduces craving and withdrawal effects. Which effect results from receptor activation by this drug?
Sodium influx
Potassium efflux
Increased cAMP
Increased cGMP
IP3 formation
A man receives a drug that increases cGMP levels. Which adverse effect is most likely to result from this medication?
Constipation
Cough
Dry mouth
Sedation
Headache
An agricultural worker is brought to the emergency department after abrupt onset of bowel and bladder incontinence and muscle weakness while she was working. She is given oxygen and antidotal drug treatments. Which drug mechanism would increase muscle strength in this patient?
Blockade of muscarinic receptors
Activation of nicotinic receptors
Increased neurotransmitter degradation
Induction of drug-metabolizing enzymes
) increased urinary excretion of weak acids
Which drug produces transient muscle fasciculations followed by muscle paralysis that is not reversed by neostigmine?
Rocuronium
Hyoscyamine
Cisatracurium
Succinylcholine
Pancuronium
Toxic doses of scopolamine would be expected to cause all of the following effects EXCEPT
Hallucinations
Bronchospasm
Hyperthermia
Blurred vision
Topical ocular administration of tropicamide will cause
Contraction of the ciliary muscle.
Vasoconstriction
Miosis
Relaxation of the iris sphincter muscle
The therapeutic use of darifenacin is based on its ability to
Relax bronchial smooth muscle
Relax urinary bladder smooth muscle.
Relax uterine smooth muscle
Relax gastrointestinal muscle.
Inhibit salivary secretions.
Sugammadex, used to reverse an overdose with neuromuscular blockers, has a unique mechanism of action best described as which one of the following?
Antagonist at cholinergic acetylcholine receptors
Agonist at cholinergic acetylcholine receptors
Antagonist at muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Forms an inactive drug complex
Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
Which property is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?
Discrete activation of specific organs
) long preganglionic neurons
Action terminated by cholinesterase
Inhibits the enteric nervous system
Activated by increased arterial blood pressure
A man is given a drug that inhibits the synthesis of norepinephrine. Which response would result from this treatment?
Diarrhea
Bronchodilation
Renin secretion
Decreased heart rate
Salivation
A man with diabetic autonomic neuropathy complains of dizziness and fainting when arising from bed in the morning. Which drug would be most beneficial to this patient?
Dobutamine
Albuterol
Midodrine
Clonidine
Isoproterenol
A woman is given topical ocular apraclonidine after cataract surgery. Which mechanism is responsible for the desired effect?
) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
Activation of adenylyl cyclase
Activation of phospholipase C
) inhibition of phospholipase C
Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
A child with asthma is being treated with albuterol to prevent bronchospasm. Which side effect is typically associated with this drug?
Sedation
Rapid heart rate
Muscle weakness
Low blood pressure
Blurred vision
After being stung by a bee, a child is given an intramuscular injection of epinephrine. Which action would lead to bronchodilation?
Increased cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels
Increased cAMP levels
Increased IP3 levels
Calcium influx
Sequestration of calcium
A woman experiences pain and ischemia in her finger after accidentally injecting it with epinephrine that she carries for emergency treatment of severe allergic reactions.
Alfuzosin
Carvedilol
Betaxolol
Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
A man complains of urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia and is found to have enlargement of the prostate gland.
Alfuzosin
Carvedilol
Phenoxybenzamine
Betaxolol
Phentolamine
A patient with essential hypertension requires a drug that reduces both cardiac output and peripheral resistance
Alfuzosin
Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
Carvedilol
Betaxolol
. A man with episodic severe hypertension is found to have markedly elevated levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolites in his urine and needs a long-acting drug to lower blood pressure before surgery.
Alfuzosin
Phentolamine
Betaxolol
Phenoxybenzamine
Carvedilol
Which drug is most likely to slow recovery from hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient who has taken an excessive dose of insulin?
Metoprolol
Doxazosin
Propranolol
Phenoxybenzamine
Atenolol
A patient with type 2 diabetes and hypertension has recently developed proteinuria. Which drug would be most likely to slow the progression of renal disease in this patient beyond its ability to lower blood pressure?
Metoprolol
Nifedipine
Enalapril
Indapamide
Diltiazem
A man with a history of poor dental hygiene and high blood pressure complains of tender and swollen gums during an appointment with his dentist. Which antihypertensive drug might be contributing to this condition?
Irbesartan
Metoprolol
Nifedipine
Hydrochlorothiazide
Doxazosin
Which drug binds to renin and inhibits its activity?
Aliskiren
Atenolol
Enalapril
Hydrochlorothiazide
Valsartan
What is the mechanism by which irbesartan lowers blood pressure?
Inhibiting renin
Blocking angiotensin AT1 receptors
Decreasing calcium entry into smooth muscle
Inhibiting formation of angiotensin II
Antagonizing aldosterone
. Which drug blocks α- and β-adrenoceptors, and also has antioxidant and other beneficial effects?
Carvedilol
Amlodipine
Amlodipine
Hydrochlorothiazide
Doxazosin
Which mechanism is responsible for the vasodilation effect of verapamil
) increased levels of cGMP
Decreased binding of calcium to calmodulin
Decreased formation of IP3
Increased myosin light-chain kinase activity
Increased metabolic efficiency
Which effect is caused by both atenolol and diltiazem?
Decreased cAMP levels
) increased cGMP levels
Decreased heart rate
Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle
Inhibition of sodium influx
What is the mechanism by which isosorbide dinitrate increases cyclic GMP levels?
Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
Inactivation of aldehyde dehydrogenase
Blockade of β-adrenoceptors
Release of nitric oxide
Blockade of calcium channels
A man with obstructive pulmonary disease requires therapy to prevent anginal attacks. Which drug should be avoided in this patient?
Verapamil
Felodipine
Isosorbide mononitrate
Diltiazem
Propranolol
Which agent prevents myocardial cell calcium overload and thereby decreases ventricular wall tension?
Ranolazine
Nitroglycerin
Amlodipine
Ivabradine
Trimetazidine
. Inhibition of neprilysin leads to increased levels of which endogenous substance?
Angiotensin II
Natriuretic peptide
Both angiotensin II and natriuretic peptide
Neither angiotensin II or natriuretic peptide
Nitric oxide
A man is brought to the emergency department complaining of nausea and vomiting, blurred and abnormally colored vision, and palpitations. Which drug is most likely responsible for these effects?
Dobutamine
Lisinopril
Digoxin
Milrinone
Furosemide
Which drug has been demonstrated to increase survival in persons with heart failure?
Furosemide
Carvedilol
Milrinone
Digoxin
Hydralazine-isosorbide dinitrate
Which mechanism is responsible for the cardiovascular effects of nesiritide?
Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase
Inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase
Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
Which drug blocks α1-, β1-, and β2-adrenoceptors?
Carvedilol
Metoprolol
Propranolol
Dobutamine
Phentolamine
Large intravenous doses of this drug may cause tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss.
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Acetazolamide
Mannitol
Administration of this drug to persons with renal insufficiency can cause hyperkalemia
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Acetazolamide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
This drug can be used to increase the renal excretion of weakly acidic drugs such as amphetamine.
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Acetazolamide
Mannitol
This drug can be used to increase calcium excretion in persons with hypercalcemia.
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Acetazolamide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
. Which diuretic is used in the treatment of high altitude (mountain) sickness?
Mannitol
Hydrochlorothiazide
Acetazolamide
Amiloride
Torsemide
After beginning drug therapy to suppress ventricular tachycardia, a man reports cold intolerance and lethargy, and his thyroid-stimulating hormone level is found to be elevated. Which drug is most likely responsible for this adverse reaction
Procainamide
Dronedarone
Dofetilide
Verapamil
Amiodarone
A woman is placed on an antidysrhythmic drug that dissociates very slowly from ventricular sodium channels. Which electrocardiographic finding results from this property?
Prolonged PR interva
Shortened PR interval
Prolonged QRS duration
Prolonged QT interval
Sinus bradycardia
A man is administered a drug that selectively blocks the rapidly activating delayed rectifier channels. Which electrocardiographic change should guide dosage adjustments with this drug?
QT prolongation
QRS widening
PR prolongation
T wave inversion
Heart rate
A woman with supraventricular tachycardia is given an intravenous bolus of adenosine. What is the mechanism by which this drug acts to terminate the dysrhythmia?
Increased chloride influx
Increased cyclic guanosine monophosphate
) increased calcium influx
Increased potassium efflux
Decreased sodium influx
. Which drug should be avoided in persons with asthma?
Diltiazem
Flecainide
Sotalol
Quinidine
Lidocaine
Which drug inhibits the intestinal absorption of cholesterol?
Colesevelam
Fenofibrate
Ezetimibe
Colestipol
Niacin
A woman taking a drug for high LDL-cholesterol levels experiences muscle tenderness and pain with no apparent cause. Which agent is least likely to cause this adverse effect?
Atorvastatin
Niacin
Fenofibrate
Colestipol
Rosuvastatin
What is the mechanism by which mipomersen lowers serum cholesterol levels?
Inhibits microsomal triglyceride transport
Inhibits cholesterol biosynthesis
Inhibits cholesterol absorption
Inhibits apolipoprotein B synthesis
Increases cholesterol excretion
Stimulation of lipoprotein lipase by a fenofibrate results in lowered serum levels of which substance?
Triglycerides
HDL-cholesterol
LDL-cholesterol
Apolipoprotein B
Phospholipids
Which drug increases utilization of cholesterol to synthesize bile acids?
Niacin
Rosuvastatin
Gemfibrozil
Ezetimibe
Colesevelam
An orally administered drug that directly inhibits thrombin
Eptifibatide
Prasugrel
Dabigatran
Rivaroxaban
Enoxaparin
This drug produces irreversible blockade of platelet adenosine diphosphate P2Y receptors
Eptifibatide
Dabigatran
Enoxaparin
Prasugrel
Rivaroxaban
This orally administered inhibitor of active factor X (Stuart factor) is used to prevent and treat deep vein thrombosis
Eptifibatide
Prasugrel
Dabigatran
Rivaroxaban
Enoxaparin
This drug is a reversible fibrinogen antagonist at GP-2b/3a receptors
Eptifibatide
Prasugrel
Dabigatran
Rivaroxaban
Enoxaparin
Which antithrombotic drug is most likely to cause thrombocytopenia?
Argatroban
Heparin
Tirofiban
Bivalirudin
Rivaroxaban
Idarucizumab is used to reverse the activity of which antithrombotic drug in cases of bleeding?
Alteplase
Warfarin
Dalteparin
Dabigatran
Apixaban
A 19-year-old woman with lethargy and fatigue is found to have a blood hemoglobin level of 9.8 g/dL (normal range 12–16 g/dL), a low erythrocyte corpuscular volume, and a low erythrocyte hemoglobin concentration
Cyanocobalamin
Epoetin
Ferrous fumarate
Filgrastim
Folic acid
A 47-year-old woman exhibits severe neutropenia after a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer.
Cyanocobalamin
Ferrous fumarate
Folic acid
Epoetin
Filgrastim
A 66-year-old man with progressive fatigability and anorexia is found to have a low blood hemoglobin concentration, an elevated mean corpuscular volume, and an elevated serum concentration of methylmalonic acid
Cyanocobalamin
Folic acid
Filgrastim
Ferrous fumarate
Epoetin
A 68-year-old man with diabetic nephropathy and end-stage renal disease exhibits peripheral reticulocytopenia and anemia
Cyanocobalamin
Folic acid
Ferrous fumarate
Filgrastim
Epoetin
. Pegylation of a recombinant protein is employed for which purpose?
Increasing oral bioavailability
Decreasing renal excretion rate
Increasing duration of action
Increasing binding to receptors
Reducing adverse effects
Which of the following terms best describes a receptor located on a neuronal terminal that binds a neurotransmitter released from another neuron and decreases release of neurotransmitter from the neuronal terminal?
Presynaptic receptor
Heteroreceptor
Postsynaptic receptor
Autoreceptor
Ionotropic receptor
. Neurotransmitters are made in neurons and released when vesicles fuse with the neuronal membrane. What name is given to this process?
Apoptosis
Phagocytosis
Endocytosis
Pinocytosis
Exocytosis
Which one of the following statements best describes the differences between classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides?
Neuropeptides are synthesized in the cell body
Classical neurotransmitters have a longer duration of action
Neuropeptides undergo rapid reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
Classical neurotransmitters are packaged into vesicles
Neuropeptides are degraded by acetylcholinesterase in the synapse
A patient with metastatic lung cancer is treated for chronic pain with daily doses of a long-acting morphine formulation and oxycodone for breakthrough pain. He complains that the medicines are no longer working. Which one of the following mechanisms may explain the lack of effect of his medicines?
The metabolism of morphine is up-regulated
Pain intensity has greatly increased
The efficiency of G protein coupling is decreased
opioid receptors are down-regulated
The patient is a “drug seeker” and addicted to opioid medications
Which one of the following drugs acts by inhibiting neurotransmitter reuptake?
Lithium
Morphine
Fluoxetine
Levodopa
Donepezil
Which of the following molecular processes best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
Potentiating the effect of GABA at chloride ion channels
Blocking glutamate excitation
Blocking the inactivation of sodium ion channels
Binding to opioid receptors to produce sedation
Potentiating the action of the inhibitory amino acid, glycine
Benzodiazepines are noted for altering which one of the following aspects of sleep?
Increasing the time to sleep onset
Decreasing stage 2 NREM sleep
Increasing slow-wave sleep
Decreasing the REM stage of sleep
Increasing sleep awakenings
Which one of the following statements best describes flumazenil?
Does not produce withdrawal seizures
Has the longest elimination half-life
Is not metabolized into an active agent
Is also used for the treatment of epilepsy
Is a selective benzodiazepine antagonist
. Zaleplon differs from zolpidem in which one of the following ways?
Has a shorter elimination half-life
Produces withdrawal seizures
Has a different chemical structure than benzodiazepines
Shows less tolerance to sedative effects
Produces greater morning sedation
Which one of the following anxiolytic drugs is noted for its lack of sedation?
Hydroxyzine
Diazepam
Oxazepam
Alprazolam
Buspirone
The molecular mechanism underlying the antiepileptic effects of carbamazepine and phenytoin is best described by which one of the following statements?
Inhibiting low-threshold Ca2+ ion channels
Prolonging the inactivation of the Na+ ion channel
Potentiating the release of GABA by inhibiting GABA reuptake
Increasing the release of GABA by vesicular fusion
Blocking glutamate receptor excitation
Which antiepileptic agent gained wider therapeutic use also to treat trigeminal neuralgia and the manic phase of bipolar disorder?
Levetiracetam
Ethosuximide
Zonisamide
Levetiracetam
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Which one of the following agents is considered the drug of choice for initial treatment of generalized absence seizure (petit mal) in children?
Ethosuximide
Zonisamide
Levetiracetam
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Topiramate has which set of three mechanisms of action?
Increases Na+ channel inactivation, increases GABA, blocks glutamate
Decreases Na+ channel inactivation, decreases GABA, blocks glutamate
Increases Ca2+ channel inactivation, increases GABA, blocks glutamate
Decreases Ca2+ channel inactivation, increases GABA, blocks glutamate
Decreases Ca2+ channel flow, increases GABA, blocks glutamate
Gabapentin has which mechanism of action?
Inhibits monoamine oxidase
Has an agonist effect at dopamine receptors
Increases Na+ channel inactivation
Blocks reuptake of neurotransmitters
Increases release of neurotransmitters
Local anesthetics exert their effects by which one of the following mechanisms?
Increasing K+ conductance and hyperpolarizing nerves
Blocking the Na+ channels in nerves
Inactivating the Na+ ,K+ -adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) pump
Blocking excitation at postsynaptic receptors
Blocking by a direct action only at the synapse
. Epinephrine is sometimes added to commercial local anesthetic solutions for which purpose?
Epinephrine is sometimes added to commercial local anesthetic solutions for which purpose?
To decrease the duration of action of the local anesthetic
To block the metabolism of ester-type local anesthetics
To enhance the distribution of the local anesthetic
To decrease the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic
Which of the following characteristics is used to quantitate and compare the potency of gaseous general anesthetics?
Blood:gas partition coefficient
Minimal alveolar concentration
Blood:brain partition coefficient
Rate of uptake and elimination
Relative analgesic potency
Which one of the following inhalational anesthetics can provide anesthetic effectiveness only under hyperbaric conditions?
Enflurane
Nitrous oxide
Halothane
Methoxyflurane
Isoflurane
Muscle rigidity can be a side effect of which intravenous anesthetic?
Fentanyl
Midazolam
Ketamine
Propofol
Thiopental
Clinical antipsychotic potency for “typical” antipsychotics correlates with actions at which receptor?
Dopamine D2 receptors
α2-adrenergic receptors
Muscarinic receptors
Histamine receptors
Serotonin
Which of the following agents is an antipsychotic that can improve both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
Thiothixene
Risperidone
Thioridazine
Which one of the following is not a class of antidepressant medications?
SNRIs
TCAs
MAOIs
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
SSRIs
The older TCAs share all of the following adverse effects except which one?
Orthostatic hypotension
Sedation
Seizures
Weight gain
Sexual dysfunction
Foods containing tyramine should be avoided when taken with which class of medications?
TCAs
MAOIs
SSRIs
Atypical antidepressants
Antihypertensive medications
Most clinically used opioid analgesics are selective for which type of opioid receptor?
Kappa (κ)
Alpha (α)
Beta (β)
Mu (µ)
Delta (δ)
. Codeine has a greater oral bioavailability compared with morphine because of which reason?
Codeine undergoes less first-pass metabolism
Morphine is conjugated more quickly
Morphine directly passes into systemic circulation
Codeine is available only in liquid formulation
Codeine is metabolized more by hepatic enzymes
Which of the following statements best explains the observation that morphine is more likely to cause nausea and vomiting in ambulatory patients?
Morphine inhibits chemoreceptor trigger zone neurons
Morphine sensitizes medulla cough center neurons
Opioids cause sedation, which makes walking more difficult
Patients on opioids eat more
Opioids increase vestibular sensitivity
Which of the following opioids is so lipophilic that it is marketed in a skin patch used to treat chronic pain?
Morphine
Naltrexone
Scopolamine
Methadone
Fentanyl
In a case of an opioid overdose, naloxone can be given in repeated doses because of which property of naloxone?
May have a shorter half-life than the opioid agonist
Is effective only at high cumulative doses
Is needed to stimulate the respiratory center
Is safe only in extremely small doses
Is only a partial opioid agonist
Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for antiparkinsonism agents?
Direct dopamine agonist
precursor loading
Dopamine metabolism inhibition
Cholinergic receptor blocking
Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
Cardiac arrhythmias after initial doses of levodopa (l-dopa) are occasionally observed. Which of the following most likely explains this occurrence?
direct action on cardiac dopamine receptors
Decreased release of catecholamines
Direct β-adrenoceptor stimulation
Increased release of dopamine
Interaction with vagal cholinergic receptors
Anticholinergic agents are useful in the treatment of parkinsonism because of which one of the following mechanisms?
Decreased levels of acetylcholine from loss of neurons
Continuing degeneration of dopamine neurons
Neurotransmitter imbalance in the basal ganglia
Increased activity of acetylcholinesterase
Increased release of dopamine in basal ganglia
. Selegiline, an antidepressant also used for the treatment of Parkinson disease, has which one of the following mechanisms of action?
It is a selective MAO-B inhibitor
It blocks the reuptake of dopamine
It irreversibly binds to COMT
it increases release of dopamine vesicles
It blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors
Baclofen is used to treat muscle spasticity because of which of the following effects?
is a receptor agonist at GABAB receptors
Blocks acetylcholine receptors
Enhances the release of GABA vesicles
Is an antagonist as glutamate receptors
Increases GABA action at Cl− ion channel
Disulfiram effectively treats alcohol (ethanol) dependence by which of the following mechanisms?
Preventing the conversion of ethanol to methanol in the liver
Increasing plasma ethanol concentration
Increasing circulating acetaldehyde concentrations
Blocking the action of ethanol at its cell membrane receptor
Stabilizing the cell membrane to prevent ethanol disruption
The fact that the degree of reinforcement for morphine is less than that of heroin is best explained by which one of the following statements?
Morphine is a partial agonist
Heroin binds more tightly to opioid receptors
Morphine is metabolized faster than heroin
Morphine is first metabolized to heroin
Heroin is distributed more rapidly to the brain
Synesthesia is an acute pharmacologic effect of which drug of abuse?
Marijuana
LSD
Cocaine
PCP
Alcohol
Which of the following has not been reported as a health hazard of chronic marijuana abuse?
Low birth weight in neonates
Decreased testosterone in men
Anovulatory cycle in females
Increased fetal malformations
Increased intraocular pressure
Crack cocaine in the 1990s became more problematic than the powder cocaine of the 1980s because of which difference between the two forms of cocaine?
Cocaine in crack is more potent than cocaine in powder form
Crack cocaine is not metabolized in humans
Reinforcement is greater with inhalation versus insufflation
Powder cocaine reaches the brain more rapidly than crack cocaine
Coca plants in the 1990s were bred for greater cocaine content
Which of the following antihistamines would be best used to treat mild nausea and vomiting caused by motion sickness?
Cetirizine
Fexofenadine
Loratadine
Diphenhydramine
Meclizine
Which of the following describes the major difference between a first- and second-generation antihistamine?
Selectivity at H1 receptors
Ability to cross the blood-brain barrier
Effectiveness in treating allergies
Potency at blocking H1 receptors
Indications for use
Of the major serotonin (5-HT) receptors identified and used as targets for therapeutic agents, which one is the only one considered a ligand-gated ion channel?
5-HT1B
5-HT1D
5-HT2
5-HT3
5-HT4
Which of the following drugs is the same as PGI2 (prostacyclin) and is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension?
Misoprostol
Alprostadil
Epoprostenol
Treprostinil
Travoprost
. Latanoprost is an agonist at the PGF2 receptors and is effective for the treatment of
Cornea abrasions
Ocular hypertension and open-angle glaucoma
Ocular albinism
Closed-angle glaucoma
Allergic conjunctivitis
. Which of the following correctly describes montelukast?
Blocks receptors for leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4
Inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes
Is administered twice daily
Inhibits formation of leukotriene A4
Is excreted unchanged in the urine
2. Which drug used for the treatment of asthma inhibits 5-lipoxygenase?
Theophylline
Zileuton
Zafirlukast
Fluticasone
Roflumilast
A woman with allergic conjunctivitis uses a drug that prevents the release of chemical mediators from mast cells. Which mechanism is responsible for this pharmacologic effect?
Activation of β2-adrenoceptors
Decreased cytokine production
Blockade of muscarinic receptors
Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase
Blockade of calcium influx
A 15-year-old girl with severe asthma triggered by seasonal allergies is receiving twice-monthly injections of a monoclonal antibody. Which mediator of asthma is antagonized by this drug?
Immunoglobulin E
Leukotriene C4
Major basic protein
Histamine
Interleukin-2
A man being treated for severe asthma experiences an episode of life-threatening tachycardia requiring emergency treatment. Which drug is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
Budesonide
Ipratropium
Cromolyn
Formoterol
Montelukast
A woman is using a scopolamine skin patch to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise ship. Which is the most common adverse effect of this drug?
Flatulence
Heartburn
Headache
Diarrhea
Dry mouth
A woman with irritable bowel syndrome has recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and diarrhea that are not relieved by polycarbophil. Which adverse effect may result from taking alosetron for this condition?
Pulmonary fibrosis
Ischemic colitis
) ischemic heart disease
Gastric ulcer
Muscle rigidity and tremor
Which drug combination usually provides the most rapid and effective treatment for duodenal ulcer caused by H. Pylori infection?
Sucralfate, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin
) rabeprazole, bismuth subsalicylate, and tetracycline
Famotidine, amoxicillin, and metronidazole
Pantoprazole, amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and metronidazole
Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, tetracycline, and metronidazole
A man with chronic heartburn caused by gastric acid reflux is prescribed metoclopramide. Which mechanism is responsible for its pharmacologic effect?
Histamine H2 receptor blockade
Muscarinic receptor blockade
Dopamine D2 receptor blockade
α-adrenoceptor activation
Chloride ClC-2 channel activation
A man is given medication to prevent cisplatin-induced vomiting. Which combination of drugs is recommended for this purpose?
Palonosetron, dexamethasone, and aprepitant
Dexamethasone only
Dexamethasone and aprepitant
Aprepitant only
Palonosetron only
Which of the following agents has not shown effectiveness in the prophylactic treatment of migraine headache?
Zolmitriptan
Valproic acid
Verapamil
Naproxen
Amitriptyline
Use of sumatriptan is contraindicated in which one of the following groups of patients?
Postpartum women
Patients with uncontrolled hypertension
Patients with moderate to unresponsive severe migraines
Patients with hepatic insufficiency
Patients with renal dysfunction
The therapeutic effect of the triptan class of drugs is caused by which mechanism of action?
Stimulation of serotonin 5-HT1D receptors
Antagonism at serotonin 5-HT2 receptors
Antagonism at dopamine receptors
Antagonism at α-adrenoceptors
Direct inhibition of substance P receptors in the vasculature
Verapamil is indicated for the treatment of migraine because it has which one of the following effects?
It prevents the release of serotonin
It is a 5-HT1B/D agonist
It inhibits the COX-2 enzyme
It is an antagonist at 5-HT2 receptors
It blocks calcium channels
A 35-year-old woman with a history of migraine reports to her physician that the last time she used her medicine to stop an acute attack, she felt numbness and tingling in her extremities and blanching and cyanosis of her fingers. Which one of the following medications did she take?
Butorphanol
Sumatriptan
Dihydroergotamine
Tramadol
Naproxen
Aspirin is often used in low doses to prevent platelet aggregation by inhibiting the synthesis of which substance
Leukotriene
Prostacyclin (PGI2)
Thromboxane A2
Arachidonic acid
Phospholipase A
Acetaminophen is a potent analgesic and antipyretic NSAID but differs from other agents in that it has no antiinflammatory action. Which of the following reasons explains this unique aspect of acetaminophen?
The distribution of acetaminophen does not reach peripheral sites of inflammation
Acetaminophen is not an inhibitor of the COX enzyme
Antiinflammatory doses of acetaminophen are too high and toxic
It is selective for a newly discovered isozyme of COX
Acetaminophen undergoes significant first-pass metabolism
Which of the following agents augments the physiologic concentration of IL-1Ra proteins in the treatment of RA?
Adalimumab
Etanercept
Leflunomide
Infliximab
Anakinra
. With respect to antigout therapy, inhibition of tubulin polymerization into microtubules is important given the role of which process in which aspect of the disease?
Leukotriene synthesis
Uric acid production
Kidney reabsorption of uric acid
Leukocyte migration
Plasma binding of uric acid
A 45-year-old obese man with a history of alcohol abuse and hypertension develops joint swelling and pain. His urate excretion rate is 950 mg/day. Which of the following agents is the best treatment for his condition?
Probenecid
Allopurinol
Piroxicam
Lesinurad
Colchicine
Which drug is used to reduce secretion of gonadotropins and gonadal steroids in children with precocious puberty?
Cabergoline
Menotropins
Leuprolide
Gonadorelin
Octreotide
Which drug for treating acromegaly acts by blocking receptors for growth hormone?
Somatropin
Pegvisomant
Octreotide
Leuprolide
Cabergoline
By which mechanism does cabergoline relieve symptoms of hyperprolactinemia in persons with a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma?
Blocks prolactin receptors
Blocks receptors for prolactin-releasing hormone
Exerts a cytotoxic effect on pituitary adenoma cells
Activates receptors for prolactin-inhibiting hormone
Stimulates the breakdown of prolactin
Octreotide is correctly described by which of the following statements?
It is identical to naturally occurring somatostatin
It is used to treat growth hormone deficiency.
) It is administered orally.
It is a more potent inhibitor of growth hormone secretion than is somatostatin
It contains more than 100 amino acids.
Which sequence of gonadotropin preparations is used to induce ovulation?
Choriogonadotropin alfa then lutropin alfa
Follitropin alfa then lutropin alfa
Choriogonadotropin alfa then follitropin beta
Chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) then lutropin alfa
Follitropin alfa then follitropin beta
A man is given a drug to reduce thyroid gland size and vascularity before surgical thyroidectomy. Which mechanism is responsible for its use in this setting?
Inhibition of the sodium/iodide symporter
Inhibition of thyroperoxidase
Inhibition of TSH secretion
Inhibition of thyroid hormone release
Destruction of thyroid tissue
A woman with weight loss, nervousness, heat intolerance, and exophthalmos is prescribed methimazole to induce a remission in her disease. Which adverse effect is most often associated with this medication?
Hypotension and bradycardia
Thromboembolism
Pruritic rash
Liver failure
Agranulocytosis
. After total thyroidectomy, a woman is placed on levothyroxine to maintain normal thyroid levels.Which attribute is correctly associated with this drug?
Partly converted to T3 in the body
Administered several times a day
The most potent thyroid hormone
Half-life of 1 day
) oral bioavailability of 95%
. After exposure to radioactive fallout containing 131I, which agent could be administered to prevent destruction of thyroid tissue?
Liothyronine
Liothyronine
Propranolol
Potassium iodide
Levothyroxine
. Treatment of hyperthyroidism by propylthiouracil (PTU) shows clinical effects due to:
Blocking β-adrenergic receptors
Inhibiting enzymes forming T3 and T4
Destroying thyroid tissue
Inhibiting release of T3 and T4
Acting on thyroid hormone receptors
After receiving a low dose of dexamethasone, a patient is found to have a plasma cortisol level of 20 mcg/dL the next morning. Which disorder is most likely in this patient?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Chronic adrenal insufficiency
11β-hydroxylase deficiency
Cushing syndrome
Pituitary insufficiency
. A boy experiences a moderately severe reaction to a wasp sting. Which method of corticosteroid administration is appropriate for this patient?
Continuous high-dose therapy for several weeks
Continuous low-dose therapy for several weeks
Gradually increasing doses over several days
Gradually decreasing doses over several days
Intermittent every-other-day therapy until
A patient with Addison disease continues to have hyperkalemia despite receiving adequate replacement doses of hydrocortisone (cortisol). Which drug should be added to the treatment regimen to reduce serum potassium levels?
Dexamethasone
Fludrocortisone
Triamcinolone
Prednisone
Aldosterone
The long-term administration of large doses of prednisone will cause the least reduction in the secretion of which hormone?
Cortisol
Corticotropin
Corticotropin-releasing hormone
Aldosterone
A woman has developed a moderately severe contact dermatitis reaction to a cosmetic preparation on her face and eyes. Which topical corticosteroid would be most suitable for treating this condition?
Desonide
Clobetasol
Prednisone
Fluocinonide
Desoximetasone
Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment of which disorder?
Thromboembolism
Osteoporosis
Menopausal symptoms
Endometriosis
Contraception
A progestin is included in regimens for HRT to prevent which of the following adverse effects?
Breast cancer
Endometrial cancer
Myocardial infarction
Stroke
Elevated cholesterol levels
3. A man is taking nilutamide for prostate cancer. Which adverse effect is most likely to occur in persons taking this drug?
Breast tenderness
Alopecia
Glaucoma
Deep vein thrombosis
Hot flashes
A woman is taking norethindrone daily for contraception. Which adverse effect is associated with this agent?
Venous thromboembolism
Irregular menstrual cycles
Hot flashes
Breast enlargement
Hypertension
. Which hormone receptors are blocked by drospirenone?
Aldosterone and androgen receptors
Estrogen and progestin receptors
Only progestin receptors
Only gonadotropin receptors
Only glucocorticoid receptors
A patient takes nateglinide before each meal. Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug
Closing of potassium channels
Slowed gastric emptying
Inhibition of α-glucosidase
Inhibition of DPP-4
Insertion of glucose transporters in cell membranes
A patient with type 1 diabetes injects pramlintide at mealtimes. Which adverse effect may result from this drug?
Increased appetite
Nausea and anorexia
Flatulence and bloating
Weight gain
Increased risk of heart failure
A diabetic patient takes pioglitazone. Which effect is produced by this drug?
Increased insulin secretion
Lowered HDL cholesterol levels
Increased serum triglyceride levels
Insertion of glucose transporters in cell membranes
Weight loss
Which of the following phrases correctly describes insulin glargine?
It is injected at mealtimes
Proline and lysine are transposed in the B chain
Aspartate is substituted for proline in the B chain
It is slowly absorbed over 24 hours
It is administered by inhalation
A type 2 diabetic patient is prescribed metformin. Which adverse effect often occurs when taking this drug?
Heart failure
Weight gain
Diarrhea
Lactic acidosis
Hypoglycemia
A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman is placed on a drug that decreases osteoclast activation but may cause hot flashes. Which drug was most likely given to this patient?
Alendronate
Denosumab
Calcitonin
Raloxifene
Teriparatide
A woman with osteolytic bone cancer is treated with a drug that reduces the serum calcium level. Which drug is indicated for this purpose?
Calcitonin
Ibandronate
Calcitriol
Zoledronic acid
Cinacalcet
A woman with a BMD T-score of −3 is given daily subcutaneous injections to increase bone formation. Which effect is most likely produced by this treatment?
Increased absorption of dietary calcium
Increased serum levels of vitamin D
Decreased activation of osteoclasts
Increased activation of osteoblasts
Adsorption of the drug to bone
A man with bone pain and deformities is placed on a drug that increases cyclic adenosine monophosphate levels in osteoclasts. Which beneficial effect may result from this treatment?
) increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity
Decreased urine hydroxyproline levels
Increased bone turnover
Increased serum calcium levels
Increased osteoblast activity
A woman with osteoporosis is prescribed a drug that adsorbs to hydroxyapatite and remains in bone for years. Which drug is she most likely taking?
Risedronate
Teriparatide
Calcitonin
Denosumab
Vitamin D3
A cell membrane constituent that transports chemotherapeutic drugs out of a target cell.
Plasmid
Porin
Resistance factor
β-lactamase
P-glycoprotein
The continued suppression of bacterial growth after an antibiotic has been eliminated from the body.
Bacteriostatic
Postantibiotic effect
Time-dependent killing
Concentration-dependent killing
Synergistic effect
The combined antibacterial effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects.
Mutual antagonism
Indifference
Synergism
Additive
Competition
The most frequent mechanism of transferable drug resistance
Transduction
Transformation
Transmission
Plasmid exchange
Mutation and selection
An antibiotic diffusion method for determining the MIC of an antibiotic
E-test strip method
Broth dilution method
Disk diffusion method
Growth rate method
Turbidity method
. Aztreonam is used for the treatment of infections caused by which organism
Staphylococcus aureus
Enterococcus faecium
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Bacillus anthracis
Which drug inhibits extended-spectrum β-lactamases including some cephalosporinases?
Avibactam
Clavulanate
Sulbactam
Tazobactam
Monobactam
Higher doses of vancomycin used to treat methicillin-resistant staphylococci may cause which adverse effect?
Hepatitis
Alopecia
Hallucinations
Hypertension
Impaired hearing
Fosfomycin is given as a large single dose to treat which infection?
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Urinary tract infection
Impetigo
Traveler’s diarrhea
Cilastatin is used to inhibit the metabolism of which antibiotic by dehydropeptidase?
Ceftazidime
Imipenem
Piperacillin
Vancomycin
Bacitracin
A man with a skin infection due to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is treated with linezolid. Which adverse effect is associated with this antibiotic?
Myalgia and arthralgia
Nystagmus and vertigo
Thrombocytopenia
Discoloration of body fluids
Flushing and hypotension
An infant with enterocolitis due to E. Coli is treated with oral gentamicin. Which step in bacterial protein synthesis is inhibited by this antibiotic?
Initiation
) peptide bond formation
Isoleucine transfer RNA synthesis
Peptide translocation
Transfer RNA binding to 30S subunit
A man being treated for chlamydial urethritis presents with severe erythema over his upper body after sun exposure. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
Azithromycin
Clindamycin
Doxycycline
Erythromycin
Mupirocin
Which antibiotic is highly ionized in body fluids and must be given parenterally for systemic infections?
Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Clindamycin
Tobramycin
Linezolid
Which antibiotic is active against some strains of vancomycin-resistant E. faecium?
Azithromycin
Azithromycin
Chloramphenicol
Chloramphenicol
Quinupristin-dalfopristin
A woman being treated for an infection complains of heel pain and is found to have an inflamed Achilles tendon. Which agent most likely caused this adverse effect?
Trimethoprim
Daptomycin
Sulfacetamide
Ciprofloxacin
Polymyxin B
Which antimicrobial drugs disrupt the bacterial cell membrane?
Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
Polymyxin B and daptomycin
Rifaximin and fidaxomicin
) ciprofloxacin and moxifloxacin
Nitrofurantoin and fosfomycin
Which condition predisposes a person to drug-induced hemolytic anemia?
Immunodeficiency
Folate deficiency
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Iron deficiency
Thiamine deficiency
A woman with traveler’s diarrhea was treated with an agent that is not absorbed from the gut. Which agent was most likely used for this condition?
Ciprofloxacin
Rifaximin
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Daptomycin
Nitrofurantoin
Mutations to the alpha subunit of DNA gyrase may cause bacterial resistance to which drug?
Trimethoprim
Gatifloxacin
Sulfamethoxazole
Daptomycin
Nitrofurantoin
Which drug is recommended for treatment of most persons with latent TB?
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Streptomycin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Which drug inhibits RNA polymerase in Mycobacteria?
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Isoniazid
Amikacin
Amikacin
A woman being treated for a mycobacterial infection develops optic neuritis. Which agent most likely caused this reaction?
Isoniazid
Rifampin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
Mutations to the katG gene may confer resistance to which agent?
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Rifampin
Amikacin
Ethambutol
Persons with a high acetyltransferase activity will have comparatively lower plasma levels of which drug?
Pyrazinamide
Rifabutin
Amikacin
Ethambutol
Dapsone
A woman is placed on fluconazole to treat renal candidiasis. Which pharmacologic property is associated with this drug?
Poor oral bioavailability
) low cerebrospinal fluid concentrations
Primarily excreted in the urine
) short elimination half-life
Must be given parenterally
Which drug exerts a fungicidal effect by inhibiting synthesis of the fungal cell wall?
Micafungin
Posaconazole
Flucytosine
Terbinafine
Nystatin
Which drug is most likely to cause drug interactions due to inhibition of human cytochrome P450 enzymes?
Amphotericin B
Fluconazole
Caspofungin
Naftifine
Itraconazole
A child with tinea capitis is treated with griseofulvin. Which adverse effect most often results from taking this drug?
Sedation
Constipation
) nausea and vomiting
Blurred vision
Headache and dizziness
Which infection is correctly treated with caspofungin?
Pulmonary blastomycosis
) invasive aspergillosis
) systemic histoplasmosis
Cryptococcal meningitis
Mucormycosis
A man with HIV infection is taking darunavir, a protease inhibitor. Which adverse effect is associated with this class of drugs?
Anemia
Pancreatitis
Neuropsychiatric reactions
Peripheral neuropathy
Elevated triglyceride and cholesterol levels
A patient with shingles receives a drug that is converted to penciclovir in the body. Which antiviral action is exerted by this agent?
Blockade of guanosine triphosphate synthesis
Inhibition of DNA polymerase
Inhibition of viral entry
DNA chain termination
Prevention of viral maturation
A woman with influenza is treated with zanamivir. Which step in viral replication is prevented by this drug?
Entry into host cells
Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
Replication of viral nucleic acid
Maturation of viral proteins
Release of progeny virions
Which nonnucleoside drug is used to treat systemic acyclovir and ganciclovir-resistant herpesvirus infections, such as CMV esophagitis?
Foscarnet
Trifluridine
Ribavirin
Rilpivirine
Efavirenz
. Which drug inhibits nonstructural protein 3-4A and prevents maturation of hepatitis C virus?
Dasabuvir
Ombitasvir
Semiprevir
Ledipasvir
Daclatasvir
What is the mechanism of the anthelmintic effect of pyrantel?
Impaired microtubule function
Decreased glucose uptake
Free-radical production
Inhibition of electron transport
Neuromuscular blockade
A Peace Corps volunteer experiences severe anxiety and hallucinations while receiving malaria treatment. Which drug is most likely causing this adverse effect?
Primaquine
Artesunate
Mefloquine
Atovaquone
Proguanil
A susceptible population is treated with ivermectin to prevent onchocerciasis (river blindness). The permeability of which ion is increased in the parasite by this treatment?
Calcium
Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium
Chloride
Nitazoxanide is used to treat which infection in immunocompetent persons?
Leishmaniasis
Malaria
Cryptosporidiosis
Trypanosomiasis
Toxoplasmosis
Which drug inhibits erythrocytic schizogony in malarial species by forming free radicals that damage heme and proteins?
Pyrimethamine
Artemether
Atovaquone
Proguanil
Lumefantrine
A woman being treated for breast cancer develops numbness and tingling in her hands and feet. Which drug most likely caused this adverse effect?
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Tamoxifen
Trastuzumab
Docetaxel
Which adverse effect may result from cisplatin therapy?
Cardiac toxicity
Liver failure
Muscle toxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Hemolytic anemia
. A woman with chronic myeloid leukemia responds to imatinib therapy as indicated by a cytologic remission. Which enzyme is inhibited by this drug?
DNA polymerase
Dihydrofolate reductase
BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
Thymidylate synthetase
Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
Which type of cancer is treated with trastuzumab if the cells overexpress human epidermal growth factor receptors?
Breast cancer
Ovarian cancer
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Multiple myeloma
Melanoma
Which immunosuppressant drug forms a complex with the FK-binding protein, resulting in inhibition of calcineurin and T lymphocyte activation?
Cyclosporine
Prednisone
Cyclophosphamide
Tacrolimus
Azathioprine
{"name":"Pharmacology Challenge Quiz", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Test your knowledge of pharmacology with this comprehensive quiz! Designed for students, health professionals, and enthusiasts alike, this quiz covers a wide range of topics related to drug administration, metabolism, and effects.Key Features:30 Multiple Choice QuestionsFocus on Clinical and Pharmaceutical KnowledgeAssess Your Understanding and Knowledge Retention","img":"https:/images/course8.png"}
More Quizzes
Drug cards
12628
Pharmaceutical Knowledge Quiz
13611
GI System Adv Pharm
13615
Module 5 Drug quiz
14721
Pharmacology Unit 1
311675
Quick Questions About Commonly Used Drugs in A&E
520
Grafalon
1050
Matching Drug/Drug Class
8472
Maternity Pharmacology CH49 Gastrointestinal
12690
Medicinal | Lec 5-8 Assessment | 12Q
1260
Pharchem 4
1476
Peds Pharmacology
361874