Atp copa
Aerodynamics and Flight Controls Quiz
Test your knowledge on aerodynamics, flight controls, and aircraft operations with our comprehensive quiz designed for aviation enthusiasts and professionals alike.
Whether you’re a student or a seasoned pilot, this quiz will challenge your understanding of flight principles through a series of detailed questions:
- In-depth coverage of flight control mechanisms
- Real-world scenarios and applications
- Over 200 challenging questions
When are inboard ailerons normally used?
Low speed flight only
High speed flight only
Low speed and high speed flight _
When are outboard ailerons normally used ?
Low speed flight only
High speed flight only
Low speed and high speed fligh
Which of the followings is concidered a primary flight control?
Slats
Elevator
Dorsal fin
Which of the followings is considered an auxiliary flight control?
Ruddervator
Upper rudder
Leading edge flaps
What is the porpouse of an anti servo tab?
Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
What is the purpose of a servo tab?
Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?
Increase the camber of the wing.
Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
Increase the camber of the wing.
B: Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
C: Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A: Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B: Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C: Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?
A: Same direction.
B: Opposite direction.
C: Remains fixed for all positions.
What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?
A: The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor.
B: The rate of turn will increase resulting in a increased load factor.
C: The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.
What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?
A: Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
B: Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
C: Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
What is load factor?
A: Lift multiplied by the total weight.
B: Lift substracted from the total weight.
C: Lift divided by the total weight.
What affects indicated stall speed?
A: Weight, load factor, and power.
B: Load factor, angle of attack, and power.
C: Angle of attack, weight, and air density.
If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?
A: Lift increases and the sink rate increases.
B: Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases.
C: Lift decreases and the sink rate increases.
Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
A: Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift.
B: Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component.
C: Compensate for increase in drag.
How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A: Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B: Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C: Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A: Rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B: Rate will increase and radius will decrease.
C: Rate and radius will increase.
Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?
A: Rate of turn.
B: Angle of bank.
C: True airspeed.
If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be:
A: 2 Gs.
B: 3 Gs.
C: 9 Gs.
Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators:
A: directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface
B: directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
C: making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to
A: best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
B: Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed.
C: an airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.
What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc?
A: Heading.
B: Heading and altitude.
C: Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.
What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine airplane?
A: The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
B: The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust.
C: The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.
What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?
A: None.
B: Increases with altitude.
C: Decreases with altitude.
Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?
A: With one engine inoperative.
B: With climb power on.
C: With full flaps and gear extended.
What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A: Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
B: Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
C: Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.
Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized.
A: Negative longitudinal static stability.
B: Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
C: Neutral longitudinal static stability.
What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?
A: Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.
B: Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.
C: Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.
Describe dynamic longitudinal stability.
A: Motion about the longitudinal axis.
B: Motion about the lateral axis.
C: Motion about the vertical axis.
What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?
A: It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
B: It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.
C: It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized.
A: Positive dynamic stability.
B: Positive static stability.
C: Neutral dynamic stability.
What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A: An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
B: A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
C: An increase in dynamic stability.
What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?
A: Sluggish in aileron control.
B: Sluggish in rudder control.
C: Unstable about the lateral axis
What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be
A: the same.
B: two times greater.
C: four times greater.
What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?
A: The same true airspeed and angle of attack.
B: A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
C: A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A: Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
B: Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C: Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A: lift, gross weight, and drag.
B: lift, airspeed, and drag.
C: lift and airspeed, but not drag.
The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the:
A: L/Dmax.
B: lift at low speeds.
C: drag and reduce airspeed.
Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?
A: .50 to .75 Mach.
B: .75 to 1.20 Mach.
C: 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.
What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?
A: Prevent flow separation.
B: Decrease rate of sink.
C: Increase profile drag.
What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
A: Initial buffet speed.
B: Critical Mach number.
C: Transonic index.
What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?
A: Supersonic Mach number.
B: Transonic Mach number.
C: Critical Mach number.
At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?
A: Below .75 Mach.
B: From .75 to 1.20 Mach.
C: From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.
What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?
A: The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
B: Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.
C: Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect
What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?
A: A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup.
B: A severe moment or "tuck under".
C: Severe porpoising.
What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?
A: The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
B: The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
C: Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.
What is the condition known as when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?
A: Porpoise.
B: Wingover.
C: Dutch roll.
What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first?
A: Inward and aft.
B: Inward and forward.
C: Outward and forward.
For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
A: is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.
B: varies with the rate of turn.
C: is constant.
What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
A: Parasite drag increases more than induced drag.
B: Induced drag increases more than parasite drag.
C: Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?
A: Low speed.
B: High speed.
C: Any speed.
Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the:
A: aircraft dispatcher.
B: flight navigator.
C: pilot in command.
When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for operations, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?
A: List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate.
B: Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use.
C: List at least one additional alternate airport.
An alternate airport for departure is required:
A: if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.
B: when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport.
C: when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).
What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?
A: 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating.
B: 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
C: 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport
A: for a period 1 hours before or after the ETA.
B: during the entire flight.
C: when the flight arrives.
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
A: those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive.
B: those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.
C: those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight.
Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?
A: If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment.
B: When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF.
C: When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.
Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?
A: 10,000 feet.
B: 14,500 feet.
C: FL 180.
With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phase of flight"?
A: Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight.
B: Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
C: Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.
What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?
A: Assume lost communications and continue as planned.
B: Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received.
C: Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.
What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?
A: Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.
B: Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.
C: Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
Maximum holding speed for a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is:
A: 265 knots
B: 230 knots.
C: 156 knots.
Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is:
A: 210 knots.
B: 230 knots.
C: 265 knots.
Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport civil/navy between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is:
A: 265 knots.
B: 230 knots.
C: 200 knots
When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?
A: 3° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less.
B: 3° per second or 30° bank, whicheever is less.
C: 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less.
When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?
A: Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first.
B: At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage.
C: When abeam the holding fix.
When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed:
A: 1 minute.
B: 1-1/2 minutes.
C: 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
Refer to the image below, how should the pilot identify the MAP on the IAH VOR/DME RWY 23R? (Click on the image to enlarge)
A. After time has elapsed from FAF
B. IAH 1,3 DME.
C. IAH 1 DME.
When is the earliest time the pilot may initiate a descent from 460 feet msl to land at IAH. (Click on the image to enlarge)
A. Anytime aftr GALES INT if the runway environment is visible.
B. Only aft the IAH 1.3 DME if the runway environment is visible.
C. Conly after the IAH 1 DME if the runway environment is visible.
Refer to the image below) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME RWY 32R approach at IAH, if still IMC? (Click on the image to enlarge)
A. Anytime after the FAF.
B. IAH 1,3 DME
C. IAH 1 DME
(Refer to the figure below) The changeover point on V394 between DAG VORTAC and POM VORTAC is?
A. halfway
B. 38 DME miles from DAG VORTAC
C. 64 DME miles from DAG VORTAG
The minimum corssing altitude at APLES INT southwest bound on V394 is? (Refer to the image below, Click to inlarge)
A. 7500 feet
B. 9100 feet
C. 11500 feet
What is the minimum enroute altitude on V210, when crossing the PDM VORTAC southwest bound and continuing on the same airway? (Refer to the image below, Click to inlarge)
A. 10700 feet
B. 10300 feet
C. 5300 feet
When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised immediately?
A: Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.
B: If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.
C: If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.
What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include?
A: Clearance limit and en route altitude.
B: Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.
C: Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.
What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearence?
A: A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions.
B: When an IFR clearence is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released.
C: Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.
What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?
A: Immediately climb to 9,000.
B: Report climbing to 9,000.
C: Report maintaining 8,000.
Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?
A: Over all designated compulsory reporting points.
B: Only where specifically requested by CORPAC Flight Planning.
C: When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
A: Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
B: Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.
C: Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?
A: Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach.
B: Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach.
C: Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.
A minimun instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearence of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas.
A: Minimum Obstruction Clearence Altitude (MOCA)
B: Off-Route Obstruction Clearence Altitude (OROCA)
C: Minimun Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA)
Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by:
A: stating "Have numbers"
B: stating "Have Weather"
C: repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.
When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition?
A: The IFR portion is automatically canceled and the VFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR conditions.
B: The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion.
C: The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and activate the VFR portion.
Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan?
A: All compulsory reporting points en route.
B: The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight.
C: The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.
Refer to the image below. A pilot receives this ATC clearance: Cleared to The ABC VORTAC, Hold West on the two seven sero radial. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A: Parallel or teardrop
B: Parallel only
C: Direct only
Refer to the image below. A pilot receives this ATC clearance: Cleared to The XYZ VORTAC. Hold north on the three six zero radial, left turns. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A: Teardrop only
B: Parallel Only
C: Direct
Refer to figure below. You receive this ATC clearance: Hold East of the ABC VORTAC on the zero niner zero radial left turns. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A. Parallel only.
B. Direct only.
C. Teardrop only.
Refer to figure below. You receive this ATC clearance: Cleared to the ABC VORTAC hold south of the on eight zero radial. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A. Teardrop only.
B. Direct only.
B. Parallel only.
What is the primary purpose of a STAR?
A: Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic.
B: Simplify clearance delivery procedures.
C: Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.
When does ATC issue a STAR?
A: Only when ATC deems it appropriate.
B: Only to high priority flights.
C: Only upon request of the pilot.
What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?
A: Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.
B: Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.
C: Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?
A: Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart.
B: When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.
C: Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A: Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.
B: Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise.
C: Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.
What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?
A: Except for SID's, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors.
B: If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient.
C: Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.
How should a pilot describe braking action?
A: 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent.
B: Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal.
C: Nil, poor, fair, or good.
What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?
A: Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing
B: Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearence
C: Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request
What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?
A: They are given preference for departure over other aircraft.
B: They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block.
C: They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.
What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s?
A: Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning.
B: Airport or primary runway closings, runway and taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages.
C: Temporary flight
NOTAM (L) s are used to disseminate what type of information?
A: Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays.
B: Taxi closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approaches criteria, and airport rotating beacon outages.
C: Time critical information of a permanent nature that is not yet available in normally published charts.
How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?
A: 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour.
B: Between weather broadcasts on the hour.
C: Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?
A: Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course.
B: Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach.
C: Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.
What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?
A: A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization.
B: A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.
C: Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?
A: 200 knots.
B: 210 knots.
C: 250 knots.
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?
OPCION A: 188 knots.
OPCION B: 210 knots.
OPCION C: 230 knots.
If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?
A: Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible.
B: Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC.
C: Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.
When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?
A: At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible.
B: When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible.
C: At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.
Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be inititiated upon?
A: arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
B: arrival at the visual descent point.
C: expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?
A: Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA.
B: Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen.
C: The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.
What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when celared for an ILS approach? The pilot:
A: may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude.
B: must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.
C: may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.
What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?
A: 1/4 SM.
B: 3/4 SM
C: 3/8 SM.
The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?
OPCION A: 3/8 SM.
OPCION B: 5/8 SM.
OPCION C: 3/4 SM.
The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?
A: 5/8 SM.
B: 3/4 SM.
C: 7/8 SM.
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?
A: The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book.
B: 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA.
C: The actual minimums shown on the chart for the airport.
What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?
A: Read the clearance back in its entirety.
B: Request a clarification from ATC.
C: Do not accept the clearance.
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?
A. High altitudes close to the VORTAC
B. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC
C. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC
What DME indicator should a pilo observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?
A. 0 DME miles
B. 2 DME miles
C. 2.3 DME miles
What functions are provided by ILS?
A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle
B. Azimuth, range and vertical angle
C. Guidance, range, and visual information
Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
A. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz
B. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz
C. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz
The lowest ILS Category II minimums are?
A. DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet
B. DH 100 feet and RVR 1200 feet
C. DH 150 feet and RVR 1500 feet
What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum?
A. DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet
B. RV 1000 feet
C. RVR 700 feet
Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan to be:
A. RNAV equipped
B. Astrotracker equipped
C. FMS/EFIS equipped
Assume that the reported weather conditions at the time of departure are 500 feet overcast, 2 miles visiblility, and the wind is calm. If you determin that the climb performance for your airplane is 400 feet per nautical mile, which runway should you chose for departure? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Asnwer: Runway 27
When filing your flight plan, what code should you enter on the flight plan for the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE with julian Transition? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
A. BRDR5.IPL
B. BRDR5.JLI
C. BFDR5.BROWS.JLI
If you depart Runway 27, what heading should you use until you reach PGY 19 DME? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Answer: Heading 275
Where does the basic portion of BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE procedure end? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
A. At the Poggi VORTAC
B. At BROWS intersection
C. At the Imperial VORTAC
What is the departure control frequency for Runway 9 at KSAN? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Answer: 124,35 MHz
What is the length of the Imperial Transition? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
A. 25 nautical miles
B. 64 nautical miles
C. 75 nautical miles
If you depart Runway 27 on the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE, Imperial Transition, what initial altitude can you expect? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
A. 7000 feet at the Poggi VORTAC
B. 7000 feet at the BROWS intersection
C. Your initial altitude will be assigned by the controller
What is the appropriate frequency to reveive advanced information regarding instrument approach procedure in progress at San Diego International Airport? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Answer: 134.8 (ATIS)
What is the elevation of San Diego International Airport? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
A. 150 feet MSL
B. 15 feet MSL
C. 14 feet MSL
What is the minimum glide slope intercept altitude when you are inbound on the intermediate approach segment? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Answer: 2000 feet MSL
If you are executing ILS RWY 09, at what point will you initiate the missed approach procedure? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Answer: 350 feet DA
If you are circling to land at 100 knots in a Category A aircraft, what is your MDA (H) and visibility requirement? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Answer: 800 feet and 1 statue mile
If the glide slope flag appears in your CDI after passing GATTO, what is the minimum altitude to which you can descend? How can you identify the MAP? (Look at the figure below to answer this question) Click on the image to enlarge.
Answer: You may descend to the LOC (GS out) MDA (H) of 540 feet (526 feet). You can identify the missed approach point using the 2,2 DME fix from ISAN or by passing the beacon AN.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A: Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes.
B: One microburst may continue for as long as an hour.
C: Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as:
A: 1,500 ft/min.
B: 4,500 ft/min.
C: 6,000 ft/min.
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of:
A: 40 knots.
B: 80 knots.
C: 90 knots.
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
A: Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.
B: Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.
C: Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?
A: Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
B: Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
C: Sudden increase in a headwind component.
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?
A: Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
B: Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
C: Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?
A: Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
B: Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed," and apply maximum power.
C: Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?
A: Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
B: Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
C: Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?
A: Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.
B: Increasing tailwind and headwind.
C: Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"?
A: Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted.
B: Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min.
C: Any rapid change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in ecxess of 100 ft/min.
Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
A: Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.
B: Decreased takeoff distance.
C: Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A: 8,000 ft/min.
B: 7,000 ft/min.
C: 6,000 ft/min
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of?
A: 40 knots.
B: 80 knots.
C: 90 knots.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A: Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
B: One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
C: Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
A: It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
B: There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
C: The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?
A: Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface.
B: Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.
C: Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
A: Convection currents at the surface.
B: Cold temperatures.
C: Poor visibility.
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A: A stable layer of air.
B: An unstable layer of air.
C: Air mass thunderstorms.
When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?
A: After sunrise.
B: About 1 hour before sunrise.
C: At midnight.
Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?
A: Arctic only
B: Arctic and subtropical
C: Subtropical only
At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction:
A: decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
B: decreases pressure gradient force.
C: creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?
A: Land breeze.
B: Valley wind.
C: Katabatic wind.
What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A: Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
B: Descending to the surface and then outward.
C: Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface.
Where is the usual location of a thermal low?
A: Over the arctic region.
B: Over the eye of a hurricane.
C: Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.
Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that:
A: a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing.
B: a layer of warmer air exists above.
C: ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.
What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?
A: The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.
B: The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes.
C: There is an inversion with colder air below.
What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?
A: Trough.
B: Ridge.
C: Hurricane or typhon.
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A: It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
B: It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
C: It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? "SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE".
A: A downburst is located at the center of the airport.
B: Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway.
C: There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.
Where is a common location for an inversion?
A: At the tropopause.
B: In the stratosphere.
C: At the base of cumulus clouds.
What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion?
A: The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.
B: Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.
C: Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.
Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?
A: Katabatic.
B: Advection.
C: Adiabatic.
What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
A: 3° per 1,000 feet.
B: 2° per 1,000 feet.
C: 4° per 1,000 feet.
Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:
A: at the surface
B: reduced to sea level
C: at a given atmospheric pressure altitude
At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A: At the poles.
B: Middle latitudes (30° to 60°).
C: At the Equator.
How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?
A: Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
B: Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
C: Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
A: The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.
B: Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature.
C: Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?
A: On clear nights with stable air and light winds.
B: On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation.
C: On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread.
What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?
A: The air is unstable.
B: A temperature inversion exists.
C: The air is stable.
Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
A: Expansion of air as it raises.
B: Movement of air over a colder surface.
C: Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases:
A: at a faster than dry air because of the release of latent heat.
B: at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat.
C: at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.
Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?
A: The parcel of air resists convection.
B: The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill.
C: As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
A: Freezing rain.
B: Clear air turbulence.
C: Embedded thunderstorms.
Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?
A: Nimbostratus.
B: Standing lenticular.
C: Cirrocumulus.
Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a fron into the colder air?
A: Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases.
B: Wind direction shifts to the left.
C: Atmospheric pressure increases.
What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?
A: 4,000 feet thick.
B: 2,000 feet thick.
C: A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level.
Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?
A: Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog.
B: Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog.
C: Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A: The appearance of an anvil top.
B: The start of rain at the surface.
C: Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A: Cumulus.
B: Dissipating.
C: Mature.
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
A: Beginning of rain at the surface.
B: Frequent lightning.
C: Continuous updraft.
What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"?
A: Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line.
B: Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.
C: Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.
Where do squall lines most often develop?
A: In an occluded front.
B: Ahead of a cold front.
C: Behind a stationary front.
Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
A: In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.
B: Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.
C: On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value:
A: during the downdraft and heavy rain showers.
B: when the thunderstorm is approaching.
C: immediately after the rain showers have stopped.
Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?
A: Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity.
B: Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface.
C: Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.
When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds?
A: Temperature inversion.
B: Wind stronger than 15 knots.
C: Surface radiation.
How are haze layers cleared or dispersed?
A: By convective mixing in cool night air.
B: By wind or the movement of air.
C: By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?
A: Cumulonimbus mamma.
B: Standing lenticular.
C: Stratocumulus.
When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least:
A: 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.
B: 2,500 feet.
C: 500 feet above any moderate to a severe turbulence layer.
Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?
A: Squall line.
B: Advective fog.
C: Frontogenesis.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
A: When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart.
B: When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart
C: When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwindwhen descending on the glide slope?
A: Less power is required.
B: Higher pitch attitude is required.
C: Lower descent rate is required.
What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?
A: Supercooled water drops.
B: Water vapor.
C: Visible water.
Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A: Wet snow.
B: Freezing rain.
C: Ice pellets.
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