Pyq's- micro (tess)
HIV Knowledge Quiz
Test your knowledge about HIV and its complexities with this comprehensive quiz designed for medical enthusiasts and healthcare professionals alike. Dive into questions covering the virus's biology, transmission, and treatment mechanisms.
Key Features:
- Learn about HIV's replication and immune response.
- Understanding ART and its significance in treating HIV.
- Explore the connection between HIV and opportunistic infections.
Which virus was an endemic in west africa with mild symptoms of AIDS?
HTLV-3
HIV-2
HIV-1
HTLV-1
Which cell does not get attacked and targeted by retrovirus ?
Nerve ganglia
Monocyte
CD-4 T-lymphocye
DC
Langerhans
Macrophages
which of the following proteins on HIV is important for budding of the virus ?
P24
P7
P17
Gp120
"RNA-protein complex" in HIV is enclosed by a capsid called :
NC
MA
P24
P17
ART (anti-retroviral therapy) targets all of these enzymes except:
Phospholipase
Integrase
Prostease
Reverse transcriptase
The role of gp120 in HIV replication:
Transport of RNA into host
Fusion of viral envelope to host's membrane
Adsorption of virus to host membrane
TRUE OR FALSE about HIV replication (adsorption- fusion - partial uncoating- viral transcription into linear ds-DNA - circular ds-DNA - pre integration complex- transported to nucleus and insertion -viral genome becomes "provirus" transcribed by host polymerase II into m-RNA - polyprotien - protease breaks it down to viral structural protiens- assembely - exit by buddyin - havign a lipid bilayer
True
False
Products of (env gene):
MA
CA
IN
SU & TM
All are correctly matched except:
Tat -- transcriptional activatior
Vif -- decreases viral infectivity in certain cells
Rev -- promtes transportation of unspliced m-RNA to cytoplasm
Nef -- down regulation of CD4+ and MHC I proteins & LATENCY
Vpu -- facilitates assembly and release HIV-2
The variation in HIV and the difficulty to make a vaccine is due to all except?
Due to vif protein
High error-prone reverse transcriptase
Variability in attachment protiens
Gp120 antigens variability
True or false-- the HIV continues to replicate even during the latent phase?
True
False
HIV is more common in homosexuals due to the fragility of rectal mucosa compared to the elastic vaginal mucosa (in normal intercourse):
True
False
The percentage of HCW with accidental neeedle transmision of HIV?
5%
Less than 1%
More than 1%
Risk of perinatal transmission of HIV without ART?
5-10%
50-60%
15-40%
Window period of HIV?
False positive result due to Ab's
False negative result due to Ab's
False negative result due to abscence of Ab's
How to quantify "viral load" ?
Pap smear
CT- sacn
Blood culture
PCR
RT-PCR
What is true about HAART ?
Slows down the progression without reduction of risk of transmission
Slows down the progression with reduction of risk of transmission
Doesn't slow down the progression but reduces the risk of transmission
What do we mean when we say a patient is an AIDS patient?
Negative HIV abs CD >200
Negative HIV abs CD >500
Positive HIV abs CD <200
Positive HIV abs CD <500
This a typical immune response to HIV, what is true about viremia?
Viremia increases in the chronic phase and drops at the end of it
Viremia increases in the acute phase and drops at the end of it
Death of CD4+ cells in the HIV immune respone is due to:
Lysis from viral replication
Death by CTL respone of immunity
Both
When do Ab's START to appear ?
At the beginning of acute phase
End of acute phase
1-10 years of infection
All are true about latent asymptomatic stage of HIV except?
Starts from 2 months - 1 year after infection
Fast depletion of CD4
Lasts from 8 months to 10 years
Stable viremia
FIRST cell to be infected in HIV?
NK cells
CD8+ cells
Liver cells
Vaginal langerhans
Reservoir of HIV in LATENCY ?
GALT
LN
Macrophages
All
Neurological symptoms of HIV such as loss of cognitive process typically STARTS to occurs at ancell count?
Less than 500
Less than 200
Less than 150
There is LATE polyclonal B cell activation spawned by infection in HIV?
True
False
Positive Ab's in phase II of HIV?
True
False
Opportunistic infection of mycobacterium tuberculosis happens at a cell count:
Less than 500
Less than 200
Opportunistic infection of mycobacterium avium & CMV happens at a cell count:
50-100
Less than 500
FIRST test applied to test HIV?
PCR
P24 Ag & anti- p24 Ab
Westren immunoblotting
ELISA
ROUTINELY confirmation (to make sure) of HIV:
PCR
EIA
Western immunoblotting
BEST test in window period?
RT-PCR
P24 Ag & anti- p24 Ab
Which drug for HIV inhibits reverse trancsrpitase?
Nelfanivir
RAL
Maraviroc
Didanosine
Which drug for HIV inhibits integrase?
Enfuvirtide
Stavudine
Raltegravir
All of the following are preventive action against HIV except?
Redeacuse sexual promiscity
Control drug abuse
Male circumcision
Wearing a mask (im out of options)
HAART is given with chemoprophylaxis aganist opportunistic infections in HIV?
True
False
What virus has creeping motion ?
Retrovirus
Herpesviridae
Lice
Which of the following is matched incorrectly :
Alpha -- HSV & VZV
Beta -- CMV, HHV6 HHV7
Gamma -- EBV & HSV1
Where does HSV1, HSV2 resides respectively ?
Vagal,trigeminal,inferior cervical root ganglia / sacral, dorsal root nerve ganglia
sacral, dorsal root nerve ganglia/ vagal,trigeminal, superior cervical root ganglia
Vagal,trigeminal, superior cervical root ganglia/sacral, dorsal root nerve ganglia
Kissing disease ?
CMV
HHV4 (EBV)
Reseola
Pateints with kaposi sarcoma have AIDS until proven otherwise:
True
False
HHV5 latent infection site ?
Nerve ganglia
B- lymphocyte
Monocyte & neutrophils
CD4+
All are transmitted through respiratory route except ?
HHV3
HHV6
HHV5
What is the tegument ?
Viral matrix with replication enzymes
Nuclear capsid with genetic material
TRUE OR FALSE about herpersvidea replication (adsorption- penetration & uncoating - phase I - phase II - phase III - assembly - exit by budding -travels to rER & Golgi to be expelled
True (you will pick true anws but this is to remind you)
False
Adsorption of HHV happens through binding of GP with ?
CD4
CCR5
CXCR4
Heparin sulfate
All are matched correctly except:
Phase I -- first set of proteins
Phase I -- alpha protiens
Phase III -- late set of protiens
Late proteins: viral capsid, tegument protiens & envelpoe GP
Phase II -- early set
Beta proteins: DNA binding protiens, viral DNA polmerase & thymidine kinase
Gamma proteins are early set
Death of host cell after expulsion of HHV is due to:
Beta herpesvirus complez
Alpha herpervirus comples
Alpha & gamma herperviruscomples
Antivirals ( acyclovir & gancilovir) :
Inhobits thymidine kinase
Inhibits protease
Has effect in late stage
Late stage of HSV lacks which protiens
Alpha protiens
Gamma protiens
Beta proteins
Sexual promiscuity is known risk factor for contracting MOSTLY:
EBV
HSV1
HSV2
HSV1 seropositive percentage in adult:
30%
90%
60%
HVS2 affects areas
Below waist
Above waist
Histological findings in herpes all are true excpet:
Focal necrosis
Cellular ballooning
PMN's
Monocytes
Mutlinucleated giant cells
Adipose deposit
Intitial symptomatic stage of herpes is less severe than the recurrent
True
False
ADCC role in herpes one is false:
Important in eradicating the virus in early stages
Important in limiting its early spreas
Desrtoys NK cells
MOST common -initial-manifestation in children with HSV1:
Encephalitis
Gingivitostomatitis
Blindness
What is hepatic whitlow:
Pain in the liver
Ulcers on the eyelid
Painful lesion on fingers
Late complication of using steroid with HSV1:
Gingivitis
Eye scaring
Blindness
All might occur in pts with HSV1 especially in children except
Encephlitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Gingivostomatitis
Gential ulcers
Primary incubation period of HSV2 :
10 days
1 week
2-3 days
5 days
The appearance of genital ulcers caused by HSV2:
Solitary unilateral
Multiple bilateral
HSV2 may infect a child in utero ?
False
True
Percentage of neonatal death due to necrosis of supra renal glands & liver from an infected mom with HSV2 is:
90%
10%
60%
How to prevent the child from getting infected from vaginal secretions with HSV2 during birth:
Abortion (no need for a child )
Cesarean section
Drugs
Reliable diagnostic tests for HSV, all are true except:
Tzank test
Pap smear + giemsa stain
ELISA
Immunofluresecne
PCR
Serology
Drug of choice of HSV:
Foscarent
Valacyclovir
Penciclovir
Acyclovir
Drug of choice for HSV but acyclovir -resistant ?
Penciclovir
Valacyclovir
Foscarent
HSV vaccine (it is not effectivet tho)
Glycoprotien D
MMR
IPV
Tdap
The most common viral STD:
HPV
Hepatitis B
HIV
Oropharyngeal carcinoma is:
10 times more common in female
4 times more common in men
3 times more common in men
HPV genotypes that cause dysplastic genitasl warts:
HPV 16
HPV 6, 11
HPV 56
Highest malignant poteintal:
HPV 11
HPV 6
HPV16
HPV infects which type of cells/tissue:
Connective tissue in GIT
Smooth muscles of perineum
Sqaumous- columnar epithelial junction in cervix
Harald Zur Hausen found that ___ HPV DNA was found in cervical cancer cases:
30%
65%
95%
10%
What causes condyloma accuminata (cauliflower-like):
HSV
HIV
HPV 16
HPV 11 , 6
Respiratory papillimtosis occur as a result of:
Pnemonia
T. pneomnia
HPV 16
HPV 6,11
HPV can be cultured in tissues and antibody tests:
True
False
What is the pathognomonic of HPV when done Pap smear:
Necrosis
Amyloid deposits
Koilocytosis
Good treatment methods for HPV are, except:
Freezing with nitorgen
Laser
Chemotherapy
Conization
Loop electrosurgical procedure
Radiation
Topical 5-fluorouracil
Incorrect vaccines matching:
Cervarix -- HPV 6, 18
Quadrivalent Gardasil -- HPV 6 , 11, 16 , 18
Ninevalent Gardasil --- 6, 11, 16, 18 , 31, 33, 45, 52, 58
Largest family of viruses:
Retrovirus
Poxivirdiae
Herpesviridae
Molluscum contagiosum, what kind on nodules & histologic appearance it does NOT form:
Yellowish - painless , firm nodules
Flesh colored (Red)
Cheesy painless nodules
umbilicated pearl like nodules
Eosinophilic material (molluscum bodies)
Best treatment of MCV :
Radiology
Freezing nitogen
Scarping of the pustules
Dimorphic cycle of chlamydia: (2 answers)
Psammoma bodies
Elementary bodies
Reticulate bodies
Brownish bodies
Patient had tiawan acute respiraroty agent, it is mostly by:
Chlamydia pneumoniae
NGU
Candidia
A-C serotypes cause which of the following complications:
Inclusion conjunctivitis
Trachoma (conjunctivitis)
Opthalmia nenonatorum
What MO is responsible for 50% of non- specific urethritis in MALES:
Mycoplasm
Gonorrheal infection
Chlamydia sterotype L1-L3
Chlamydia sterotype D-K
L1-L3 sterotype of chlamydia cause :
Epididymitis
Reiters syndrome
Neonatal atypical pneumonia
Lymphogranuloma venureum
What is the GOLD standard test for STD ( child abuse/ sexual assult) :
PCR
DFA
Tzanck test
McCoy cell culture
ELISA
BEST test (100%sensitivity and specificity) to detect chlamydia is:
McCoy culture
Pap smear
PCR
A male presented with small painless penile ulcer, when the doctor made a McCoy culture found that he has LGV - chlamydia positive, if not treated he will have complication. All are true excpet:
Painful inguinal/ femoral lymphadenopathy
Abscess formation in LN
Fluctant buboes
Sinus formation
Proctitis in homosexual
Adenocarcinoma
Frei - test, a skin test by the German dermatoligist -- Wilhelm Siegmund -- used to test to LGV . Not used anymore?
True
False
Treatment of chlamydia ?
Acyclovir
Mestronl
Retrodrine
Doxycycline for 3 weeks
Azithromycin for 2-5 days
What MO is resistant to lysozomes & CW synthesis inhibitors:
Chlamydia
Mycoplasm
TB
BEST primary isolated media for mycoplasm: (both are correct)
Animal blood serum with sterol
Strict anaerobic atompsphere
Which MO has a " Fried - egg appearance" on agar:
Salmonella
TB
Mycoplasm
BETTER drugs given for children& pregnant with mycoplasm all trues except:
Doxycycline
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycins
What do we add in mycoplams broth for further specimen culture ? ( 3 weeks- 37 c)
Penicilin
Glucose
Phenol
All
Infection with "mycoplasm hominis "during pregnancy can cause:
Ectopic pregnancy
Premature delivery
Miscarriage
Fever in newborns
All are correct
Infection with "ureaplasma urealyticum "during pregnancy can cause:
Low birth weight
Pnemonia
Septicemia
All
Infection with "ureaplasma urealyticum "in immunodeficiency can cause:
Suppurtive arthritis
Subcutaneous abscess
Persistent urethritis
Chronic cystitis
All
Difference in purulent urtheral discharge between gonnocooci and NGU ?
Thinner and less mucoid in NGU
Thicker and more mucoid in NGU
Thinner and more mucoid in NGU
All are possible causes of non-gonnococcal urethritits except:
C. trachomatis
U. urealytcium
Trichomnas vaginalis
Coliforms
Yest
GBS
All true
An example of a clinical presentation of a female with NGU -- acute urethral syndrom (cyctitis) + low number of bacteria.
True
Fales
Smears of specimens for NGU are:
Negative on gram stain
Positive on gram stain
BEST & FASTEST technique for NGU diagnosis is:
Sawbs for antigen detection
ELISA
IF
DNA probe & PCR
McCoy culture
Pelvic inflammatory disease affects:
1 in 100 sexually active female
1 in 50 sexually active males
1 in 50 sexually active female
Possible causes of PID:
STI's
IUCDs
Post partum infection
Normal vaginal flora in immunecompromised
Multiple pregnancy
Symptoms of PID, true excpet:
Fever
Cervical motion tenderness
Lower abdominal pain
Back pain
Dysparenia
Vaginal dischrge or bleeding
Large mass
Painless, fleshy highly vascularized rolled edges small ulcer with granulation and oozing + with no inguinal LAP is a clinical feature for:
Chancroid
Candidia
Trichomans vaginalis
Lice
Donovanosis (granuloma inguinale)
How to confirm the granuloma inguinale diagnosis:
Pap smear
IF
Biopsy ( donovan bodies in macrophages)
CT scan
What MO causes chancroid (soft sore):
Klebsiella
Chlamydia
Candida
Hemophilus ducreyi
"Shoals of fish "appearance seen in:
Protozoa
Carninoma
Chancroid
Myiasis
Soft chancre requires which of the following for grwoth ?
Sterol
Hemin GF-x
Glucose
Type of hemophilus ducreyi culture ?
Sabouraud dextrose
Anaerobic culture
Blood agar
Defibrinated rabbit blood
Chancroid clinical feature : (very important)
Painful non- indurated ragged- edges ulcer
yellow exudate
Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy ( present LAP)
Absecess formation
All.
Fungal media for candidia :
Sabouraud dextrose
Animal blood agar
Defibrinated rabbit blood
Difference effect of candidia in immunocompetent vs compromised, chose the incorrect match?
Competent: oropharyngeal, moniliasis & vulvu-vaginitis
Compromised: esophigitis, septicemia, liver abscess
Competent: oropharyngeal, moniliasis &pnemonia
All are most common predisposing factors for candida excpet:
DM
HIV
Chemotherapy
Steroids
Cardiac surgery
Obesity
Drug of choice for systemic candidasis ?
Local imidazole & miconazole
Clotrimazole
Fluconazole & itraconazole
Respectively, choose the correct answer about the 1st, 2nd & 3rd most common cause of vuvlvo- vaginitis ?
Trichomonas - bacterial vaginosis - candidia
Candida- trichomonas - bacterial vaginosis
Candida- bacterial vaginosis - trichomonas
True about trichomonas vaginalis:
Non motile flagellate
Vaginal arthropod
No cysts stage
Oval in shape
Thin foul- smelling yellow DC, is a clinical charactiristic for:
Donovonosis
Trichomoniasis
Bacterial vaginosis
Trichomonoiasis might be ass. with:
Pronlonged post partum fever & endometriosis
Premature rupture of membranes
Both
Culturing trichomonoasisi ?
Sabouraud dextrose
Blood culture
Liquid diamonds medium TYM
DOC for trichomonasis is:
Itraconzaloe
Imidazole
Amphetamine
Metronidazole
What is false about gardnerella vaginalis?
Yellow-grey, watery, non-inflammatory discharge no WBCs
Non-motile
Fishy-like smell = malodorous
PH => 4.5
Spore forming
Whiff test clinical test done by?
Smell is intensified by 20% KOH
Smell is decreeased by 10% MgOH
Smell is intensified by 10% KOH
Histological appearance in gardnerella vaginalis when doing " wet mount slide + gram stain"?
Psammoma bodies
Small blue cells
Clue cells
Mitotic bodies
DOC for gardnerella vaginalis? (IMOPRTANT)
Metronidazole for the pts only
Metronidazole for both partners
Fluconazole
Fluconazole for both partners
EGGS of myiasis invade orifices such as genitourinary tract to cause vulvar myiasis?
False
True
False about phthiraptera ( lice)
Wingless
Flat bodies
Very long legs
False about the cycle of lice?
Egg - nymph - larvea - adult
Egg - nymph - adult
Egg - wingless immature insect- adult
Treatment of lice?
Shaving
Personal hygiene
Carbaryl mutagenic
Malathion neurotoxic
Permethrin
All are true
Stages of sarcoptes scabiei ?
Egg- nymph - adult
Egg- larvae- nymph - adult
Egg- nymph - larvae - adult
Transmission of mite throught ?
Flying
Jumping
Crawling
Sites where mite like to stay all are true excpet
Fingers
Wrist
Breast
Armpit
Buttocks
Genitals
Mouth
Appearance of mite ?
Ulcers with pus
Mass
Hemorrage
Pimple rash
What is the MOST common complication of mite?
Scabies burrows
Impetgio
Psorasis
Norwegian scabies found in ?
Old
Disabled
Dementia
Ass. With psoriasis
Norwegian people :P
Dwon syndrome
Organ transplant
SLE
Features of the treatment of scabeis ?
Administered up to 3 days
Local malathoin
Permthrin cream
Apply on entire body
8-14 hours stays
Antihistamines to control itching
Ivermectin -- for norwegian scabeis
All are true
Axial filament is characteristic of which microorganism?
Treponema palleduim
Gonorreha
Myasis
A female patient came to the clinic suffering from the following symptoms : grayish vaginal,discharge with fishy order , itchiness in vagina , painful sensation during intercourse What is the suspected etiological agent :
Bacterial vaginlosis
Donovoanosis
Gardnerlla Vaginalis
Which of the following isn’t a bacterial sexually transmitted disease
Chlamydia
Molluscum Contagiosum (MCV)
Mycoplasm
The Tzanck test is NOT used on which of the following viruses ( idk why)
HHV8
HHV1
Latency of CMV virus is in?
Monocytes
Nerve ganglia
Plasma cells
Virus capsid antigen ,early antigen and nuclear antigens are used for specific identification :
CMV
EBV
HSP
What features of Candidia albicans facilitates its infection& invading: (not sure)
Pseudo hyphae
Biofilm formation
Nits is always associated with infection with ?
Musca domestica
Phthirus pubis
Yeast vaginitis
All of the following are true about Chlamydia except ?
It is macrolide sensitive
It is an obligate intracellular microorganism
It has no cell wall
Which of the following is matched to its test?
Gonorrhea – Serology
Trichomonas --- TYM
LGV --- Whiff test
Which of the following describes the genital warts caused by Human Papilloma Virus?
It is associated with a red-erythematous base
It progresses into ulcer
It has a soft, fleshy cauliflower appearance
Regarding HPV, all are correct except?
It's an RNA virus
Infects squamous columnar epithelium
All of the following are risk factor of HPV except:
Ciggarette smoking
Multiple partner
Early intercourse
Low social economic status
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