1031 Questions OBGYN for UHS Part I ( 692-806) Na
692. A 29-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Four years ago, she had a low transverse cesarean section in her second pregnancy. Physical examination shows bright red vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 16/min. Fetal heart monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abruptio placenta
B. Placenta previa
C. Vasa previa
D. Uterine rupture
E. Normal labor
693. A 30-year-old African-American woman with type-1 diabetes and hypertension comes to the physician's office after obtaining a positive result from a home pregnancy test. She takes insulin and enalapril. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2° C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her BUN is 18 mg/dl and creatinine is 1.4 mg/dl. A repeat β-HCG test performed in the office confirms pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Stop enalapril and start furosemide
B. Continue enalapril and add methyldopa
C. Stop enalapril and start labetalol
D. Stop enalapril and start losartan
E. Continue current therapy
694. A 30-year-old obese woman comes to the physician with a six-month history of oligomenorrhea. She has never had this problem before. She has no galactorrhea. She has gained significant weight over the past two years despite a regular exercise program. She has also experienced hair loss during this time. She has had regular Pap smears since the age of 21; none of which have shown any abnormalities. She takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Her mother has a history of endometrial carcinoma and her grandmother had a history of ovarian carcinoma. Physical examination shows male pattern baldness. Abdominal and pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Serum prolactin level and thyroid function tests are normal. Which of the following is indicated in the initial workup of this patient?
A. Screening mammogram
B. Oral glucose tolerance test
C. CA-125 levels, annually
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy
E. Iron studies
695. A 30-year-old class D diabetic is concerned about pregnancy. She can be assured that which of the following risks is the same for her as for the general population?
A. Preeclampsia and eclampsia
B. Infection
C. Fetal cystic fibrosis
D. Postpartum hemorrhage after vaginal delivery
E. Hydramnios
696. A 33-year-old woman at 10 weeks presents for her first prenatal examination. Routine labs are drawn and her hepatitis B surface antigen is positive. Liver function tests are normal and her hepatitis B core and surface antibody tests are negative. Which of the following is the best way to prevent neonatal infection?
A. Provide immune globulin to the mother.
B. Provide hepatitis B vaccine to the mother.
C. Perform a cesarean delivery at term.
D. Provide hepatitis B vaccine to the neonate.
E. Provide immune globulin and the hepatitis B vaccine to the neonate
697. A 38-year-old G1P0 presents to the obstetrician’s office at 37 weeks gestational age complaining of a rash on her abdomen that is becoming increasingly pruritic. The rash started on her abdomen, and the patient notes that it is starting to spread downward to her thighs. The patient reports no previous history of any skin disorders or problems. She denies any malaise or fever. On physical examination, she is afebrile and her physician notes that her abdomen, and most notably her stretch marks, is covered with red papules and plaques. No excoriations or bullae are present. The patient’s face, arms, and legs are unaffected by the rash. Which of the following is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Herpes gestationis
B. Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy
C. Prurigo gravidarum
D. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
E. Impetigo herpetiformis
698. A 25-year-old G2P0 at 30 weeks gestation presents with the complaint of a new rash and itching on her abdomen over the last few weeks. She denies any constitutional symptoms or any new lotions, soaps, or detergents. On examination she is afebrile with a small, papular rash on her trunk and forearms. Excoriations from scratching are also noted. Which of the following is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?
A. Delivery
B. Cholestyramine
C. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines
D. Oral steroids
E. Antibiotic therapy
699. A 23-year-old G3P2002 presents for a routine obstetric (OB) visit at 34 weeks. She reports a history of genital herpes for 5 years. She reports that she has had only two outbreaks during the pregnancy, but is very concerned about the possibility of transmitting this infection to her baby. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding how this patient should be counseled?
A. There is no risk of neonatal infection during a vaginal delivery if no lesions are present at the time the patient goes into labor.
B. The patient should be scheduled for an elective cesarean section at 39 weeks of gestation to avoid neonatal infection.
C. Starting at 36 weeks, weekly genital herpes cultures should be done.
D. The herpes virus is commonly transmitted across the placenta in a patient with a history of herpes.
E. Suppressive antiviral therapy can be started at 36 weeks to help prevent an outbreak from occurring at the time of delivery.
700. A 28-year-old G1 presents to your office at 8 weeks gestation. She has a history of diabetes since the age of 14. She uses insulin and denies any complications related to her diabetes. Which of the following is the most common birth defect associated with diabetes?
A. Anencephaly
B. Encephalocele
C. Meningomyelocele
D. Sacral agenesis
E. Ventricular septal defect
701. A 32-year-old G1 at 10 weeks gestation presents for her routine OB visit. She is worried about her pregnancy because she has a history of insulin-requiring diabetes since the age of 18. Prior to becoming pregnant, her endocrinologist diagnosed her with microalbuminuria. She has had photo laser ablation of retinopathy in the past. Which diabetic complication is most likely to be worsened by pregnancy?
A. Benign retinopathy
B. Gastroparesis
C. Nephropathy
D. Neuropathy
E. Proliferative retinopathy
702. A 37-year-old G3P2 presents to your office for her first OB visit at 10 weeks gestation. She has a history of Graves disease and has been maintained on propylthiouracil (PTU) as treatment for her hyperthyroidism. She is currently euthyroid but asks you if her condition poses any problems for the pregnancy. Which of the following statements should be included in your counseling session with the patient?
A. She may need to discontinue the use of the thionamide drug because it is commonly associated with leukopenia.
B. Infants born to mothers on PTU who are euthyroid may develop a goiter and be clinically hypothyroid.
C. Propylthiouracil does not cross the placenta.
D. Pregnant hyperthyroid women, even when appropriately treated, have an increased risk of developing preeclampsia.
E. Thyroid storm is a common complication in pregnant women with Graves disease.
703. A 40-year-old G3P2 obese patient at 37 weeks presents for her routine OB visit. She has gestational diabetes that is controlled with diet. She reports that her fasting and postprandial sugars have all been within the normal range. Her fetus has an estimated fetal weight of 6.5 lb by Leopold maneuvers. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?
A. Administration of insulin to prevent macrosomia
B. Cesarean delivery at 39 weeks to prevent shoulder dystocia
C. Induction of labor at 38 weeks
D. Kick counts and routine return OB visit in 1 week
E. Weekly biophysical profile
704. A 36-year-old G1P0 at 35 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery complaining of a several-day history of generalized malaise, anorexia, nausea, and emesis. She denies any headache or visual changes. Her fetal movement has been good, and she denies any regular uterine contractions, vaginal bleeding, or rupture of membranes. On physical examination, you notice that she is mildly jaundiced and appears to be a little confused. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.7C (99.9F), pulse of 70 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 100/62 mm Hg. Blood is drawn and the following results are obtained: WBC = 25,000, Hct = 42.0, platelets = 51,000, SGOT/PT= 287/350, glucose = 43, creatinine = 2.0, fibrinogen = 135, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 90 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
C. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
D. Severe preeclampsia
E. Hyperemesis gravidarum
705. A 27-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks gestation presents to your office complaining of a 2-day history of nausea and emesis. On physical examination, you notice that she is icteric sclera and skin. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.2C (99F), pulse of 102 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg. She is sent to labor and delivery for additional evaluation. In labor and delivery, the fetal heart rate is in the 160s with good variability, but nonreactive. Blood is drawn and the following results are obtained: WBC = 22,000, Hct = 40.0, platelets = 72,000, SGOT/PT = 334/386, glucose = 58, creatinine = 2.2, fibrinogen = 209, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 65 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for this patient?
A. Immediate delivery
B. Cholecystectomy
C. Intravenous diphenhydramine
D. MgSO4 therapy
E. Bed rest and supportive measures since this condition is self-limited
706. A 32-year-old G1P0 reports to your office for a routine OB visit at 14 weeks gestational age. Labs drawn at her first prenatal visit 4 weeks ago reveal a platelet count of 60,000, a normal PT, PTT and bleeding time. All her other labs were within normal limits. During the present visit, the patient has a blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg. Her urine dip reveals the presence of trace protein. The patient denies any complaints. The only medication she is currently taking is a prenatal vitamin. On taking a more in-depth history you learn that, prior to pregnancy, your patient had a history of occasional nose and gum bleeds, but no serious bleeding episodes. She has considered herself to be a person who just bruises easily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alloimmune thrombocytopenia
B. Gestational thrombocytopenia
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. HELLP syndrome
E. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
707. A 23-year-old G1P0 reports to your office for a routine OB visit at 28 weeks gestational age. Labs drawn at her prenatal visit 2 weeks ago reveal a 1-hour glucose test of 128, hemoglobin of 10.8, and a platelet count of 80,000. All her other labs were within normal limits. During the present visit, the patient has a blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg. Her urine dip is negative for protein, glucose, and blood. The patient denies any complaints. The only medication she is currently taking is a prenatal vitamin. She does report a history of epistaxis on occasion, but no other bleeding. Which of the following medical treatments should you recommend to treat the thrombocytopenia?
A. No treatment is necessary
B. Stop prenatal vitamins
C. Oral corticosteroid therapy
D. Intravenous immune globulin
E. Splenectomy
708. A 21-year-old G2P1 at 25 weeks gestation presents to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath. She reports a history of asthma and states her peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) with good control is usually around 400. During speaking the patient has to stop to catch her breath between words; her PEFR is 210. An arterial blood gas is drawn and oxygen therapy is initiated. She is afebrile and on physical examination expiratory wheezes are heard in all lung fields. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
A. Antibiotics
B. Chest x-ray
C. Inhaled β-agonist
D. Intravenous corticosteroids
E. Theophylline
709. One of your obstetric patients presents to the office at 25 weeks complaining of severe left calf pain and swelling. The area of concern is slightly edematous, but no erythema is apparent. The patient demonstrates a positive Homans sign, and you are concerned that she may have a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following diagnostic modalities should you order?
A. MRI
B. Computed tomographic scanning
C. Venography
D. Real-time ultrasonography
E. X-ray of lower extremity
710. A 20-year-old G1 patient delivers a live-born infant with cutaneous lesions, limb defects, cerebral cortical atrophy, and chorioretinitis. Her pregnancy was complicated by pneumonia at 18 weeks. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Rubella virus
D. Treponemal pallidum
E. Varicella zoster
711. A 34-year-old G2 at 36 weeks delivers a growth-restricted infant with cataracts, anemia, patent ductus arteriosus, and sensorineural deafness. She has a history of chronic hypertension, which was well controlled with methyldopa during pregnancy. She had a viral syndrome with rash in early pregnancy. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Parvovirus
B. Rubella virus
C. Rubeola
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. T. pallidum
712. A 25-year-old G3 at 39 weeks delivers a small-for-gestational-age infant with chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and anemia. The infant displays poor feeding and tone in the nursery. The patient denies eating any raw or undercooked meat and does not have any cats living at home with her. She works as a nurse in the pediatric intensive care unit at the local hospital. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Hepatitis B
D. Parvovirus
E. T. gondii
713. A 23-year-old G1 with a history of a flulike illness, fever, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy during her early third trimester delivers a growth-restricted infant with seizures, intracranial calcifications, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and anemia. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis B
C. Influenza A
D. Parvovirus
E. T. gondii
714. A 32-year-old G5 delivers a stillborn fetus at 34 weeks. The placenta is noted to be much larger than normal. The fetus appeared hydropic and had petechiae over much of the skin. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Parvovirus
C. Rubella virus
D. T. pallidum
E. Varicella zoster
715. A 38-year-woman at 39 weeks delivers a 7-lb infant female without complications. At 2 weeks of life, the infant develops fulminant liver failure and dies. What is the most likely causative virus?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis B
C. Herpes simplex
D. Parvovirus
E. Rubeola
716. A 20-year-old woman who works as a kindergarten teacher presents for her routine visit at 32 weeks. Her fundal height measures 40 cm. An ultrasound reveals polyhydramnios, an appropriately grown fetus with ascites and scalp edema. The patient denies any recent illnesses, but some of the children at her school have been sick recently. What is the most likely cause of the fetal findings?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis B
C. Influenza A
D. Parvovirus
E. Toxoplasmosis gondii
717. A 25-year-old female in her first pregnancy delivers a 6-lb male infant at 38 weeks. The infant develops fever, vesicular rash, poor feeding, and listlessness at 1 week of age. What is the most likely cause of the infant’s signs and symptoms?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Hepatitis B
D. Herpes simplex
E. Listeria monocytogenes
718. A 22-year-old woman delivers a 7-lb male infant at 40 weeks without any complications. On day 3 of life, the infant develops respiratory distress, hypotension, tachycardia, listlessness, and oliguria. What is the most likely cause of the infant’s illness?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Hepatitis B
D. Herpes simplex
E. L. monocytogenes
719. A 20-year-old G1 at 38 weeks gestation presents with regular painful contractions every 3 to 4 minutes lasting 60 seconds. On pelvic examination, she is 3 cm dilated and 90% effaced; an amniotomy is performed and clear fluid is noted. The patient receives epidural analgesia for pain management. The fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. One hour later on repeat examination, her cervix is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?
A. Begin pushing
B. Initiate Pitocin augmentation for protracted labor
C. No intervention; labor is progressing normally
D. Perform cesarean delivery for inadequate cervical effacement
E. Stop epidural infusion to enhance contractions and cervical change
720. A 30-year-old G2P0 at 39 weeks is admitted in active labor with spontaneous rupture of membranes occurring 2 hours prior to admission. The patient noted clear fluid at the time. On examination, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and completely effaced. The fetal head is at 0 station and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Two hours later on repeat examination her cervix is 5 cm dilated and the fetal head is at +1 station. Early decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate tracing. Which of the following is the best next step in her labor management?
A. Administer terbutaline
B. Initiate amnioinfusion
C. Initiate Pitocin augmentation
D. Perform cesarean delivery for arrest of descent
E. Perform cesarean delivery of early decelerations
721. A 32-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation with an epidural has been pushing for 30 minutes with good descent. The presenting fetal head is left occiput anterior with less than 45o of rotation with a station of +3 of 5. The fetal heart rate has been in the 90s for the past 5 minutes and the delivery is expedited with forceps. Which of the following best describes the type of forceps delivery performed?
A. Outlet forceps
B. Low forceps
C. Midforceps
D. High forceps
E. Rotational forceps
722. A 27-year-old G2P1 at 38 weeks gestation was admitted in active labor at 4 cm dilated; spontaneous rupture of membranes occurred prior to admission. She has had one prior uncomplicated vaginal delivery and denies any medical problems or past surgery. She reports an allergy to sulfa drugs. Currently, her vital signs are normal and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Her prenatal record indicates that her Group B streptococcus (GBS) culture at 36 weeks was positive. What is the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis during labor?
A. Cefazolin
B. Clindamycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin
E. Vancomycin
723. A 38-year-old G6P4 is brought to the hospital by ambulance for vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks. She undergoes an emergency cesarean delivery for fetal bradycardia under general anesthesia. In the recovery room 4 hours after her surgery, the patient develops respiratory distress and tachycardia. Lung examination reveals rhonchi and rales in the right lower lobe. Oxygen therapy is initiated and chest x-ray is ordered. Which of the following is most likely to have contributed to her condition?
A. Fasting during labor
B. Antacid medications prior to anesthesia
C. Endotracheal intubation
D. Extubation with the patient in the lateral recumbent position with her head lowered
E. Extubation with the patient in the semierect position (semi-Fowler position)
724. A 23-year-old G1 at 38 weeks gestation presents in active labor at 6 cm dilated with ruptured membranes. On cervical examination the fetal nose, eyes, and lips can be palpated. The fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. The patient’s pelvis is adequate. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A. Perform immediate cesarean section without labor.
B. Allow spontaneous labor with vaginal delivery.
C. Perform forceps rotation in the second stage of labor to convert mentum posterior to mentum anterior and to allow vaginal delivery.
D. Allow patient to labor spontaneously until complete cervical dilation is achieved and then perform an internal podalic version with breech extraction.
E. Attempt manual conversion of the face to vertex in the second stage of labor.
725. A 32-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation presented to the hospital with ruptured membranes and 4 cm dilated. She has a history of two prior vaginal deliveries, with her largest child weighing 3800 g at birth. Over the next 2 hours she progresses to 7 cm dilated. Two hours later, she remains 7 cm dilated. The estimated fetal weight by ultrasound is 3200 g. Which of the following labor abnormalities best describes this patient?
A. Prolonged latent phase
B. Protracted active-phase dilation
C. Hypertonic dysfunction
D. Secondary arrest of dilation
E. Primary dysfunction
726. You are following a 38-year-old G2P1 at 39 weeks in labor. She has had one prior vaginal delivery of a 3800-g infant. One week ago, the estimated fetal weight was 3200 g by ultrasound. Over the past 3 hours her cervical examination remains unchanged at 6 cm. Fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. An intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) reveals two contractions in 10 minutes with amplitude of 40 mm Hg each. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?
A. Ambulation
B. Sedation
C. Administration of oxytocin
D. Cesarean section
E. Expectant
727. A primipara is in labor and an episiotomy is about to be cut. Compared with a midline episiotomy, which of the following is an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy?
A. Ease of repair
B. Fewer breakdowns
C. Less blood loss
D. Less dyspareunia
E. Less extension of the incision
728. A 27-year-old woman (G3P2) comes to the delivery floor at 37 weeks gestation. She has had no prenatal care. She complains that, on bending down to pick up her 2-year-old child, she experienced sudden, severe back pain that now has persisted for 2 hours. Approximately 30 minutes ago she noted bright red blood coming from her vagina. By the time she arrives at the delivery floor, she is contracting strongly every 3 minutes; the uterus is quite firm even between contractions. By abdominal palpation, the fetus is vertex with the head deeply engaged. Fetal heart rate is 130 beats per minutes. The fundus is 38 cm above the symphysis. Blood for clotting is drawn, and a clot forms in 4 minutes. Clotting studies are sent to the laboratory. Which of the following actions can most likely wait until the patient is stabilized?
A. Stabilizing maternal circulation
B. Attaching a fetal electronic monitor
C. Inserting an intrauterine pressure catheter
D. Administering oxytocin
E. Preparing for cesarean section
729. A 23-year-old G1 at 40 weeks gestation presents to the hospital with the complaint of contractions. She states they are occurring every 4 to 8 minutes and each lasts approximately 1 minute. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding. The nurse places an external tocometer and fetal monitor and reports that the patient is having contractions every 2 to 10 minutes. The nurse states that the contractions are mild to palpation. On examination the cervix is 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the vertex is at −1 station. The patient had the same cervical examination in your office last week. The fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. Which of the following stages of labor is this patient in?
A. Active labor
B. Latent labor
C. False labor
D. Stage 1 of labor
E. Stage 2 of labor
730. A 19-year-old G1 at 40 weeks gestation presents to the hospital with the complaint of contractions. She states they are very painful and occurring every 3 to 5 minutes. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding. The nurse places an external tocometer and fetal monitor and reports that the patient is having contractions every 4 to 12 minutes. The nurse states that the contractions are mild to moderate to palpation. On examination the cervix is 1 cm dilated, 60% effaced, and the vertex is at −1 station. The patient had the same cervical examination in your office last week. The fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Send her home
B. Admit her for an epidural for pain control
C. Rupture membranes
D. Administer terbutaline
E. Augment labor with Pitocin
731. A 38-year-old G3P2 at 40 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with gross rupture of membranes occurring 1 hour prior to arrival. The patient is having contraction every 3 to 4 minutes on the external tocometer, and each contraction lasts 60 seconds. The fetal heart rate tracing is 120 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. The patient has a history of rapid vaginal deliveries, and her largest baby was 3200 g. On cervical examination she is 5 cm dilated and completely effaced, with the vertex at −2 station. The estimated fetal weight is 3300 g. The patient is in a lot of pain and requesting medication. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of pain control for this patient?
A. Intramuscular Demerol
B. Pudendal block
C. Local block
D. Epidural block
E. General anesthesia
732. You are following a 22-year-old G2P1 at 39 weeks during her labor. She is given an epidural for pain management. Three hours after administrating the pain medication, the patient’s cervical examination is unchanged. Her contractions are now every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds. The fetal heart rate tracing is 120 beats per minute with accelerations and early decelerations. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A. Place a fetal scalp electrode
B. Rebolus the patient’s epidural
C. Place an IUPC
D. Prepare for a cesarean section secondary to a diagnosis of secondary arrest of labor
E. Administer Pitocin for augmentation of labor
733. A 25-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks is admitted in labor at 5 cm dilated. The fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Two hours later, she is reexamined and her cervix is unchanged at 5 cm dilated. An IUPC is placed and the patient is noted to have 280 Montevideo units (MUV) by the IUPC. After an additional 2 hours of labor, the patient is noted to still be 5 cm dilated. The fetal heart rate tracing remains reactive. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this labor?
A. Perform a cesarean section
B. Continue to wait and observe the patient
C. Augment labor with Pitocin
D. Attempt delivery via vacuum extraction
E. Perform an operative delivery with forceps
734. A 29-year-old G2P1 at 40 weeks is in active labor. Her cervix is 5 cm dilated, completely effaced, and the vertex is at 0 station. She is on oxytocin to augment her labor and she has just received an epidural for pain management. The nurse calls you to the room because the fetal heart rate has been in the 70s for the past 3 minutes. The contraction pattern is noted to be every 3 minutes, each lasting 60 seconds, with return to normal tone in between contractions. The patient’s vital signs are blood pressure 90/40 mm Hg, pulse 105 beats per minute, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 36.1C (97.6F). On repeat cervical examination, the vertex is well applied to the cervix and the patient remains 5 cm dilated and at 0 station, and no vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the deceleration?
A. Cord prolapse
B. Epidural analgesia
C. Pitocin
D. Placental abruption
E. Uterine hyperstimulation
735. You are delivering a 26-year-old G3P2002 at 40 weeks. She has a history of two previous uncomplicated vaginal deliveries and has had no complications this pregnancy. After 15 minutes of pushing, the baby’s head delivers spontaneously, but then retracts back against the perineum. As you apply gentle downward traction to the head, the baby’s anterior shoulder fails to deliver. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Call for help
B. Cut a symphysiotomy
C. Instruct the nurse to apply fundal pressure
D. Perform a Zavanelli maneuver
E. Push the baby’s head back into the pelvis
736. You are delivering a 33-year-old G3P2 and encounter a shoulder dystocia. After performing the appropriate maneuvers, the baby finally delivers, and the pediatricians attending the delivery note that the right arm is hanging limply to the baby’s side with the forearm extended and internally rotated. Which of the following is the baby’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Erb palsy
B. Klumpke paralysis
C. Humeral fracture
D. Clavicular fracture
E. Paralysis from intraventricular bleed
737. A 41-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks, who has been completely dilated and pushing for 3 hours, has an epidural in place and remains undelivered. She is exhausted and crying and tells you that she can no longer push. Her temperature is 38.3C (101F). The fetal heart rate is in the 190s with decreased variability. The patient’s membranes have been ruptured for over 24 hours, and she has been receiving intravenous penicillin for a history of colonization with group B streptococcus bacteria. The patient’s cervix is completely dilated and effaced and the fetal head is in the direct OA position and is visible at the introitus between pushes. Extensive caput is noted, but the fetal bones are at the +3 station. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Deliver the patient by cesarean section
B. Encourage the patient to continue to push after a short rest
C. Attempt operative delivery with forceps
D. Rebolus the patient’s epidural
E. Cut a fourth-degree episiotomy
738. A 28-year-old G1 at 38 weeks had a normal progression of her labor. She has an epidural and has been pushing for 2 hours. The fetal head is direct occiput anterior at +3 station. The fetal heart rate tracing is 150 beats per minute with variable decelerations. With the patient’s last push the fetal heart rate had a prolonged deceleration to the 80s for 3 minutes. You recommend forceps to assist the delivery owing to the nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. Compared to the use of the vacuum extractor, forceps are associated with an increased risk of which of the following neonatal complications?
A. Cephalohematoma
B. Retinal hemorrhage
C. Jaundice
D. Intracranial hemorrhage
E. Corneal abrasions
739. You performed a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery on a 20-year-old G1 at 40 weeks for maternal exhaustion. The patient had pushed for 3 hours with an epidural for pain management. A second-degree episiotomy was cut to facilitate delivery. Eight hours after delivery, you are called to see the patient because she is unable to void and complains of severe pain. On examination you note a large fluctuant purple mass inside the vagina. What is the best management for this patient?
A. Apply an ice pack to the perineum
B. Embolize the internal iliac artery
C. Incision and evacuation of the hematoma
D. Perform dilation and curettage to remove retained placenta
E. Place a vaginal pack for 24 hours
740. A 20-year-old G1 at 41 weeks has been pushing for 21/2 hours. The fetal head is at the introitus and beginning to crown. It is necessary to cut an episiotomy. The tear extends through the sphincter of the rectum, but the rectal mucosa is intact. How should you classify this type of episiotomy?
A. First-degree
B. Second-degree
C. Third-degree
D. Fourth-degree
E. Mediolateral episiotomy
741. A 16-year-old G1P0 at 38 weeks gestation comes to the labor and delivery suite for the second time during the same weekend that you are on call. She initially presented to labor and delivery at 2:00 PM Saturday afternoon complaining of regular uterine contractions. Her cervix was 1 cm dilated, 50% effaced with the vertex at −1 station, and she was sent home after walking for 2 hours in the hospital without any cervical change. It is now Sunday night at 8:00 PM, and the patient returns to labor and delivery with increasing pain. She is exhausted because she did not sleep the night before because her contractions kept waking her up. The patient is placed on the external fetal monitor. Her contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes. You reexamine the patient and determine that her cervix is unchanged. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Perform artificial rupture of membranes to initiate labor
B. Administer an epidural
C. Administer Pitocin to augment labor
D. Achieve cervical ripening with prostaglandin gel
E. Administer 10 mg intramuscular morphine
742. A 25-year-old G1P0 patient at 41 weeks presents to labor and delivery complaining of gross rupture of membranes and painful uterine contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. On digital examination, her cervix is 3 cm dilated and completely effaced with fetal feet palpable through the cervix. The estimated weight of the fetus is about 6 lb, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Which of the following is the best method to achieve delivery?
A. Deliver the fetus vaginally by breech extraction
B. Deliver the baby vaginally after external cephalic version
C. Perform an emergent cesarean section
D. Perform an internal podalic version
E. Perform a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
743. A 25-year-old G1 at 37 weeks presents to labor and delivery with gross rupture of membranes. The fluid is noted to be clear and the patient is noted to have regular painful contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting for 60 seconds each. The fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. On cervical examination she is noted to be 4 cm dilated, 90% effaced with the presenting part a −3 station. The presenting part is soft and felt to be the fetal buttock. A quick bedside ultrasound reveals a breech presentation with both hips flexed and knees extended. What type of breech presentation is described?
A. Frank
B. Incomplete, single footling
C. Complete
D. Double footling
E. Cephalic presentation
744. A 34-year-old G3P2 delivers a baby by spontaneous vaginal delivery. She had scant prenatal care and no ultrasound, so she is anxious to know the sex of the baby. At first glance you notice female genitalia, but on closer examination the genitalia are ambiguous. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this infant?
A. Chromosomal analysis
B. Evaluation at 1 month of age
C. Pelvic ultrasound
D. Thorough physical examination
E. Laparotomy for gonadectomy
745. A 24-year-old primigravid woman, who is intent on breast-feeding, decides on a home delivery. Immediately after the birth of a 4.1-kg (9-lb) infant, the patient bleeds massively from extensive vaginal and cervical lacerations. She is brought to the nearest hospital in shock. Over 2 hours, 9 units of blood are transfused, and the patient’s blood pressure returns to a reasonable level. A hemoglobin value the next day is 7.5 g/dL, and 3 units of packed red blood cells are given. The most likely late sequela to consider in this woman is which of the following?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
C. Sheehan syndrome
D. Simmonds syndrome
E. Cushing syndrome
746. A 27-year-old G4P3 at 37 weeks presents to the hospital with heavy vaginal bleeding and painful uterine contractions. Quick bedside ultrasound reveals a fundal placenta. The patient’s vital signs are blood pressure 140/92 mm Hg, pulse 118 beats per minute, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and temperature 37C (98.6F). The fetal heart rate tracing reveals tachycardia with decreased variability and a few late decelerations. An emergency cesarean section delivers a male infant with Apgar scores of 4 and 9. With delivery of the placenta, a large retroplacental clot is noted. The patient becomes hypotensive, and bleeding is noted from the wound edges and her IV catheter sites. She requires 12 units of packed red blood cells and fresh frozen plasma for resuscitation. After a short stay in the intensive care unit the patient recovers. When can long-term complications related to sequela of postpartum hemorrhage first be noted?
a. 6 hours postpartum
B. 1 week postpartum
C. 1 month postpartum
D. 6 month postpartum
E. 1 year postpartum
747. On postoperative day 3 after an uncomplicated repeat cesarean delivery, the patient develops a fever of 38.2C (100.8F). She has no complaints except for some fullness in her breasts. On examination she appears in no distress; lung and cardiac examinations are normal. Her breast examination reveals full, firm breasts bilaterally slightly tender with no erythema or masses. She is not breast-feeding. The abdomen is soft with firm, nontender fundus at the umbilicus. The lochia appears normal and is nonodorous. Urinalysis and white blood cell count are normal. Which of the following is a characteristic of the cause of her puerperal fever?
a. Appears in less than 5% of postpartum women
B. Appears 3 to 4 days after the development of lacteal secretion
C. Is almost always painless
D. Fever rarely exceeds 37.8C (99.8F)
E. Is less severe and less common if lactation is suppressed
748. A 38-year-old G3P3 begins to breast-feed her 5-day-old infant. The baby latches on appropriately and begins to suckle. In the mother, which of the following is a response to suckling?
A. Decrease of oxytocin
B. Increase of prolactin-inhibiting factor
C. Increase of hypothalamic dopamine
D. Increase of hypothalamic prolactin
E. Increase of luteinizing hormone-releasing factor
749. On postpartum day 2 after a vaginal delivery, a 32-year-old G2P2 develops acute shortness of breath and chest pain. Her vital signs are blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, pulse 130 beats per minute, respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.6C (99.8F). She has new onset of cough. She appears to be in mild distress. Lung examination reveals clear bases with no rales or rhonchi. The chest pain is reproducible with deep inspiration. Cardiac examination reveals tachycardia with 2/6 systolic ejection murmur. Pulse oximetry reveals an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air and oxygen supplementation is initiated. Which of the following is the best diagnostic tool to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Arterial blood gas
B. Chest x-ray
C. CT angiography
D. Lower extremity Dopplers
E. Ventilation-perfusion scan
750. A 26-year-old G1P1 is now postoperative day (POD) 6 after a low transverse cesarean delivery for arrest of active phase. On POD 2, the patient developed a fever of 390C (102.2F) and was noted to have uterine tenderness and foul-smelling lochia. She was started on broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage for endometritis. The patient states she feels fine now and wants to go home, but continues to spike fevers each evening. Her lung, breast, and cardiac examinations are normal. Her abdomen is nontender with firm, nontender uterus below the umbilicus. On pelvic examination her uterus is appropriately enlarged, but nontender. The adnexa are nontender without masses. Her lochia is normal. Her white blood cell count is 12 with a normal differential. Blood, sputum, and urine cultures are all negative for growth after 3 days. Her chest x-ray is negative. Which of the following statements is true regarding this patient’s condition?
A. It usually involves both the iliofemoral and ovarian veins.
B. Antimicrobial therapy is usually ineffective
C. Fever spikes are rare
D. Heparin therapy is always needed for resolution of fever
e. Vena caval thrombosis may accompany either ovarian or iliofemoral thrombophlebitis.
751. A 24-year-old G1P1 presents for her routine postpartum visit 6 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She states that she is having problems sleeping and is feeling depressed over the past 2 to 3 weeks. She reveals that she cries on most days and feels anxious about taking care of her newborn son. She denies any weight loss or gain, but states she doesn’t feel like eating or doing any of her normal activities. She denies suicidal or homicidal ideation. Which of the following is true regarding this patient’s condition?
A. A history of depression is not a risk factor for developing postpartum depression.
. b. Prenatal preventive intervention for patients at high risk for postpartum depression is best managed alone by a mental health professional.
C. Young, multiparous patients are at highest risk
. d. Postpartum depression is a self-limiting process that lasts for a maximum of 3 months.
E. About 8% to 15% of women develop postpartum depression.
752. A 35-year-old G3P3 presents to your office 3 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She has been successfully breast-feeding. She complains of chills and a fever to 38.3C (101F) at home. She states that she feels like she has flu, but denies any sick contacts. She has no medical problems or prior surgeries. The patient denies any medicine allergies. On examination she has a low-grade temperature of 38C (100.4F) and generally appears in no distress. Head, ear, throat, lung, cardiac, abdominal, and pelvic examinations are within normal limits. A triangular area of erythema is located in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. The area is tender to palpation. No masses are felt and no axillary lymphadenopathy is noted. Which of the following is the best option for treatment of this patient?
A. Admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics
B. Antipyretic for symptomatic relief
C. Incision and drainage
D. Oral dicloxacillin for 7 to 10 days
E. Oral erythromycin for 7 to 10 days
753. A 22-year-old G1 at 34 weeks is tested for tuberculosis because her father, with whom she lives, was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis. Her skin test is positive and her chest x-ray reveals a granuloma in the upper left lobe. Which of the following is true concerning infants born to mothers with active tuberculosis?
A. The risk of active disease during the first year of life may approach 90% without prophylaxis.
B. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccination of the newborn infant without evidence of active disease is not appropriate.
. c. Future ability for tuberculin skin testing is lost after BCG administration to the newborn.
D. Neonatal infection is most likely acquired by aspiration of infected amniotic fluid.
E. Congenital infection is common despite therapy
754. A 21-year-old G1 at 40 weeks, who underwent induction of labor for severe preeclampsia, delivered a 3900-g male infant via vaginal delivery after pushing for 21/2 hours. A second-degree midline laceration and sidewall laceration were repaired in the usual fashion under local analgesia. The estimated blood loss was 450 cc. Magnesium sulfate is continued postpartum for the seizure prophylaxis. Six hours after the delivery, the patient has difficulty voiding. Which is the most likely cause of her problem?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Infusion of magnesium sulfate
C. Vulvar hematoma
D. Ureteral injury
E. Use of local analgesia for repair
755. A 30-year-old G5P3 has undergone a repeat cesarean delivery. She wants to breast-feed. Her past medical history is significant for hepatitis B infection, hypothyroidism, depression, and breast reduction. She is receiving intravenous antibiotics for endometritis. Which of the following would prevent her from breast-feeding?
A. Maternal reduction mammoplasty with transplantation of the nipples
B. Maternal treatment with ampicillin
C. Maternal treatment with fluoxetine
D. Maternal treatment with levothyroxine
E. Past hepatitis B infection
756. A 32-year-old G2P2 develops fever and uterine tenderness 2 days after cesarean delivery for nonreassuring fetal heart tones. She is placed on intravenous penicillin and gentamicin for her infection. After 48 hours of antibiotics she remains febrile, and on examination she continues to have uterine tenderness. Which of the following bacteria is resistant to these antibiotics and is most likely to be responsible for this woman’s infection?
A. Proteus mirabilis
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. -Streptococci
E. Anaerobic streptococci
757. A 23-year-old G2P2 requires a cesarean delivery for arrest of active phase. During labor she develops chorioamnionitis and is started on ampicillin and gentamicin. The antibiotics are continued after the cesarean delivery. On postoperative day 3, the patient remains febrile and symptomatic with uterine fundal tenderness. No masses are appreciated by pelvic examination. She is successfully breast-feeding and her breast examination is normal. Which antibiotic should be initiated to provide better coverage?
A. Cephalothin
B. Polymixin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Vancomycin
E. Clindamycin
758. A 21-year-old G2P2 calls her physician 7 days postpartum because she is concerned that she is still bleeding from the vagina. She describes the bleeding as light pink to bright red and less heavy than the first few days postdelivery. She denies fever or any cramping pain. On examination she is afebrile and has an appropriately sized, nontender uterus. The vagina contains about 10 cc of old, dark blood. The cervix is closed. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Antibiotics for endometritis
B. High-dose oral estrogen for placental subinvolution
C. Oxytocin for uterine atony
D. Suction dilation and curettage for retained placenta
E. Reassurance
759. A 28-year-old G2P2 presents to the hospital 2 weeks after vaginal delivery with the complaint of heavy vaginal bleeding that soaks a sanitary napkin every hour. Her pulse is 89 beats per minute, blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg, and temperature 37.1C (98.9F). Her abdomen is nontender and her fundus is located above the symphysis pubis. On pelvic examination, her vagina contained small blood clots and no active bleeding is noted from the cervix. Her uterus is about 12 to 14 weeks size and nontender. Her cervix is closed. An ultrasound reveals an 8-mm endometrial stripe. Her hemoglobin is 10.9, unchanged from the one at her vaginal delivery. β-hCG is negative. Which of the following potential treatments would be contraindicated?
A. Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
B. Oxytocin injection (Pitocin)
C. Ergonovine maleate (Ergotrate)
) d. Prostaglandins
E. Dilation and curettage
760. A 22-year-old G1P0 has just undergone a spontaneous vaginal delivery. As the placenta is being delivered, a red fleshy mass is noted to be protruding out from behind the placenta. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A. Begin intravenous oxytocin infusion
B. Call for immediate assistance from other medical personnel
C. Continue to remove the placenta manually
D. Have the anesthesiologist administer magnesium sulfate
E. Shove the placenta back into the uterus
761. Following a vaginal delivery, a woman develops a fever, lower abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness. She is alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. Large gram-positive rods suggestive of clostridia are seen in a smear of the cervix. Which of the following is most closely tied to a decision to proceed with hysterectomy?
A. Close observation for renal failure or hemolysis
Hemolysis b. Immediate radiographic examination for hydrosalpinx
C. High-dose antibiotic therapy
D. Fever of 103F
E. Gas gangrene
762. Three days ago you delivered a 40-year-old G1P1 by cesarean section following arrest of descent after 2 hours of pushing. Labor was also significant for prolonged rupture of membranes. The patient had an epidural, which was removed the day following delivery. The nurse pages you to come to see the patient on the postpartum floor because she has a fever of 38.8C (102F) and is experiencing shaking chills. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and her pulse is 120 beats per minute. She has been eating a regular diet without difficulty and had a normal bowel movement this morning. She is attempting to breast-feed, but says her milk has not come in yet. On physical examination, her breasts are mildly engorged and tender bilaterally. Her lungs are clear. Her abdomen is tender over the fundus, but no rebound is present. Her incision has some serous drainage at the right apex, but no erythema is noted. Her pelvic examination reveals uterine tenderness but no masses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pelvic abscess
B. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis
C. Wound infection
D. Endometritis
E. Atelectasis
763. You are called to see a 37-year-old G4P4 for a fever to 38.7C (101.8F). She is postoperative day 3 after cesarean delivery for arrest of active-phase labor. She underwent a long induction for postdate pregnancy and had rupture of membranes for more than 18 hours. Her other vital signs include pulse 118 beats per minute, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg. She complains of some incisional and abdominal pain, but is otherwise fine. HEENT, lung, breast, and cardiac examinations are within normal limits. On abdominal examination she has uterine fundal tenderness. Her incision has mild erythema around the staple edges and serous drainage along the left side. Pelvic examination reveals a tender uterus, but no adnexal masses. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic to treat this patient with initially?
A. Oral Bactrim
B. Oral dicloxacillin
C. Oral ciprofloxacin
D. Intravenous gentamicin
E. Intravenous cefotetan
764. A 34-year-old G1P1 who delivered her first baby 5 weeks ago calls your office and asks to speak with you. She tells you that she is feeling very overwhelmed and anxious. She feels that she cannot do anything right and feels sad throughout the day. She tells you that she finds herself crying all the time and is unable to sleep at night. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Postpartum depression
@ b. Maternity blues
C. Postpartum psychosis
D. Bipolar disease
E. Postpartum blues
765. You are doing postpartum rounds on a 23-year-old G1P1 who is postpartum day 2 after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. As you walk in the room, you note that she is crying. She states she can’t seem to help it. She denies feeling sad or anxious. She has not been sleeping well because of getting up every 2 to 3 hours to breast-feed her new baby. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?
? a. Time and reassurance, because this condition is self-limited
B. Referral to psychiatry for counseling and antidepressant therapy
C. Referral to psychiatry for admission to a psychiatry ward and therapy with Haldol
D. A sleep aid
E. Referral to a psychiatrist who can administer electroconvulsive therapy
766. A 20-year-old G1P1 is postpartum day 2 after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a 6-lb 10-oz baby boy. She is trying to decide whether to have you perform a circumcision on her newborn. The boy is in the wellbaby nursery and is doing very well. In counseling this patient, you tell her which of the following recommendations from the American Pediatric Association?
A. Circumcisions should be performed routinely because they decrease the incidence of male urinary tract infections.
. b. Circumcisions should be performed routinely because they decrease the incidence of penile cancer
C. Circumcisions should be performed routinely because they decrease the incidence of sexually transmitted diseases
D. Circumcisions should not be performed routinely because of insufficient data regarding risks and benefits.
E. Circumcisions should not be performed routinely because it is a risky procedure and complications such as bleeding and infection are common.
767. You are counseling a new mother and father on the risks and benefits of circumcision for their 1-day-old son. The parents ask if you will use analgesia during the circumcision. What do you tell them regarding the recommendations for administering pain medicine for circumcisions?
A. Analgesia is not recommended because there is no evidence that newborns undergoing circumcision experience pain
B. Analgesia is not recommended because it is unsafe in newborns.
C. Analgesia in the form of oral Tylenol is the pain medicine of choice recommended for circumcisions.
D. Analgesia in the form of a penile block is recommended.
E. The administration of sugar orally during the procedure will keep the neonate preoccupied and happy.
768. A patient was induced for being postterm at 421/2 weeks. Immediately following the delivery, you examine the baby with the pediatricians and note the following on physical examination: a small amount of cartilage in the earlobe, occasional creases over the anterior two-thirds of the soles of the feet, 4-mm breast nodule diameter, fine and fuzzy scalp hair, and a scrotum with some but not extensive rugae. Based on this physical examination, what is the approximate gestational age of this male infant?
A. 28 weeks
B. 33 weeks
C. 36 weeks
D. 38 weeks
E. 42 weeks
769. A 40-year-old G4P5 at 39 weeks gestation has progressed rapidly in labor with a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy with normal prenatal labs, including an amniocentesis for advanced maternal age. The patient begins the second stage of labor and after 15 minutes of pushing starts to demonstrate deep variable heart rate accelerations. You suspect that she may have a fetus with a nuchal cord. You expediently deliver the baby by low-outlet forceps and hand the baby over to the neonatologists called to attend the delivery. As soon as the baby is handed off to the pediatric team, it lets out a strong spontaneous cry. The infant is pink with slightly blue extremities that are actively moving and kicking. The heart rate is noted to be 110 on auscultation. What Apgar score should the pediatricians assign to this baby at 1 minute of life?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 8
D. 7
E. 6
770. A 32-year-old G2P1 at 41 weeks is undergoing an induction of oligohydramnios. During the course of her labor, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates severe variable decelerations that do not respond to oxygen, fluid, or amnioinfusion. The patient’s cervix is dilated to 4 cm. A low-transverse cesarean delivery is performed for nonreassuring fetal heart tones. After delivery of the fetus you send a cord gas, which comes back with the following arterial blood values: pH 7.29, Pco2 50, and Po2 20. What condition does the cord blood gas indicate?
A. Normal fetal status
B. Fetal acidemia
C. Fetal hypoxia
D. Fetal asphyxia
E. Fetal metabolic acidosis
771. You are asked to assist in the well-born nursery with neonatal care. Which of the following is a part of routine care in a healthy infant?
A. Administration of ceftriaxone cream to the eyes for prophylaxis for gonorrhea and chlamydia
B. Administration of vitamin A to prevent bleeding problems
C. Administration of hepatitis B vaccination for routine immunization
D. Cool-water bath to remove vernix
E. Placement of a computer chip in left buttock for identification purposes
772. You are making rounds on a 29-year-old G1P1 who underwent an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at term on the previous day. The patient is still very confused about whether she wants to breast-feed. She is a very busy lawyer and is planning on going back to work in 4 weeks, and she does not think that she has the time and dedication that breast-feeding requires. She asks you what you think is best for her to do. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding breast-feeding?
A. Breast-feeding decreases the time to return of normal menstrual cycles.
B. Breast-feeding is associated with a decreased incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.
C. Breast-feeding is a poor source of nutrients for required infant growth
. d. Breast-feeding is associated with an increased incidence of childhood obesity.
E. Breast-feeding is associated with a decreased incidence of childhood attention deficit disorder.
773. A 22-year-old G1P1 who is postpartum day 2 and is bottle-feeding complains that her breasts are very engorged and tender. She wants you to give her something to make the engorgement go away. Which of the following is recommended to relieve her symptoms?
A. Breast binder
B. Bromocriptine
C. Estrogen-containing contraceptive pills
D. Pump her breasts
E. Use oral antibiotics
774. A 36-year-old G1P1 comes to see you for a routine postpartum examination 6 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She is currently nursing her baby without any major problems and wants to continue to do so for at least 9 months. She is ready to resume sexual activity and wants to know what her options are for birth control. She does not have any medical problems. She is a nonsmoker and is not taking any medications except for her prenatal vitamins. Which of the following methods may decrease her milk supply?
A. Intrauterine device
B. Progestin only pill
C. Depo-Provera
D. Combination oral contraceptives
E. Foam and condoms
775. A 30-year-old G3P3, who is 8 weeks postpartum and regularly breast-feeding calls you and is very concerned because she is having pain with intercourse secondary to vaginal dryness. Which of the following should you recommend to help her with this problem?
A. Instruct her to stop breast-feeding
B. Apply hydrocortisone cream to the perineum
C. Apply testosterone cream to the vulva and vagina
D. Apply estrogen cream to the vagina and vulva
E. Apply petroleum jelly to the perineum
776. A 25-year-old G1P1 comes to see you 6 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery for a routine postpartum examination. She denies any problems and has been breast-feeding her newborn without any difficulties since leaving the hospital. During the bimanual examination, you note that her uterus is irregular, firm, nontender, and about a 15-week size. Which of the following is the most likely etiology for this enlarged uterus?
A. Subinvolution of the uterus
B. The uterus is appropriate size for 6 weeks postpartum
C. Fibroid uterus
D. Adenomyosis
E. Endometritis
777. A 39-year-old G3P3 comes to see you on day 5 after a second repeat cesarean delivery. She is concerned because her incision has become very red and tender and pus started draining from a small opening in the incision this morning. She has been experiencing general malaise and reports a fever of 38.8C (102F). Physical examination indicates that the Pfannenstiel incision is indeed erythematous and is open about 1 cm at the left corner, and is draining a small amount of purulent liquid. There is tenderness along the wound edges. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
? a. Apply Steri-Strips to close the wound
B. Administer antifungal medication
C. Probe the fascia
D. Take the patient to the OR for debridement and closure of the skin
E. Reapproximate the wound edge under local analgesia
778. A 30-year-old G3P3 is postoperative day 4 after a repeat cesarean delivery. During the surgery she received 2 units of packed red blood cells for a hemorrhage related to uterine atony. She is to be discharged home today. She complains of some yellowish drainage from her incision and redness that just started earlier in the day. She states that she feels feverish. She is breast-feeding. Her past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic hypertension. She weighs 110 kg. Her vital signs are temperature 37.8C (100.1F), pulse 69 beats per minute, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 143/92 mm Hg. Breast, lung, and cardiac examinations are normal. Her midline vertical skin incision is erythematous and has a foul-smelling purulent discharge from the lower segment of the wound. It is tender to touch. The uterine fundus is not tender. Which of the following is not a risk factor for her condition?
B. Corticosteroid therapy
C. Preoperative antibiotic administration
D. Anemia
E. Obesity
779. A 75-year-old G2P2 presents to your gynecology office for a routine examination. She tells you that she does not have an internist and does not remember the last time she had a physical examination. She says she is very healthy and denies taking any medication, including hormone replacement therapy. She has no history of abnormal Pap smears. She is a nonsmoker and has an occasional cocktail with her dinner. She does not have any complaints. In addition, she denies any family history of cancer. The patient tells you that she is a widow and lives alone in an apartment in town. Her grown children have families of their own and live far away. She states that she is self-sufficient and spends her time visiting friends and volunteering at a local museum. Her blood pressure is 140/70 mm Hg. Her height is 5 ft 4 in and she weighs 130 lb. Her physical examination is completely normal. Which of the following are the most appropriate screening tests to order for this patient? a. Pap smear and mammogram b. Pap smear, mammogram, and colonoscopy c. Mammogram, colonoscopy, and bone densitometry@ d. Mammogram, colonoscopy, bone densitometry, and TB skin test e. Mammogram, colonoscopy, bone densitometry, TB skin test, and auditory testing 780. A 72-year-old G5P5 presents to your office for well-woman examination. Her last examination was 7 years ago, when she turned 65. She has routine checks and laboratory tests with her internist each year. Her last mammogram was 6 months ago and was normal. She takes a diuretic for hypertension. She is a retired school teacher. Her physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the best vaccination to recommend to this patient?
A. Diphtheria-pertussis
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Measles-mumps-rubella
e. Pneumocystis
781. A 65-year-old G3P3 presents to your office for annual checkup. She had her last well-woman examination 20 years before when she had a hysterectomy for fibroids. She denies any medical problems, except some occasional stiffness in her joints early in the morning. She takes a multivitamin daily. Her family history is significant for cardiac disease in both her parents and breast cancer in a maternal aunt at the age of 42 years. Her physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate set of laboratory tests to order for this patient?
A. Lipid profile and fasting blood sugar
B. Lipid profile, fasting blood sugar, and TSH
C. Lipid profile, fasting blood sugar, TSH, and CA-125
D. Lipid profile, fasting blood sugar, TSH, and urinalysis
e. Lipid profile, fasting blood sugar, TSH, urinalysis, and CA-125
782. You are following up on the results of routine testing of a 68-year-old G4P3 for her well-woman examination. Her physical examination was normal for a postmenopausal woman. Her Pap smear revealed parabasal cells, her mammogram was normal, lipid profile was normal, and the urinalysis shows hematuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Colposcopy
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Renal sonogram
D. Urine culture
E. No further treatment/evaluation is necessary if the patient is asymptomatic
783. A 74-year-old woman presents to your office for well-woman examination. Her last Pap smear and mammogram were 3 years ago. She has hypertension, high cholesterol, and osteoarthritis. She stopped smoking 15 years ago, and denies alcohol use. Based on this patient’s history which of the following medical conditions should be this patient’s biggest concern?
A. Alzheimer disease
B. Breast cancer
C. Cerebrovascular disease
D. Heart disease
E. Lung cancer f. Trauma
784. A 16-year-old G0 female presents to your office for a routine annual gynecologic examination. She reports that she has previously been sexually active, but currently is not dating anyone. She has had three sexual partners in the past and says she diligently used condoms. She is a senior in high school and is doing well academically and has many friends. She lives at home with her parents and a younger sibling. She denies any family history of medical problems, but says her 80-year-old grandmother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She denies any other family history of cancer. She says she is healthy and has no history of medical problems or surgeries. She reports having had chicken pox. She smokes tobacco and drinks beer occasionally, but denies any illicit drug use. She had her first Pap smear and gynecologic examination last year with another doctor and reports that everything was normal. Her menses started at age 13 and are regular and light. She denies any dysmenorrhea. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Her height is 5 ft 6 in and she weighs 130 lb. Based on this patient’s history, what would be the most likely cause of death if she were to die at age 16?
A. Suicide
B. Homicide
C. Motor vehicle accidents
D. Cancer
E. Heart disease
785. A 17-year-old G1P1 presents to your office for her yearly wellwoman examination. She had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery last year. She has been sexually active for the past 4 years and has had six different sexual partners. Her menses occurs every 28 days and lasts for 4 days. She denies any intermenstrual spotting, postcoital bleeding, or vaginal discharge. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drug use. Which of the following are appropriate screening tests for this patient?
A. Pap test
B. Pap test and gonorrhea and chlamydia cervical cultures
C. Pap test and herpes simplex cultures
D. Pap test and hemoglobin level assessment
E. Pap test and hepatitis C antibody
786. A 15-year-old woman presents to your office for her first wellwoman examination while she is on summer break from school. She denies any medical problems or prior surgeries. She had chicken pox at age 4. Her menses started at the age of 12 and are regular. She has recently become sexually active with her 16-year-old boyfriend. She states that they use condoms for contraception. Her physical examination is normal. Which of the following vaccines is appropriate to administer to this patient?
a. Hepatitis A vaccine
B. Pneumococcal vaccine
C. Varicella vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
E. Influenza vaccine
787. A 26-year-old woman presents to your office for her well-woman examination. She denies any medical problems or prior surgeries. She states that her cycles are monthly. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills for birth control. Her physical examination is normal. As part of preventive health maintenance, you recommend breast self-examination and instruct the patient how to do it. Which of the following is the best frequency and time to perform breast self-examinations?
A. Monthly, in the week prior to the start of the menses
B. Monthly, in the week after cessation of menses
C. Monthly, during the menses
D. Every 3 months, in the week prior to the start of the menses
E. Every 6 months, in the week prior to the start of the menses
788. A 15-year-old woman presents to your office for her first well-woman examination. She has a history of asthma, for which she uses an inhaler as needed. She denies any prior surgeries. Her menses started at the age of 13 and are regular. She has recently become sexually active with her 17-year-old boyfriend. She states that they use condoms for contraception, but she is interested in something more effective. Which of the following is the most appropriate instrument to use when performing the Pap smear test in this patient?
A. Graves speculum
B. Pederson speculum
C. Pediatric speculum
D. Vaginoscope
E. Nasal speculum
789. A married 41-year-old G5P3114 presents to your office for a routine examination. She reports being healthy except for a history of migraine headaches. All her Pap smears have been normal. She developed gestational diabetes in her last pregnancy. She drinks alcohol socially, and admits to smoking occasionally. Her grandmother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer when she was in her fifties. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg; height is 5ft 5 in; weight is 150 lb. Which of the following is the most common cause of death in women of this patient’s age?
a. HIV
B. Cardiac disease
C. Accidents
D. Suicide
E. Cancer
790. A 44-year-old G6P3215 presents for her well-woman examination. She tells you that all of her deliveries were vaginal and that her largest child weighed 2900 g at birth. How many full-term pregnancies did this patient have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
791. A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks gestation was admitted to the hospital. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and she delivered a 3,500 g (7.7lb) baby vaginally. The current pregnancy demonstrated a breech presentation at 30 weeks gestation. A repeat ultrasonogram now shows persistent frank breech presentation with an estimated fetal weight of 2,800 g (6lb). No fetal or uterine abnormalities are noted. She has intact membranes. Examination shows a closed cervix. Fetal heart monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Cesarean section
B. External cephalic version
C. Internal podalic version
D. Allow normal vaginal delivery
E. Apply forceps now
792. A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician's office because of weight gain and mild generalized body swelling. She has no previous medical problems and her pregnancy has been otherwise uncomplicated. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows mild generalized edema; the remainder of her examination is unremarkable. A fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 48% Platelets: 230,000/mm3 Serum creatinine: 1.0 g/dl Alanine aminotransferase: 35 U/L Urinalysis: 2+protein Amniotic fluid analysis shows immature fetal lungs. She lives close to the hospital and is compliant with medication follow-ups Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Recommend bed rest at home with frequent follow-up
B. Immediate induction of vaginal delivery
C. Start intravenous magnesium sulfate and admit her for close monitoring
D. Schedule a cesarean section as soon as possible
E. Start furosemide and lisinopril to prevent further edema from proteinuria
793. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 30 weeks gestation comes to the hospital because of new onset painful, regular uterine contractions that began 5 hours ago. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her second pregnancy was complicated by preterm labor at 28 weeks gestation. She has no discharge, leakage of fluid or bleeding from the vagina; she has no dysuria or urgency. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 18/min. Pelvic examination shows a soft, partially effaced and posterior cervix dilated to 2cm. A Nitrazine test is negative. Nonstress test shows a reassuring fetal heart pattern and uterine contractions occurring every 7 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A Tocolysis
B. Amnioinfusion
C. Reassure and discharge home
D. Augment delivery
E. Cervical cerclage
794. A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of vulvar lesions. Examination reveals multiple small teardrop shaped growths at the vestibule of the vulva. Application of trichloroacetic acid results incomplete resolution of the lesions. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her lesions?
A. Secondary syphilis
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Carcinoma of vulva
D. Lichen sclerosis
E. Lichen planus
795. A 40-year-old G3P2012 presents for her well-woman examination. She has had two vaginal deliveries and her largest baby weighed 4000 g. She had a postpartum bilateral tubal ligation. Her menstrual cycles are regular every 28 days and last 5 days. She states that with cough she may occasionally lose some urine; otherwise she has no complaints. She denies any medical problems. On examination she weighs 56 kg and her blood pressure is 132/81 mm Hg. What type of speculum would be most appropriate to use when performing this patient’s Pap test?
A. Graves speculum
B. Pederson speculum
C. Vaginoscope
D. Hysteroscope
E. Pediatric speculum
796. A 36-year-old G2P2 presents for her well-woman examination. She has had two spontaneous vaginal deliveries without complications. Her largest child weighed 3500 g at birth. She uses oral contraceptive pills and denies any history of an abnormal Pap smear. She does not smoke, but drinks about four times per week. Her weight is 70 kg. Her vital signs are normal. After placement of the speculum, you note a clear cyst approximately 2.5 cm in size on the lateral wall of the vagina on the right side. The cyst is nontender and does not cause the patient any dyspareunia or discomfort. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this mass?
A. Bartholin duct cyst
B. Gartner duct cyst
C. Lipoma
D. Hematoma
E. Inclusion cyst
797. A 50-year-old G4P4 presents for her well-woman examination. She had one cesarean delivery followed by three vaginal deliveries. Her menses stopped 1 year ago and she occasionally still has a hot flash. She tells you that about 10 years ago she was treated with a laser conization for carcinoma in situ of her cervix. Since that time, all of her Pap tests have been normal. What recommendation should you make regarding how frequently she should undergo Pap smear testing?
A. Every 3 months
B. Every 6 months
C. Every year
D. Every 2 years
E. Every 3 years
798. A 45-year-old G3P3 presents for her yearly examination. She last saw a doctor 7 years ago after she had her last child. She had three vaginal deliveries, the last of which was complicated by gestational diabetes and preeclampsia. She has not been sexually active in the past year. She once had an abnormal Pap smear for which she underwent cryotherapy. She denies any medical problems. Her family history is significant for coronary artery disease in her dad and a maternal aunt who developed ovarian cancer at the age of 67. Which of the following is best screening approach for this patient?
A. Pap smear
B. Pap smear and mammography
C. Pap smear, mammography, and cholesterol profile
. Pap smear, mammography, cholesterol profile, and fasting blood sugar
E. Pap smear, mammography, cholesterol profile, fasting blood sugar, and serum CA-125
799. A 30-year-woman presents to your office with the fear of developing ovarian cancer. Her 70-year-old grandmother recently died from ovarian cancer. You discuss with her the risks factors and prevention for ovarian cancer. Which of the following can decrease a woman’s risk of ovarian cancer?
A. Use of combination oral contraceptive therapy
B. Menopause after age 55
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D. Nulliparity
E. Ovulation induction medications
800. A 42-year-old G4P3104 presents for her well-woman examination. She has had three vaginal deliveries and one cesarean delivery for breech. She states her cycles are regular and denies any sexually transmitted diseases. Currently she and her husband use condoms, but they hate the hassle of a coital-dependent method. She is interested in a more effective contraception because they do not want any more children. She reports occasional migraine headaches and had a serious allergic reaction to anesthesia as a child when she underwent a tonsillectomy. She drinks and smokes socially. She weighs 78 kg, and her blood pressure is 142/89 mm Hg. During her office visit, you counsel the patient at length regarding birth control methods. Which of the following is the most appropriate contraceptive method for this patient?
A. Intrauterine device
B. Bilateral tubal ligation
C. Combination oral contraceptives
D. Diaphragm
E. Transdermal patch
801. A 48-year-old G2P2 presents for her well-woman examination. She had two uneventful vaginal deliveries. She had a vaginal hysterectomy for fibroids and menorrhagia. She denies any medical problems, but has not seen a doctor in 6 years. Her family history is significant for stroke, diabetes, and high blood pressure. On examination she is a pleasant female, stands 5 ft 3 in tall, and weighs 85 kg. Her blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg, pulse 70 beats per minute, respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute, and temperature 37C (98.4F). Her breast, lung, cardiac, abdomen, and pelvic examinations are normal. The next appropriate step in the management of this patient’s blood pressure is which of the following?
A. Beta-blocker
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Diuretic
D. Diet, exercise, weight loss, and repeat blood pressure in 2 months
802. A 32-year-old female presents for her yearly examination. She has been smoking one pack of cigarettes a day for the past 12 years. She wants to stop, and you make some recommendations to her. Which of the following is true regarding smoking cessation in women?
A. Ninety percent of those who stop smoking relapse within 3 months.
B. Nicotine replacement in the form of chewing gum or transdermal patches has not been shown to be effective in smoking cessation programs
C. Smokers do not benefit from repeated warnings from their doctor to stop smoking.
D. Stopping cold turkey is the only way to successfully achieve smoking cessation
E. No matter how long one has been smoking, smoking cessation appears to improve the health of the lungs.
803. Which of the following statements is true regarding contraception?
(A) The vaginal contraceptive ring is changed weekly for 3 consecutive weeks, then removed for 1 week to allow for withdrawal bleeding
B) Because of effects on the cytochrome P450 system, Depo-Provera should not be used in patients taking antiepileptic drugs (e.g., phenytoin).
(C) Amenorrhea while using the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUD) should raise concern immediately for ectopic pregnancy.
(D) A diaphragm should be inserted no more than 6 hours before intercourse and should remain in place about 6 hours after intercourse
(E) Failure rate for tubal ligation over 10 years is less than 1 pregnancy per 1000 surgeries performed.
804. A 24-year-old nullipara is being evaluated for infertility. On pelvic examination, she has a single cervix. A diagnostic laparoscopy shows a double uterine fundus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of her uterine anomaly?
(A) septate uterus
(B) unicornuate uterus
(C) bicornuate uterus
(D) didelphic uterus
(E) a diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposed uterus
805. A 58-year-old G6P4Ab2 diabetic woman who weighs 122.6 kg (270 lb) has her first episode of vaginal bleeding in 5 years. Her physician performs an outpatient operative hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage (D&C). Which of the following is an indication for the procedure and the most likely diagnosis?
(A) endometrial cancer because of her high parity
Parity (B) endometrial cancer because of her obesity
(C) cervical cancer because of her age
(D) cervical cancer because of her diabetes
(E) ovarian cancer because of her obesity
806. A pregnant woman is being followed by a nephrologist for chronic glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is normal at 28 weeks’ gestation?
(A) blood pressure of 132/86 mmHg
(B) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 21 mg/100 mL
(C) serum creatinine of 1.1 mg/100 mL
(D) glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 130 mL/min
(E) glycosuria with a plasma glucose of 130 mg/100 mL
780. A 72-year-old G5P5 presents to your office for well-woman examination. Her last examination was 7 years ago, when she turned 65. She has routine checks and laboratory tests with her internist each year. Her last mammogram was 6 months ago and was normal. She takes a diuretic for hypertension. She is a retired school teacher. Her physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the best vaccination to recommend to this patient?
A. Diphtheria-pertussis
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Measles-mumps-rubella
E. Pneumocystis
{"name":"1031 Questions OBGYN for UHS Part I ( 692-806) Na", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"692. A 29-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Four years ago, she had a low transverse cesarean section in her second pregnancy. Physical examination shows bright red vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 100\/70 mm Hg, pulse is 90\/min and respirations are 16\/min. Fetal heart monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?, 693. A 30-year-old African-American woman with type-1 diabetes and hypertension comes to the physician's office after obtaining a positive result from a home pregnancy test. She takes insulin and enalapril. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2° C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 130\/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72\/min, and respirations are 14\/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her BUN is 18 mg\/dl and creatinine is 1.4 mg\/dl. A repeat β-HCG test performed in the office confirms pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?, 694. A 30-year-old obese woman comes to the physician with a six-month history of oligomenorrhea. She has never had this problem before. She has no galactorrhea. She has gained significant weight over the past two years despite a regular exercise program. She has also experienced hair loss during this time. She has had regular Pap smears since the age of 21; none of which have shown any abnormalities. She takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Her mother has a history of endometrial carcinoma and her grandmother had a history of ovarian carcinoma. Physical examination shows male pattern baldness. Abdominal and pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Serum prolactin level and thyroid function tests are normal. Which of the following is indicated in the initial workup of this patient?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
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