HBB Study 100 Questions | Week 1 - 10
HBB Study Challenge: Master Anatomical Knowledge
Welcome to the HBB Study Challenge! This quiz consists of 99 carefully crafted questions designed to test your understanding of human anatomy and physiology. Whether you are a student, teacher, or simply a health enthusiast, this quiz offers a great way to consolidate your learning and assess your knowledge.
Key Features:
- 99 multiple-choice questions
- Detailed anatomical references
- Immediate feedback on your answers
Which anatomical plane divides the body superiorly and inferiorly?
Sagittal
Parasagittal
Transverse
Coronal
Which is the correct anatomical term for 'front'?
Posterior
This means away from the midline of the body.
Anterior
Superficial
Which of the following is comprised of connective tissue?
Plasma membrane
Bone
Brain
Skeletal Muscle
Which of the following best describes the anatomical position of reference?
Lying on stomach (prone), palms on floor, head to the right side
Standing upright, facing forward, palms facing backward, arms outstretched
Standing upright, facing forward, palms facing forward, arms by your side
Lying on back, looking at ceiling, palms facing up
True or false: blood is a type of connective tissue
True
False
The parietal pericardium lines the _______________.
Thoracic wall
Pericardial wall
Lungs
Cranial cavity
The term 'viscera' refers to which structure?
Blood
Skin
Stomach
Hair
Osteocytes, chondrocytes and leukocytes are all examples of:
Nerve cells
Specialised cells
Fibres
Extracellular Matrix
Tissue that is dense absorbs more x-rays than other tissue. Which of the following would show up whiter on an x-ray film?
Bone
Adipose tissue
Blood
The liver
True or false: ultrasound uses light waves to produce images.
True
False
True or false: the skull bones and the clavicles are the only bones that form by intramembranous ossification.
True
False
What makes up the axial skeleton?
Shoulder and pelvic girdles
the skull, vertebral column and pelvis
The skull, vertebral column and rib cage
Arms, legs, hands and feet
Which of the following synovial joints is capable of multi-axial movement?
Shoulder
Radioulnar
Interphalangeal
Metacarpophalangeal
Which of the following contribute to joint stability?
All of the above
Position and tension of muscles
Position and tension of ligaments
Joint congruence
Which of the following joint classifications is a non-axial joint?
Ball and socket
Fixed
Gliding
Hinge
In symphysis (or secondary cartilaginous) joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ______________.
Tendon sheaths
Synovial membranes
Fibrocartilage
Hyaline cartilage
What is the name of the region of the lower limb that lies distal to the knee and proximal to the foot?
Thigh
Foreleg
Leg
Calf
What shape of bone are the distal phalanges?
Long
Flat
Short
Irregular
Which structures would you expect to find at a synovial joint?
All of the above
All of the above Correct
Synovial fluid
Articular (hyaline) cartilage on articulating bone ends
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
The length
The shape
The number of neurons innervating it
The total number of muscle cells available for contraction
The gluteus maximus is the most powerful muscle during _______________.
Lateral rotation
Hip flexion
Hip extension
Medial rotation
The deltoid muscle fibres are separated into _____________.
Lateral, medial and proximal
Superficial and deep
Superior, middle and inferior
Anterior, middle and posterior
The middle fibres of the deltoid muscle ________________.
Bend the knee
Abduct the arm
Laterally rotate the arm
Medially rotate the arm
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
Motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
Neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
Neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
Muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
Which of the following muscles is named for its action?
Biceps brachii
Gluteus minimus
Frontalis
Levator labii superioris
Which muscle characteristic describes the ability of muscle to respond to a stimulus?
Elasticity
Extensibility
Excitability
Contractility
Muscle tone is ____________________.
A state of sustained partial contraction
The condition of athletes after intensive training
The ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
The feeling of well-being following exercise
Which of the following is a connective tissue sheath that wraps individual muscle fibres?
Endomysium
Tendon
Perimysium
Periosteum
A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a( n ) _______________.
Agonist
Fixator
Anatagonist
Synergist
Peripheral nerves may divide into four different types of branches depending on what structures they are innervating. Which branch will carry GSE fibres to skeletal muscle?
Articular branch
Vascular branch
Cutaneous branch
Muscular branch
Which of the following allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles?
The somatic division of the peripheral nervous system
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
The afferent division of the nervous system
Which of the choices below describes the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
Sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS
Sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
Motor fibres that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Motor fibres that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
Components of the peripheral nervous system include:
Spinal nerves and cranial nerves
The spinal cord, cranial nerves and peripheral nerves
The spinal cord and peripheral nerves that supply the limbs
The brain and spinal cord
GSE neurons are structurally classified as:
Multipolar
Nonpolar
Unipolar
Biploar
A post-ganglionic sympathetic neuron is functionally classified as:
GVE
GSE
GVA
GSA
The cells that surround an axon, creating a myelin sheath in the PNS are called ________________.
Oligodendrocytes
Neurofibrils
Schwann cells
Ganglia
Which of the following is true of axons?
Smaller (thinner) axons are more likely to bear myelin sheaths than larger (thicker) axons.
A neuron can have only one axon, but the axon may have occasional branches along its length
Neurons can have multiple axons but only one dendrite.
Axons use chemically gated ion channels to generate graded potentials.
Clusters of cell bodies located outside of the CNS are called _____________.
Ganglia
Neurilemma
Nuclei
Neuroglia
Which criterion is used to functionally classify neurons?
The direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system
Whether the nerve fibres are myelinated or unmyelinated
The number of processes extending from the cell body neuron
Whether the neurons are found within the CNS or the PNS
What is the name of the most superficial layer of the meninges?
Outer mater
Pia mater
Arachnoid mater
Dura mater
What is the difference between grey and white matter in the CNS?
Grey matter consists of neural cell bodies, white matter consists of unmyelinated axons
Grey matter consists of neural cell bodies, white matter consists of myelinated axons
Grey matter consists of myelinated axons, white matter consists of neural cell bodies
Grey matter consists of unmyelinated axons, white matter consists of neural cell bodies
Receiving sensory information from somatic structures of the body is the primary function of which lobe of the brain?
Temporal lobe
Parietal lobe
Frontal lobe
Occipital lobe
Which areas of the body have the highest proportion designated to them in the primary motor cortex?
Hip and trunk
Hands and face
Thighs and legs
Arms and forearms
True or False: Spinal nerves are part of the central nervous system
True
False
What is the name of the anterior portion of grey matter in the spinal cord?
Ventral root
Ventral horn
Dorsal horn
Lateral horn
Motor information travelling in the Corticospinal pathway will descend down the spinal cord in which area of the white matter?
Dorsal column
Lateral horn
Lateral corticospinal tract
Lateral spinothalamic tract
True or False: Pain information travels to the primary somatosensory cortex via the Spinothalamic pathway
True
False
At which level does information travelling via the Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscal decussate (cross the midline)?
Thalamus
At the level that the information enters the spinal cord
Medulla of the brainstem
Dorsal Root Ganglion
Which of the following sensory modalities will travel in the Lateral Spinothalamic pathway?
Pain and temperature
Pain and vibration
Temperature and proprioception
Touch and vibration
What is the name given to an area of skin innervated by nerve fibres derived from a single spinal segment?
Dermatome
Dermis
Spinal skin segment
Myotome
Which of the following nerve fibre type would NOT be found in the muscular branch of a peripheral nerve?
GSE
GSA
GVA
GVE
Which primary ramus will contribute to a nerve plexus?
Ventral (anterior)
Dorsal (posterior)
Lateral
Medial
A nerve may transmit impulses in multiple directions
True
False
The Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) is a sensory only nerve
True
False
In regards to the stretch reflex, what is the final result of the reflex?
Relaxation of the stretched muscle
Dilating the pupil
Contraction of the stretched muscle
Removal of a limb from a threatening stimulus
A peripheral nerve is ________________.
A bundle of nerve fibres (axons)
A layer of connective tissue around the outside of individual axons
A layer of connective tissue around the outside of individual axons
A collection of cell bodies outside the central nervous system
What is the name of the layer of connective tissue that wraps around fascicles in a nerve?
Epineurium
Perimysium
Endoneurium
Perineurium
The biceps brachii muscle produces flexion, and therefore must recieve it's neural supply from a peripheral nerve derived from which divisions of ventral primary rami?
Distal
Caudal
Anterior
Posterior
The dorsal primary ramus will innervate __________
Head and neck
Back and Abdomen
Structures of the back only
Anterior trunk and limbs
Which division of the nervous system has short preganglionic neurons?
Sympathetic
Somatic motor
Parasympathetitc
Somatic sensory
Which autonomic neurons release norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter?
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons
Sympathetic postganglionic neurons
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons
Which component of the ANS is characterised by ganglia located on or near effector organs?
Parasympathetic division
Sympathetic division
Somatic division
Parasympathetic functions include ____________.
Lens accomodation for close vision
Allowing the body to cope with an external threat
Mobilising stored energy sources
Increased stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
Autonomic ganglia contain _________________.
An outer connective tissue capsule around a preganglionic motor neuron
Both somatic afferent and efferent neurons
The cell bodies of post-ganglionic motor neurons
Synapses between postganglionic fibres and their effectors
Which of the following organs receives major input from the sympathetic, but not parasympathetic, division?
Salivary glands
Skin (blood vessels, arrector pili, sweat glands).
Heart
Bladder
The circular structures shown within both pathways B and C represent which of the following?
Ganglia
Nuclei
Tracts
Rami
The diagram below shows a single spinal segment and associated peripheral structures. On this diagram, which of the labelled structures carries non-myelinated GVE fibres?
A
B
C
D
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
Vestibulocochlear
Abducens
Trigeminal
Accessory
Which of the following cranial nerves carries only sensory information?
Olfactory
Trigeminal
Vagus
Oculomotor
Name the bone marking identified by the letter D.
Intervertebral foramen
Vertebral foramen
Transverse foramen
Foramen magnum
Identify the bone marking identified by the letter B.
pedicle
Superior spinous process
Transverse process
Lamina
What is the major function of the intervertebral discs?
Prevent hyperextension of the spine
To string the vertebrae together
Absorb shock
Form a synovial joint between adjacent vertebrae
Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae?
Flexion and extension
Supination
Lateral flexion
Rotation
These bones have articular facets for the ribs
Lumbar
Thoracic
Cervical
Atlas and axis
These vertebrae have a bifid spinous process and transverse foramina
Thoracic
Cervical
Lumbar
Sacral
Name the two primary curvatures of the spine.
Cervical and thoracic
Thoracic and sacral
Lumbar and sacral
Cervical and lumbar
Which of the following is NOT a layer of the trilaminar embryo?
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm
Sclerotome
The erector spinae muscle group produces flexion of the vertebral column.
True
False
For the following question, there may be more than one correct answer. Select the correct answers and then select the correct response. The sternocleidomastoid muscle:
W: is an extensor of the vertebral column.
X: originates on the sternum and clavicle and inserts on to the mastoid process and bones of the skull.
Y: originates on the mastoid process and bones of the skull and inserts on to the sternum and clavicle.
Z: has anterior (or lower) fibres that flex the cervical vertebral column.
A. If all are correct
B. if W and Y are correct
C. if X and Z are correct
D. if W, X and Y are correct
E. If only Z is correct
What is the clinical advantage of having separate subdivisions in the thoracic cavity?
Because the heart directs airflow
Because air from each lung is carried to a different part of the body
There is no advantage
It minimises the spread of infection
The cardiac veins merge to form the ____________________, which drains into the right
Great cardiac vein
Posterior cardiac vein
Coronary sinus
Middle cardiac vein
Why can't the oesophagus be palpated?
Because it sits behind the trachea
Because it's located behind the vertebral column
Because it's entirely enclosed by the thoracic cage
None of the above
Blood returning from the body will enter the __________________ side of the heart, whereas blood returning from the lungs will enter the ___________________ side of the heart.
Left / right
Left / superior
Right / superior
Right / left
Why are ribs 8-10 termed 'false ribs'?
They aren't present in some people
They don't attach directly to the sternum, their costal cartilages blend with the 7th costal cartilage
They don't connect to the sternum at all
They're not actually ribs
True or False: The fibrous pericardium anchors the lungs and prevents them from overfilling.
True
False
Which of the following structures help form the superior thoracic aperture/opening?
1st ribs
T1 vertebral body
Manubrium
All of the options
True or False: The pleura covers the heart whereas the pericardium covers the lungs
True
False
In relation to surface anatomy landmarks, where is the apex of the heart typically found?
None of the options
At the left 5th or 6th intercostal space, one finger from sternum
At the left midclavicular line at the 8th rib
At the 3rd - 6th costal cartilages on the right of the sternum
Which of the following structures will pass through the diaphragm?
Carotid arteries
Trachea
Superior vena cava
Oesophagus
Which mesentery helps tether the stomach to the liver?
Lesser omentum
Greater omentum
Fundus
Pylorus
In which quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located?
Right lower quadrant
Right upper quadrant
Left lower quadrant
Left upper quadrant
The __________ is the last segment of the small intestine.
Colon
Ileum
Duodenum
Jejunum
The __________ is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity body wall.
Omenta
Visceral peritoneum
Parietal peritoneum
Mesentary
In which quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity is the liver located?
Left upper quadrant
Left lower quadrant
Right lower quadrant
Right upper quadrant
Select the retroperitoneal organ:
Bladder
Uterus
Stomach
Kidney
True or false: the musculoskeletal wall of the thoracic cavity facilitates growth of the fetus during pregnancy.
True
False
The parietal peritoneum has which nerve supply?
Embryonic nerve supply
Somatic nerve supply
Visceral nerve supply
Parietal nerve supply
All arteries supplying blood to the abdominopelvic cavity branch from which blood vessel?
Abdominal aorta
Inferior vena cava
Hepatic portal vein
Thoracic aorta
Venous blood collected from the stomach and intestine is transported to the liver by which vein?
Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
Abdominal vein
Hepatic portal vein
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