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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Ready for Your Radiology Practice Exam? Take the Quiz!

Challenge your skills with our radiology exam practice test - Think you can ace it?

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper cut radiology icons, test questions, pencil, stethoscope, quiz graphic on dark blue background

This Radiology Practice Exam helps you practice image interpretation, core physics, and patient safety so you can find gaps before the exam. Work through realistic cases and multiple-choice items, see what you missed, and learn why. When you're done, try more practice questions .

Which of the following imaging modalities uses ionizing radiation?
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Ultrasound
Computed Tomography (CT)
Computed Tomography (CT) uses X-ray beams to generate cross-sectional images and thus employs ionizing radiation. MRI uses magnetic fields and radiofrequency pulses which are non-ionizing. Ultrasound uses high-frequency sound waves and is also non-ionizing.
What is the SI unit of absorbed radiation dose?
Coulomb per kilogram (C/kg)
Roentgen (R)
Sievert (Sv)
Gray (Gy)
The Gray (Gy) is the SI unit of absorbed dose and represents the absorption of one joule of radiation energy per kilogram of matter. The Sievert accounts for biological effect rather than pure energy absorption. The Roentgen and Coulomb per kilogram measure exposure rather than absorbed dose.
What is the standard abbreviation for a chest X-ray projection where the X-ray beam passes from the posterior to the anterior of the patient?
LL (laterolateral)
PA (posteroanterior)
RL (right lateral)
AP (anteroposterior)
A PA (posteroanterior) chest X-ray projection sends the beam from the back (posterior) to the front (anterior) of the patient. This view reduces magnification of the heart compared to an AP projection. It is the standard technique for ambulatory chest radiographs.
In digital radiography, which factor primarily determines the contrast resolution of an image?
Matrix size
Field of view
Pixel bit depth
Spatial resolution
Pixel bit depth refers to the number of gray levels each pixel can represent, directly affecting contrast resolution. Higher bit depth allows finer differentiation between tissue densities. Spatial resolution describes detail sharpness rather than contrast.
Which chest X-ray view is most sensitive for detecting small pneumothoraces?
AP supine
Lateral decubitus
Lordotic
PA upright
An upright PA chest X-ray taken on full inspiration allows free air in the pleural space to rise to the lung apex, making small pneumothoraces more visible. Portable supine films can miss small collections. Lateral decubitus views are more useful for small pleural effusions.
Which term describes the blurred appearance on an X-ray image due to patient movement during exposure?
Blurring
Aliasing
Quantum mottle
Fogging
Patient motion during exposure causes blurring of image structures, leading to loss of detail. Quantum mottle is noise due to insufficient photons. Fogging is a general reduction in image density, and aliasing is a digital sampling artifact.
Which of the following contrast agents is commonly used for enhancing vascular structures in MRI?
Barium sulfate
Microbubble ultrasound agents
Iodine-based agents
Gadolinium-based agents
Gadolinium chelates shorten T1 relaxation times of blood, enhancing vascular structures in MR angiography. Iodine-based and barium agents are used in CT and fluoroscopy/MRI respectively. Microbubbles are ultrasound-specific.
ALARA is a radiation safety principle that stands for what?
As Low As Radiation Allows
As Low As Reasonably Achievable
As Long As Radiation Allows
Always Limit All Radiation
ALARA stands for 'As Low As Reasonably Achievable' and guides practitioners to minimize radiation dose while obtaining required image quality. It is a key principle in radiologic protection.
Which of the following cell types is most sensitive to ionizing radiation?
Lymphocytes
Neurons
Osteocytes
Muscle cells
Lymphocytes are among the most radiosensitive cells due to their high mitotic activity. Neurons and muscle cells are radioresistant because they do not divide frequently. Osteocytes are intermediate in sensitivity.
In ultrasound imaging, the brightness of a pixel is directly proportional to which property of the returning echo?
Frequency shift
Pulse repetition frequency
Propagation speed
Echo amplitude
Echo amplitude determines pixel brightness (echogenicity) in B-mode ultrasound. Frequency shift relates to Doppler, not B-mode. Pulse repetition frequency and speed affect other aspects of imaging.
Which imaging modality is considered non-ionizing?
Mammography
MRI
Digital Subtraction Angiography
CT
MRI uses magnetic fields and radiofrequency pulses, which are non-ionizing forms of energy. CT, DSA, and mammography all use X-rays and thus ionizing radiation.
Where is the phototimer detector typically located in an AEC-equipped X-ray system?
Next to the control console
In front of the X-ray tube
On the side of the tube
Behind the image receptor
In phototimer AEC systems, detectors (photodiodes) are located behind or within the image receptor to measure transmitted radiation. They terminate exposure when sufficient radiation has been detected. Front or console positions would not directly measure patient transmission.
A normal adult cardiothoracic ratio on a PA chest X-ray is under what percentage?
60%
50%
70%
40%
The cardiothoracic ratio is the transverse cardiac diameter divided by the thoracic diameter on a PA film. A normal adult ratio is less than 50%. Ratios above this suggest cardiomegaly.
What is the main purpose of using an anti-scatter grid in radiography?
Increase image brightness
Improve spatial resolution
Reduce patient dose
Reduce scatter radiation
Anti-scatter grids absorb scattered photons before they reach the detector, improving image contrast. They do not inherently increase brightness or spatial resolution, and they may require dose adjustments.
Which reproductive cell type is highly radiosensitive and commonly used as an indicator of radiation damage?
Spermatogonia
Erythrocytes
Neurons
Hepatocytes
Spermatogonia are among the most radiosensitive cells because they rapidly divide. Damage to these cells is often an early indicator of radiation effects on germinal tissue. Erythrocytes and hepatocytes are more radioresistant.
On the Hounsfield scale in CT imaging, what value is assigned to pure water?
0
100
1000
-1000
On the Hounsfield scale, pure water is defined as 0 HU. Air is - 1000 HU, and dense bone can exceed +1000 HU. This standardized scale allows comparison of tissue densities across scanners.
Which MRI sequence provides the highest signal intensity for adipose (fat) tissue?
T2-weighted
T1-weighted
Diffusion-weighted
Proton density
T1-weighted sequences highlight fat because fat has a short T1 relaxation time and returns to equilibrium quickly, appearing bright. In T2-weighted images, fluid is bright and fat is intermediate.
In radiography, increasing the kilovoltage peak (kVp) primarily affects which characteristic of the X-ray beam?
Number of photons produced
Penetration energy of photons
Exposure time required
Focal spot size
kVp determines the maximum energy and penetrating ability of X-ray photons. Higher kVp increases beam quality and reduces contrast. mA and exposure time control photon quantity. Focal spot size is set by filament and focusing cup geometry.
A starburst artifact around metal implants on CT images is most commonly due to which phenomenon?
Partial volume effect
Beam hardening
Photon starvation
Motion
Beam hardening occurs when low-energy photons are absorbed by dense metal, shifting the beam spectrum and causing streak artifacts. Motion and partial volume effects produce different artifact patterns.
Which contrast agent is specifically designed for use in diagnostic ultrasound studies?
Iodinated agents
Microbubble agents
Gadolinium chelates
Barium sulfate
Microbubble agents consist of gas-filled bubbles that enhance backscatter in ultrasound imaging, highlighting vascular flow and tissue perfusion. Iodine and gadolinium are for CT and MRI, respectively, and barium is for fluoroscopy.
What does quantum mottle refer to in digital radiography?
Grid cutoff
Software processing error
Insufficient X-ray photons causing noise
Motion artifact
Quantum mottle appears as a grainy noise pattern caused by low photon statistics reaching the detector. Increasing mAs reduces quantum mottle by providing more photons. It is distinct from motion or grid artifacts.
Standard pulsed fluoroscopy systems typically operate at approximately what frame rate?
60 frames/sec
30 frames/sec
15 frames/sec
1 frame/sec
Modern pulsed fluoroscopy commonly uses 30 frames per second (fps) to balance temporal resolution and patient dose. Lower frame rates reduce dose but may sacrifice real-time assessment.
Which projection best demonstrates the cervical intervertebral foramina on radiography?
AP open mouth
Lateral
Flexion - extension
45-degree oblique
A 45-degree oblique view of the cervical spine projects the intervertebral foramina without overlying bone. Lateral views show vertebral bodies, and AP open mouth targets C1 - C2. Flexion - extension assess stability rather than foramina.
Which of the following techniques in fluoroscopy lowers patient radiation dose?
Increase frame rate
Decrease kVp
Use last-image hold
Use magnification
Last-image hold allows the operator to view the most recent frame without additional radiation exposure. Increasing frame rate and magnification typically increase dose. Decreasing kVp may reduce penetration and degrade image quality.
The Doppler frequency shift in Doppler ultrasound is produced by what?
Moving red blood cells
Transducer motion
Static tissue interfaces
Operator hand movement
Doppler ultrasound measures the change in frequency of echoes returning from moving red blood cells, enabling assessment of blood flow direction and velocity. Stationary tissues produce no shift.
A barium swallow study is most useful for evaluating which condition?
Colon polyps
Esophageal motility disorders
Pancreatic masses
Renal stones
A barium swallow dynamically evaluates the passage of contrast through the esophagus, diagnosing motility disorders such as achalasia or diffuse esophageal spasm. It is not used for colon, renal, or pancreatic imaging.
In MRI, what does TR stand for?
Time to relaxation
Transmission time
Time repetition
Repetition time
TR (repetition time) is the interval between successive excitation pulses in MRI sequences. It influences T1 weighting and overall scan time. Misnaming it can lead to confusion in protocol design.
Which nuclear medicine modality utilizes positron-emitting radionuclides to create images?
PET
SPECT
MRI
CT
PET (Positron Emission Tomography) uses positron-emitting tracers such as FDG to produce functional images. SPECT uses gamma-emitting isotopes, CT and MRI are not nuclear modalities.
In CT imaging, slice thickness is primarily determined by which parameter?
Collimation width
Table speed
Reconstruction algorithm
Tube current (mA)
Collimation settings at the detector define the nominal slice thickness in CT acquisition. Tube current affects dose, reconstruction algorithm affects image quality, and table speed influences pitch.
In digital radiography, converting the electrical signal into discrete gray values is known as what?
Quantization
Sampling
Filtering
Interpolation
Quantization maps analog signal amplitudes into discrete gray levels during digitization. Sampling refers to spatial sampling of the image. Interpolation and filtering are post-processing steps.
In CT scanning, how is pitch defined?
Reconstruction interval
Rotation speed times slice thickness
Tube current relative to voltage
Table feed per rotation divided by beam width
Pitch in helical CT is the table distance traveled per tube rotation divided by the total beam collimation width. A higher pitch reduces scan time but can lower image quality.
Which MRI pulse sequence does not include a 180-degree refocusing pulse?
Spin echo
Fast spin echo
Inversion recovery
Gradient echo
Gradient echo (GRE) sequences use variable flip angles and omit the 180° refocusing pulse, making them faster but more susceptible to field inhomogeneities. Spin echo sequences include a 180° pulse to correct for dephasing.
Which CT reconstruction algorithm is known for reducing image noise but at the expense of increased computational time?
Filtered back projection
Convolutional neural network
Fourier transform
Iterative reconstruction
Iterative reconstruction techniques reduce noise and improve image quality by modeling the physics of data acquisition, but require more processing time than filtered back projection.
Which ultrasound artifact produces equally spaced linear echoes due to repeated reflections?
Ring-down
Reverberation
Acoustic shadowing
Mirror image
Reverberation occurs when the ultrasound beam bounces between two strong reflectors, producing parallel, equally spaced echoes deeper in the image.
Which target and filter combination is commonly used in analog mammography for optimal contrast?
Tungsten/Rhodium
Molybdenum/Molybdenum
Titanium/Beryllium
Copper/Aluminum
Analog mammography often uses a molybdenum target and molybdenum filter to produce characteristic X-rays in the 17 - 20 keV range, which optimizes contrast in breast tissue.
Which type of MRI coil is typically used for imaging the cervical spine to optimize signal-to-noise ratio?
Head coil
Birdcage coil
Phased-array surface coil
Body coil
Phased-array surface coils conform to the anatomy and provide higher signal-to-noise ratio for cervical spine imaging compared to the body or head coils.
What clinical parameter is primarily measured by Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)?
Organ volume
Muscle mass
Bone mineral density
Body fat percentage
DEXA measures bone mineral density by comparing X-ray absorption at two different energy levels. It is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis.
What is the SI unit of radioactive activity in nuclear medicine?
Sievert
Curie
Becquerel
Gray
The Becquerel (Bq) is the SI unit of radioactivity and equals one disintegration per second. The Curie is an older unit equivalent to 3.7×10^10 disintegrations per second.
What factor primarily determines the effective focal spot size in an X-ray tube?
Tube voltage
Filament current
Rotational speed of the anode
Anode angle and actual focal spot size
The effective focal spot is determined by the actual focal spot size and the angle of the anode target. A smaller anode angle yields a smaller effective focal spot for better spatial resolution.
Typical intravenous contrast injection rates for CT angiography of the arterial system range between which values?
6 - 8 mL/s
3 - 5 mL/s
0.5 - 1 mL/s
1 - 2 mL/s
CT angiography protocols often use injection rates of 3 - 5 mL/s to achieve adequate arterial opacification. Lower rates may yield suboptimal enhancement.
T2* relaxation differs from T2 relaxation because it also includes which additional factor?
Spin density
Chemical shift
Field inhomogeneities
Flow effects
T2* decay encompasses both true T2 relaxation and dephasing caused by magnetic field inhomogeneities. It is always shorter than or equal to T2.
Which MRI sequence is specifically designed to suppress cerebrospinal fluid signal while highlighting lesions in the brain?
FLAIR
T2-weighted
DWI
T1-weighted
FLAIR (Fluid-Attenuated Inversion Recovery) uses an inversion pulse to null CSF signal, improving detection of periventricular lesions such as multiple sclerosis plaques. T2 shows CSF bright.
Digital breast tomosynthesis improves lesion detection by primarily reducing what?
Tissue overlap
Contrast resolution
Spatial resolution
Radiation dose
Tomosynthesis acquires multiple projection images to reconstruct pseudo-3D slices, reducing the effect of overlapping tissue and improving lesion conspicuity compared to 2D mammography.
On the Hounsfield scale, cortical bone typically ranges approximately between which values?
700 to 3000
0 to 100
-1000 to -100
100 to 300
Cortical bone has high X-ray attenuation, corresponding to Hounsfield units typically between +700 and +3000. Soft tissues and water are much lower on the scale.
Which MRI artifact is caused by insufficient sampling of k-space and results in wrap-around of anatomy?
Ghosting
Aliasing
Chemical shift
Susceptibility
Aliasing (wrap-around) occurs when the field of view is smaller than the imaged anatomy, causing anatomy outside FOV to be folded back into the image. Adequate sampling prevents this artifact.
Which parameters directly influence the CTDIvol (volumetric CT dose index) reported for a CT protocol?
Matrix size and reconstruction kernel
kVp, mAs, and pitch
Patient weight and table position
Contrast volume and injection rate
CTDIvol is directly affected by tube voltage (kVp), tube current and exposure time (mAs), and pitch in helical scanning. These parameters determine the radiation dose delivered per volume.
In proton MR spectroscopy, a peak observed at approximately 2.02 ppm corresponds predominantly to which metabolite?
N-Acetylaspartate (NAA)
Choline
Lactate
Creatine
The NAA peak at 2.02 ppm is a marker of neuronal integrity and is typically the largest peak in healthy brain spectroscopy. Choline appears around 3.2 ppm, and lactate at 1.3 ppm.
Automated tube current modulation in CT adjusts which parameter based on patient attenuation?
Pitch
Gantry rotation speed
kVp
mAs
Automated tube current modulation dynamically adjusts the mAs during the scan to maintain consistent image quality while minimizing dose, based on the varying attenuation of patient anatomy. kVp and pitch are usually fixed.
In PET imaging, the standardized uptake value (SUV) is a quantitative measure that normalizes activity concentration by what?
Injected dose and body weight
Scan duration
Lesion volume
Patient height
SUV is calculated by dividing tissue activity concentration (Bq/mL) by injected dose (Bq) normalized to body weight (g), enabling comparison across patients. Variations in body composition can affect SUV accuracy.
In diffusion tensor imaging, fractional anisotropy (FA) measures which characteristic of water diffusion?
Mean diffusivity
Directionality of diffusion
Rate of diffusion
Total diffusion signal
FA quantifies the degree to which water diffusion is directionally dependent, reflecting microstructural integrity of white matter tracts. A value of zero indicates isotropic diffusion.
In ultrasound elastography, the measured shear wave speed correlates most directly with what tissue property?
Viscosity
Density
Elasticity or stiffness
Attenuation
Shear wave speed in elastography is proportional to tissue stiffness; stiffer tissues propagate waves faster. This principle aids in differentiating benign from malignant lesions.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand key radiographic imaging principles -

    Master fundamental concepts of x-ray generation, attenuation, and image formation to improve diagnostic clarity in any radiology practice exam.

  2. Apply precise patient positioning techniques -

    Practice correct anatomical alignment and positioning for common radiologic exams to ensure optimal image quality on your radiology tech practice test.

  3. Identify and implement radiation safety measures -

    Recognize ALARA principles and appropriate shielding methods to minimize exposure for both patients and staff during radiologic technologist practice exams and real-world procedures.

  4. Analyze image quality and artifacts -

    Evaluate radiographs for technical factors, spatial resolution, and common artifacts to troubleshoot and enhance outcomes in any radiology exam practice test.

  5. Differentiate between radiographic procedures -

    Distinguish indications, technical requirements, and protocols for various modalities - such as CT, MRI, and ultrasound - preparing you for question formats in your radiology exam practice.

  6. Assess readiness for licensure exams -

    Utilize our free radiology practice exam to identify strengths, target areas for improvement, and refine test-taking strategies before sitting for your radiologic technologist practice exam.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Radiation Safety: ALARA & Inverse Square Law -

    Review the ALARA principle ("As Low As Reasonably Achievable") and the inverse square law (I1/I2 = (D2/D1)²) to ensure minimal patient and operator exposure (Source: ASRT). Mnemonic "Double the distance, quarter the dose" helps you recall how distance dramatically reduces radiation intensity. Mastering these basics boosts confidence on any radiology tech practice test.

  2. Positioning Techniques: Chest X-Ray Projections -

    Differentiate PA vs. AP chest projections by understanding patient orientation: PA provides truer heart size and less magnification (Source: ACR Appropriateness Criteria). Remember "P-Assess Air in Lungs" to recall Posterior-Anterior for optimal lung fields. Sharp positioning skills are crucial when tackling your radiologic technologist practice exam.

  3. Image Quality Factors: kVp, mAs & Contrast -

    Balance kVp for penetration and mAs for receptor exposure to optimize image contrast and density (Source: Radiologic Physics Journal). Use the formula Exposure ∝ kVp² × mAs to predict changes quickly on a radiology exam practice question. Clear grasp of these relationships elevates your performance on a radiology practice exam.

  4. Anatomical Landmarks: Bony Structures -

    Memorize key landmarks like the jugular notch, sternal angle, and iliac crest for accurate centering (Source: University Radiology Department). A handy mnemonic is "Just See In Center" (Jugular, Sternal, Iliac, Center) to align your beam precisely. Strong anatomy recall drives success on any radiology exam practice test.

  5. Beam Filtration & Half-Value Layer (HVL) -

    Understand that the HVL is the thickness of material (e.g., aluminum) needed to reduce beam intensity by 50% (Source: ICRP). Remember "Filter Half for Health" to link filtration with patient dose reduction. This concept is often featured in radiology exam practice questions, so mastery here is key.

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