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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

HIPAA Exam Practice Quiz: Test Your Compliance Knowledge

Test yourself with HIPAA test questions and answers and see how you score!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for HIPAA knowledge quiz on teal background

Use this free HIPAA exam practice test to prepare for the real thing, check gaps, and build confidence. You'll answer exam-style scenarios on breaches, patient data, and security, with instant feedback. Start this quiz or try another set to keep practicing.

What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
Healthcare Information Protection and Accessibility Act
Health Industry Portability and Access Act
Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
HIPAA stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Enacted in 1996, it sets national standards to protect individuals’ medical records and other personal health information. The Act ensures health insurance portability and holds entities accountable for data privacy and security. .
Which of the following is considered Protected Health Information (PHI) under HIPAA?
Use of a general health disclaimer
Provider’s business address
Patient age only
Social Security number
PHI includes identifiers that can link health information to a specific person, such as a Social Security number. Patient age by itself without other identifiers is not unique PHI, and general disclaimers or business addresses alone do not convey health details. The Privacy Rule details the 18 identifiers that turn data into PHI. .
Under HIPAA, who is primarily responsible for overseeing privacy compliance within a covered entity?
Chief Financial Officer
IT Support Staff
Privacy Officer
Medical Director
HIPAA requires covered entities to designate a Privacy Officer to develop and implement privacy policies and procedures. This role ensures the organization complies with the Privacy Rule and addresses patient inquiries. Other executives support compliance but the Privacy Officer holds primary responsibility. .
Which of the following is NOT a covered entity under HIPAA?
Healthcare provider
Healthcare clearinghouse
Business associate
Health plan
Covered entities are health plans, healthcare providers, and healthcare clearinghouses. Business associates perform functions on behalf of covered entities and must comply via a contract but are not themselves covered entities. They must sign Business Associate Agreements to follow HIPAA requirements. .
What primary rule under HIPAA regulates individuals’ rights to access and control their health information?
Breach Notification Rule
Enforcement Rule
Privacy Rule
Security Rule
The HIPAA Privacy Rule establishes standards for patients’ rights to access, amend, and control disclosures of their PHI. It governs how covered entities may use and disclose health information. Other rules focus on safeguarding ePHI, breach reporting, or enforcement. .
The “minimum necessary” standard requires covered entities to do what?
Obtain written authorization for all disclosures
Always delete old records
Store data indefinitely
Limit uses and disclosures to the minimum necessary to accomplish the intended purpose
The minimum necessary standard requires covered entities to restrict PHI use and disclosure to the least amount needed for a specific purpose. It does not mandate deletion of records or blanket authorizations. It ensures data sharing is tightly controlled. .
A business associate is best described as:
A patient who accesses their own records
A person or organization that performs functions involving PHI on behalf of a covered entity
An employee within the covered entity handling PHI
A medical equipment vendor with no PHI access
A business associate performs activities involving PHI on behalf of a covered entity, such as billing, legal, or IT services. Internal employees are part of the covered entity, not business associates. Vendors without PHI access do not qualify. Business associates must sign a HIPAA-compliant agreement. .
Which of the following is an example of de-identified health information?
A doctor’s handwritten notes with patient initials
A patient's email including name
A record containing full birth date
A dataset with all 18 HIPAA identifiers removed
De-identified information has all 18 HIPAA identifiers removed or anonymized so re-identification risk is very low. Including names, initials, or dates would still constitute PHI. Proper de-identification follows either the Safe Harbor or Expert Determination method. .
Which HIPAA rule focuses specifically on safeguarding electronic Protected Health Information (ePHI)?
Breach Notification Rule
Privacy Rule
Security Rule
Enforcement Rule
The HIPAA Security Rule specifically addresses the protection of ePHI through administrative, physical, and technical safeguards. It complements the Privacy Rule, which covers all forms of PHI. Breach Notification and Enforcement Rules serve other functions. .
Within HIPAA’s Breach Notification Rule, covered entities must notify affected individuals no later than how many days after discovery of a breach?
60 days
90 days
120 days
30 days
The Breach Notification Rule requires covered entities to notify affected individuals within 60 calendar days of discovering a breach of unsecured PHI. Failure to do so may result in enforcement actions. Smaller breaches have specific reporting pathways, but the 60-day rule applies broadly. .
Which of the following is an addressable specification under the HIPAA Security Rule?
Providing patients access to their records
Conducting a sanction policy
Appointing a privacy officer
Encryption of ePHI at rest
Encryption of ePHI at rest is an addressable specification, meaning covered entities must assess whether encryption is reasonable and implement it if appropriate. Appointing a privacy officer and sanction policies are Administrative safeguards. Patient access is a Privacy Rule requirement. .
The HIPAA Security Rule requires covered entities to implement security measures in three categories. Which is NOT one of those categories?
Physical safeguards
Administrative safeguards
Financial safeguards
Technical safeguards
The Security Rule outlines Administrative, Physical, and Technical safeguards to protect ePHI. Financial safeguards are not a category under HIPAA. Each safeguard category has required and addressable standards to ensure compliance. .
According to HIPAA, how long must covered entities retain most policies and documentation?
Ten years
Six years
Indefinitely
Three years
HIPAA requires covered entities to retain policies, procedures, and required documentation for six years from the date of creation or last effective date. This ensures records are available for audits and enforcement. State laws may demand longer retention. .
What is the maximum civil penalty per violation (for non-willful neglect) under the HIPAA Enforcement Rule?
$100,000
$50,000
$5,000
$500
For non-willful neglect, the Enforcement Rule sets a civil monetary penalty up to $50,000 per violation, with an annual maximum per category of $1.5 million. Willful neglect carries higher penalties. These fines are adjusted annually for inflation. .
Which legislation strengthened HIPAA’s privacy and security provisions by promoting health information technology?
HITECH Act
Dodd-Frank Act
Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Affordable Care Act
The HITECH Act of 2009 enhanced HIPAA privacy and security rules to encourage adoption of electronic health records and stricter breach notification. It expanded enforcement provisions and Business Associate responsibilities. Other listed acts focus on different sectors. .
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, patients have the right to request which of the following?
Immediate access to another patient’s records
Public release of treatment details
An accounting of disclosures of their PHI
Unlimited free copies of records
The Privacy Rule gives individuals the right to request an accounting of disclosures, showing who received their PHI over the past six years. Charges may apply for copies, but they cannot be unlimited and free in all cases. Patients cannot access others’ records, and public release requires separate authorizations. .
What type of analysis is required by the HIPAA Security Rule to identify risks to ePHI?
Financial impact analysis
Market analysis
Risk analysis
Peer review analysis
The Security Rule mandates a formal risk analysis to identify and assess potential risks to the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of ePHI. This process drives the selection of appropriate safeguards. It is foundational to developing a risk management plan. .
If a breach affects more than 500 individuals, which entity must a covered entity notify in addition to the individuals?
Secretary of HHS
Local law enforcement
Office of Medicare Services
State licensing board
For breaches affecting 500 or more individuals, the covered entity must notify the HHS Secretary without unreasonable delay and no later than 60 days after discovery. This ensures federal oversight and public awareness. State boards and law enforcement are not HIPAA notification recipients. .
Under HIPAA, business associates must report all breaches to the covered entity within what timeframe after discovery?
30 days
90 days
60 days
24 hours
Business associates must notify the covered entity of any breach of unsecured PHI they discover, without unreasonable delay and no later than 60 days after discovery. The covered entity then manages the formal notification process. Timely reporting by business associates is crucial for compliance. .
Which encryption standard is explicitly referenced in NIST guidelines adopted by HIPAA for protecting ePHI?
DES
RSA-512
AES under FIPS 140-2
MD5 hashing
HIPAA references NIST guidance which endorses AES encryption validated under FIPS 140-2 for strong protection of ePHI. Older algorithms like DES or MD5 do not meet current standards. AES provides scalable, approved security levels. .
The HIPAA Privacy Rule allows covered entities to disclose PHI to public health authorities without patient authorization. True or False?
True
False
The Privacy Rule permits disclosure of PHI without individual authorization for public health activities, including disease reporting and surveillance. This exception ensures timely intervention in public health emergencies. It is explicitly authorized under 45 CFR §164.512(b). .
What is the primary purpose of an accounting of disclosures under HIPAA?
To schedule patient appointments
To track inventory of medical supplies
To inform individuals about who accessed or received their PHI
To bill insurance companies for services
An accounting of disclosures provides individuals with a record of when and to whom their PHI was disclosed, except for certain permitted disclosures. This enhances transparency and trust in healthcare practices. It must cover the past six years of disclosures. .
Which of the following elements is NOT required in a HIPAA-compliant privacy policy?
Dress code for staff
Patient rights information
Privacy officer contact
Complaint procedures
A HIPAA-compliant privacy policy must include patient rights, complaint procedures, and privacy officer contact information. Staff dress codes are not related to PHI protection and therefore are not required. Policies must focus strictly on privacy and security obligations. .
Which scenario most likely represents a HIPAA violation requiring immediate corrective action?
Sending PHI via unencrypted personal email
Scheduling appointments in a secure portal
Using unique user IDs for system access
Printing PHI in a locked cabinet
Transmitting PHI over unencrypted personal email violates the Security Rule’s technical safeguards requiring encryption where appropriate. Secure portals and locked storage comply with safeguards, and unique user IDs enhance audit controls. Immediate corrective action is needed to secure the email channel. .
When applying the expert determination method for de-identification, which requirement must an expert meet according to HIPAA?
Store the data indefinitely
Document the statistical methods and results that justify minimal risk of re-identification
Obtain patient authorization for every dataset
Retain personal identifiers for audit purposes
Under the expert determination method, a qualified expert must apply statistical or scientific principles and document their analysis showing the risk of re-identification is very small. Patient authorization, indefinite storage, or retaining identifiers contradict de-identification objectives. Proper documentation is essential for compliance. .
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand HIPAA Exam Format -

    Get familiar with hipaa exam question types, timing, and scoring details to navigate the practice test more effectively.

  2. Identify Protected Health Information (PHI) Categories -

    Learn to recognize various forms of PHI in hipaa test questions and answers, ensuring accurate classification in compliance scenarios.

  3. Apply HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules -

    Practice implementing key privacy and security provisions to handle sensitive health data and maintain regulatory compliance under realistic conditions.

  4. Analyze Real-World Compliance Scenarios -

    Break down scenario-based questions to pinpoint potential violations and understand the appropriate corrective actions in a healthcare context.

  5. Evaluate Answer Explanations and Rationale -

    Review detailed rationales for correct and incorrect responses to strengthen your grasp of hipaa test and answers logic.

  6. Boost Exam Readiness and Confidence -

    Use timed practice and targeted feedback to identify knowledge gaps and build the confidence needed to ace your official hipaa exam.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Privacy Rule Foundations -

    Understanding the core principles of the HIPAA Privacy Rule is crucial for the hipaa exam because it sets the baseline for protecting patient information. This rule outlines rights for individuals and obligations for covered entities regarding use and disclosure of PHI. Remember: "Patients Possess their PHI," a simple mnemonic to recall patient rights over their Personal Health Information (source: HHS.gov).

  2. Security Rule Triad: CIA -

    The HIPAA Security Rule focuses on three pillars: Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability (CIA triad). A handy trick is to imagine a secure vault that locks (confidentiality), verifies contents aren't tampered with (integrity), and ensures you can access records when needed (availability). Reviewing NIST guidelines will deepen your grasp of specific technical safeguards (source: NIST Special Publication 800-66).

  3. Minimum Necessary Standard -

    HIPAA's minimum necessary standard ensures that only the least amount of PHI needed for a task is used or disclosed, minimizing risk. In hipaa test scenarios, always ask "who, what, why, and when" to confirm each request meets this threshold. Applying this principle helps you swiftly evaluate compliance in real-world cases (source: AMA Journal of Ethics).

  4. Breach Notification Requirements -

    Under the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, covered entities must notify affected individuals within 60 calendar days of discovering a breach. Large breaches (>500 individuals) also require media and HHS notification, reinforcing accountability. A timeline chart can be an effective study aid for testing your knowledge on deadlines (source: HHS.gov).

  5. Enforcement & Penalty Tiers -

    The Office for Civil Rights (OCR) enforces HIPAA with tiered penalties based on the level of culpability, ranging from $100 to $50,000 per violation. Familiarize yourself with categories - from unknowing violations to willful neglect - to handle hypothetical scenarios in hipaa test questions and answers. A comparison table of penalty tiers is a quick reference when reviewing real-world compliance cases (source: HITECH Act).

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