Residency Forum Post Quiz
1. In the past decade there has been a decrease in the number of veterans who received care secondary to an amputation.
True
False
2. Methods of Rhythmic Auditory Stimulation (RAS) include all of the following except:
Metronome
Silent vibrations
Clapping
Drums
3. What should occur on the beat when using Rhythmic Auditory Stimulation (RAS) training:
Toe off
Midstance
Heel strike
Terminal swing
4. A likely gait impairment that is often seen in the beginning phases of gait training a patient with a transtibial amputation may be:
There is never a gait impairment observed in the beginning phases of gait training a patient with a transtibial amputation.
Increased Prosthetic limb stance time compared to the sound limb
Increased Sound limb swing phase compared to prosthetic limb
Decreased Prosthetic limb stance time compared to the sound side
5. Benefits of perform Rhythmic Auditory Stimulation (RAS) gait training is:
Cost effective
Easy and safe to implement into an HEP
Requires little equipment
All of the above
6. What is NOT a strategy to facilitate lasting change at the institutional level?
Integrating education into new employee orientation
Telling therapists they’re wrong and need to follow directions
Scheduling serial staff in-services to provide education and strategies to implement new research in the clinic
Identifying project leaders and meeting regularly to advance project goals
7. Which of the following is a common barrier to implementing new evidence in the clinic?
Workflow changes
Clinician beliefs
Lack of supervisor support
Equipment needs
All of the above are potential barriers to implementing practice change.
8. Conventional neuro rehabilitation is consistent with the recommended action statements of the 2020 locomotor clinical practice guideline.
True
False
9. The Knowledge-to-Action Cycle encourages revisiting barriers and solutions when success is not initially achieved.
True
False
10. Usually one or two educational sessions are adequate to change clinical practice.
True
False
11. CRPS type II involves documented nerve damage through nerve conduction testing
True
False
12. CRPS does not contain an autonomic component of symptoms
True
False
13. Most cases of CRPS do not resolve over the course of an individual’s lifetime
True
False
14. How many depressive symptoms does a patient need to be considered to have MDD based on the DSM 5?
3
5
4
6
15. Physical therapists can provide greater quality care to patients suffering from incorporating a biopsychosocial focused interventions than through supervised exercise.
True
False
16. A patient with chronic low back pain and a comorbidity of MDD ents to your clinic for their first follow-up appointment. The patient reports having difficulty with adhering to their home exercise program because they have been too fatigued. Additionally, they tell you that had they been more interested in the exercises they may have engaged. You suspect that improving their compliance to regular exercise will improve their outcomes within their individual plan of care. Which of the following would be the best modification to their home exercise program given the above information?
Reducing the overall volume per session
Reducing the overall intensity per session
Continue with previous recommendation
Value Based Activity
17. Nerves adjacent to the oral cavity are subject to potential injury during oral and maxillofacial procedures. Which of these nerves is least likely to be implicated after a buccal graft procedure?
Lingual Nerve
Inferior alveolar nerve
Buccal Nerve (Trigeminal origin)
Marginal Mandibular Nerve
18. Evidence supports the use of xenograft-assisted closure over traditional closure or non-closure for buccal graft procedures to reduce the incidence of long-term adverse oral function outcomes.
True
False
19. Which drug classes are generally not effective in symptom management of trigeminal neuralgia?
Anti-convulsants
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
Muscle relaxants
Tricyclic antidepressants
20. Thoracic outlet has the highest incidence of treatment in collegiate athletes.
True
False
21. Thoracic outlet syndrome can present with or without trauma.
True
False
22. Vascular thoracic outlet is able to be treated and improved through physical therapy to reduce symptoms and return to function.
True
False
23. Thoracic outlet syndrome can present with all of the following symptoms except:
Pain
Numbness
Heaviness
Edema
All of the above are true
24. What are the 3 components of the Short Physical Performance Battery?
Gait Speed, 2MWT, Balance
Balance, Gait Speed, Chair Stand Test
Gait Speed, Chair Stand Test, TUG
TUG, 2MWT, 30 Second Sit to Stand
25. Falls are a normal part of aging.
True
False
26. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with CHF?
76-year-old male with CAD, HTN, HLD, B LE edema, and DM2
54-year-old female with a left AKA and DM2
33-year-old male with 10+ smoking history
62-year-old female with family history of CAD and HTN
27. Hip fractures are the leading cause of morbidity in individuals >65 years and older.
True
False
28. Should you always take vitals?
True
False
29. What is a benefit of having PTs in the primary care setting?
Decreased wait time to see a PT
Improved outcomes for veteran musculoskeletal management
Increased PT productivity
Decreased referrals to specialty providers
Decreased imaging orders
All of the above
30. Orthopedic resident exposure to different settings improve clinical skills.
True
False
31. What is the MDC for the Lower Extremity Functional Score (PROM) in populations with Anterior Knee Pain?
8 points
9 points
10 points
12 points
32. Patient reports their knee is sore However the pain resolves after the warm-up. Mid- session the pain flares again. What should you do next?
Take 1 day off and pick up where you left off
Take 2 days off and pick up where you left off
Take 2 days off and advance one level
Take 2 days off, drop down 1 level
33. Despite conservative effort, your patient is struggling to progress and decides to pursue a meniscal repair. What precautions do you expect after their isolated meniscus repair?
No loaded knee flexion past 45° for 4 weeks; No loaded knee flexion beyond 90° for 8 weeks
No loaded knee flexion past 90° for 4 weeks; No loaded knee flexion beyond 90° for 8 weeks
No loaded knee flexion past 45° for 8 weeks; No loaded knee flexion beyond 90° for 12 weeks
No loaded knee flexion past 90° for 8 weeks; No loaded knee flexion beyond 90° for 12 weeks
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