RLE EXAM
1. During assessment, a patient who suffers from ischemic stroke which progresses to hemorrhagic stroke will open his eyes to pain with abnormal flexion of upper extremities but has no verbal output has a GCS score of.
A. 13
B. 11
C. 6
D. 7
2. What primarily determines the neurologic functions that are affected by a stroke?
A.The amount of tissue area involved
B.The rapidity of the onset of symptoms
C.The brain area perfused by the affected artery
D.The presence or absence of collateral circulation
3. A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is a priority?
A. Prepare to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA).
B. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms.
C. Schedule for a STAT computed tomography (CT Scan) of the head
D. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consultation.
4. What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with a thrombotic stroke?
A. Cholesterol level
B. Bowel sounds
Pupil size & pupillary response
. Echocardiogram
5. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Complete blood count
C. Troponin I
D. Creatinine kinase
6. Which of the following conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction?
A. Aneurysm
B. Heart failure
C. Coronary artery thrombosis
D. Renal failure
7. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor related to cholelithiasis?
A. Obesity
B. Female
C. Forty
D. Smoking
8. A client with cholecystitis is experiencing jaundice. Which should the nurse consider as the reason for the jaundice?
A. Accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
B. Viral infection of the gallbladder.
C. Accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
D. Obstruction of the cystic duct by the gallstone
9. The nurse is preparing to teach a client with gallbladder disease. Which topic should the nurse include in the health promotion?
A. Avoiding modifiable risk factors such smoking.
B. The importance of stress management.
C. The role of high-cholesterol on gallstone formation.
D. The importance of avoiding high fat diet after cholecystectomy.
10. Which among the statement below best describe Myocardial Infarction
A. It is the condition in which, there is decrease or complete cessation of blood flow to a portion of the myocardium
B. It is known as “Heart Attack”
C. It is a condition with prolonged deprivation of oxygen supply in the myocardium
D. All of the above
11. Myocardial Infarction commonly happens in which part of the heart?
A. Left side of the heart
B. Right side of the heart
C. Center
D. Both A and C
12. Describe the abnormal findings in the ECG of patient with M.I.
A. ST segment depression
B. Absence of ST segment
C. ST segment elevation
D. No abnormal findings
13. A 30 year old female known diabetic and a non-compliant patient arrived in the emergency room with complaints of drowsiness, fast deep breathing, a feeling of being very tired and is nauseated. During assessment the ER nurse notice that the patient has a fruity-smelling breath. The nurse suspects that the patient is in a state of:
A. Thyroid storm
B. BAIAE
C. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
D. Diabetic encephalopathy
14. A patient admitted in the ward complains of drowsiness and weakness. The nurse check the capillary blood glucose of the patient which has a reading of 40mg/dl. The nurse immediate response is:
A. Hold the standing order of insulin treatment
B. Place the patient in fowlers position and administer insulin.
C. Let the patient eat and inform the physician
D. Administer 3L/min of oxygen via nasal prong.
15. A blood test that measures the average of blood sugar for the past three months.
A. Fasting blood glucose
B. Hemoglobin A1C
C. Lipid profile
D. Oral glucose tolerance test
16. The following are complications of Diabetes Mellitus except:
A. Blindness
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Nephropathy
D. Metabolic Acidosis
17. If a CVA patient is on antiplatelet therapy, part of the nurse teachings includes:
A. Watching out for bleeding
B. Monitor Blood glucose before taking the medication
C. Take medication with HR not below 60bpm
D. None of the above
18. The client with acute renal failure asks the nurse for a snack. Because the client’s potassium level is elevated, which of the following snacks would be most appropriate
A. Gelatin dessert
B. Yogurt
C. An orange
D. Peanuts
19. The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for the client diagnosed with CKD. Which nursing problem is priority for the client?
A.Low self-esteem
B.Excess fluid volume
C. Activity Intolerance
D. Knowledge deficit
20. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which statement best describes the scientific rationale for metabolic acidosis in this client?
A. There is an increase excretion of phosphates and organic acids, which leads to an increase in arterial blood pH.
B. A shortened life span of RBCs because of damage secondary to dialysis treatment in turn leads to metabolic acidosis.
C. The kidney cannot excrete increased levels of acid because they cannot excrete ammonia or cannot reabsorb sodium bicarbonate.
D. An increase in nausea and vomiting causes a loss of hydrochloric acid and the respiratory system cannot compensate adequately.
21. The client receiving dialysis is complaining of being dizzy and light-headed. Which action should the nurse implement first?
A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
B. Turn off the dialysis machine immediately
C. Bolus the client with 500mL normal saline.
D. Notify the physician as soon as possible.
22. The client with acute renal failure is recovering and asks the nurse, “Will my kidneys ever function normally again?” The nurse’s response is based on knowledge that the client’s renal status will most likely
A. Continue to improve over a period of weeks
B. Result in the need for permanent hemodialysis
C.Improve only if the client receives a renal transplant
D.Result in end-stage renal failure
23. Which of the following urinary symptoms is the most common initial manifestation of acute renal failure?
A. Dysuria
B. Anuria
C. Hematuria
D. Oliguria
24. Which of the following substances is most commonly associated with causing toxic hepatitis?
A. Paracetamol
B. Ibuprofen
C. Vitamin C
D. Diphenhydramine
25. Which of the following is a common symptom of toxic hepatitis?
A. Joint pain
B. Abdominal pain
C. Jaundice
D. Nausea
26. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing toxic hepatitis?
A. Regular exercise
B. Smoking cessation
C. Heavy alcohol consumption
D. Adequate hydration
27. Which liver enzyme is typically elevated in toxic hepatitis?
A. Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
C. Troponin
D. Lipase
28. What is the first-line treatment for toxic hepatitis caused by acetaminophen overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
C. Atropine
D. Warfarin
29. What is the primary treatment for acute tonsillopharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. Antifungal medication
B. Antibiotics
C. Antiviral medication
D. Corticosteroids
30. Which of the following statements about toxic hepatitis is true?
A. It is always caused by viral infections
B. It primarily affects the kidneys
C. It can result from exposure to certain medications or chemicals
D. It is a genetic disorder
31. Which imaging modality is commonly used to evaluate liver damage in toxic hepatitis?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B. Computed tomography (CT) scan
C. X-ray
D. Ultrasonography
32. What is the primary characteristic feature of bronchial asthma?
A. Persistent cough
B. SOB
C. Airway inflammation
D. Rapid heart rate
33. Which of the following medications is commonly used as a rescue inhaler in the treatment of acute asthma attacks?
A. Albuterol
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Prednisone
34. What type of medication is typically used as a long-term controller in the management of bronchial asthma?
A. Antibiotics
B. Bronchodilators
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. Antifungal agents
35. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of an asthma in acute exacerbation?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Decreased wheezing
C. Increased dyspnea
D. Tachypnea
36. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing bronchial asthma?
A. Sedentary lifestyle
B. 2nd hand smoking exposure
C. High-fiber diet
D. Adequate hydration
37. What is the recommended position for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
A. Supine (lying flat on the back)
B. Prone (lying face down)
C. Upright
D. Orthopneic
38. Which of the following tests is commonly used to diagnose bronchial asthma?
A. Chest CT
B. Chest X-ray
C. Pulmonary function tests (spirometry)
D. Chest UTZ
39. What is the goal of asthma management?
A. Complete cure
B. Symptom control and prevention of exacerbations
C. Immediate relief of symptoms
D. Surgical intervention
40. The patient with chronic gastritis is being put on a combination of medications to eradicate H.Pylori. Which drugs does the nurse knows will be probably be used for his patient?
A. Antibiotic(s), antacids and corticosteroids
B. Antibiotic(s), aspirin and anti-ulcers/protectants
C. Antibiotic(s) and proton pump inhibitor
D. Antibiotic(s) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSDAIDs)
41. The nurse is teaching a patient how to prevent recurrent of chronic gastritis symptoms before discharge. Which statement by the patient demonstrates a correct understanding of the nurse instructions?
A. "It is okey to continue drinking coffee in the morning when I get to work."
B. "I will need to take vitamin B12 shots for the rest of my life."
C. "Ibuprofen should be taken."
D. "I should eat small meals about six times a day."
42. The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that this patient is risk for with vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
43. A client with gastritis asks the nurse about analgesics that will not cause epigastric distress. The nurse should tell the client that which medication is unlikely to cause epigastric distress?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Mefenamic Acid
C. Acetaminophen
D. Naproxen Sodium
44. Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of active pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Back pain
B. Fever and night sweats
C. Coughing
D. B & C
45. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum samples?
A. Chest biopsy
B. Chest X-ray
C. Gram stain
D. Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear microscopy
46. What is the primary medication used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Penicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Isoniazid
D. Cefixime
47. Which of the following is a common complication of untreated pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Atelectasis
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Meningitis
48. Which population group is at the highest risk of developing pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Young children
B. Elderly individuals
C. Healthcare workers
D. Immunocompromised individuals
49. Which public health measure is important for controlling the spread of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Routine vaccination
B. Contact tracing and isolation
C. Antibiotic prophylaxis
D. None of the above
50. Which complication can occur if acute tonsillopharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is left untreated?
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Pneumonia
C. Rheumatic fever
Acute Gastritis
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