Ground School Midterm Part 1

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Ground School Midterm Quiz

Test your knowledge on essential ground school concepts with our comprehensive midterm quiz. This quiz covers a wide range of topics relevant to aircraft certification, airman regulations, aerodynamics, engine operation, and more.

Prepare for your upcoming exams or simply challenge yourself with questions such as:

  • Airworthiness Directives
  • Forces acting on an airplane
  • Basic flight principles
52 Questions13 MinutesCreated by FlyingEagle101
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Landplane, seaplane.
Rotorcraft
Normal, utility, acrobatic
With respect to the certification of airman, which is a category of aircraft?
Landplane, seaplane.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
Normal, utility, acrobatic
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in:
Any aircraft.
The same category of aircraft to be used.
The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s)?
They are mandatory
They are voluntary.
For Informational purposes only.
FC 1. Your cousin wants you to take him flying. In order to do this, you must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding.
90 days
60 days
30 days
What is it often called when pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft’s limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?
Scud running.
Mind set.
Peer pressure.
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Continual flight into instrument conditions.
Getting behind the aircraft.
Duck-under syndrome.
Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?
A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity
An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol
Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol
FC1. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
8 hours
12 hours
24 hours
FC12 – No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
Excessively high engine temperatures will
Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven fuel pump used?
In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
Constantly except in starting the engine.
All the time to aid the engine-driven
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.
Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
Temperature between 32 and 50 °F and low humidity
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A.A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
Engine roughness.
Loss of RPM.
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
Decrease engine performance.
Have no effect on engine performance.
Increase engine performance.
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
Detonation.
Lower cylinder head temperatures.
A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
Combustion.
Pre-ignition.
Detonation.
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
Air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
The circulation of lubricating oil.
A properly functioning thermostat.
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance
If the pitot tube and outside static vent become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn and slip indicator.
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator
The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn and slip indicator
V no is defined as the
Normal operating range
Never exceed speed
Maximum structural cruising speed
Vso is defined as the
Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration
Stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
In colder than standard air temperature
In warmer than standard air temperature
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude
What should be the indication n the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a sough heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
A.When the aircraft is accelerating.
A.When the aircraft is accelerating.
A.During unaccelerated flight.
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
A.permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
A.decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
A.increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
Increase if the CG is moved forward.
Remain the same regardless of gross weight.
Change with an increase in gross weight.
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.
Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs.
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
Settling to the surface abruptly during landing
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
Require less effort to control.
Not spin.
Be difficult to stall.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
Stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.
A longer takeoff run.
Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
Less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.
Less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.
Less stable at all speeds.
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
Stalled
Partially stalled with one wing low.
In a steep diving spiral.
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
Only the left wing is stalled.
Neither wing is stalled.
Both wings are stalled.
In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
A.Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
A.Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
A.High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
A.Clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise.
A.Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
Gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90 in advance of the point the force was applied.
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
Climbs.
Turns
Stalls.
What force makes an airplane turn?
The horizontal component of lift.
The vertical component of lift.
Centrifugal force.
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
Immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
Quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.
Determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
The faster aircraft shall give way.
Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A.Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
Airship.
Glider.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over uncongested areas?
A.An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the surface.
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
Ailerons neutral.
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Aileron down on the downwind side.
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.
Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
 
 
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