IR 101-150 D. ROMERO 47
Instrument Rating Quiz
Test your knowledge and skills related to instrument flying with this comprehensive quiz designed for aspiring pilots and aviation enthusiasts. Explore various topics including instrument operation, altitude management, and flight regulations.
- Multiple choice questions
- Designed for pilot training
- Covers essential flying knowledge
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
Air temperature lower than standard.
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
Air temperature warmer than standard
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
The horizon bar vibrates during warmup
The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns
The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
Rate of roll and rate of turn
Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude
Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?
3 minutes
1 minute
2 minutes
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?
1 minute 30 seconds
30 seconds
1 minute
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?
1 minute.
1 minute 30 seconds
30 seconds
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?
25 percent
10 percent
20 percent
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using
Two bar widths on the attitude indicator
Less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator
Less than a half bar width on the attitude indicator
To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
First reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI.
Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.
First adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed.
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude
150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude
50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
20 feet
50 feet
60 feet
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-level flight?
Turn-and-slip indicator
Heading indicator
Attitude indicator
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
Altimeter and airspeed only
Altimeter and VSI only
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
Attitude indicator
VSI
Altimeter
The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-and-level flight?
Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator
Magnetic compass
Attitude indicator
What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard-rate turn?
Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
VSI
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating
Under IFR in positive control airspace
In weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight
Under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace
In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability
Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder
DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR
The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
RAIL
HIRL
REIL
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway
Arrows leading to the threshold mark
Centerline dashes starting at the threshold
The "runway hold position" sign denotes
An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway
An entrance to runway from a taxiway
Intersecting runways
Runway hold position" markings on the taxiway
Identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway
Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited
Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway
The "No Entry" sign identifies
Paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited
An area that does not continue beyond intersection
The exit boundary for the runway protected area
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown
Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber.
Three glidepaths, with the center path indicated by a white light
Two visual glidepaths for the runway
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
Light quartering tailwind
Direct headwind
Direct tailwind
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions
Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline
Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
Only when advised by ATC
At all times when not in radar contact with ATC
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
To see and avoid other traffic.
Use VFR operating procedures.
Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
The ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
The sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted
The ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach
The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach
The point of first intended landing
When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?
Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport
Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR
When requested or advised by ATC
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?
The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight
Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility
You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
Upon completing the first turn after takeoff or upon establishing cruise climb on a straight-out departure.
Before penetrating the clouds
When advised by the tower
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
Entering instrument meteorological conditions
Correcting an E.T.A. Any time a previous E.T.A. Is in error in excess of 2 minutes
When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach
What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated
You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
What does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply?
Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur
Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?
Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions
Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made
Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made
Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed
MOAs are established to
Restrict civil aircraft during periods of high-density training activities
Separate certain military activities from IFR traffic
Prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities
(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class A airspace?
14,500 feet MSL
10,000 feet MSL
18,000 feet MSL
If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver
Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first
Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to
Execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude.
Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
Climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA
Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot's discretion.
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase
Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase
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