C.A. Florida

A visually engaging illustration showing various aspects of insurance, including home, car, and liability themes, all integrated into a bright and informative design.

Florida Insurance Knowledge Quiz

Test your knowledge of Florida insurance policies with this comprehensive quiz! Designed for both aspiring professionals and those looking to refresh their understanding, this quiz covers essential concepts related to property and liability insurance in Florida.

  • 142 multiple choice questions
  • Covers topics from homeowner's policies to no-fault laws
  • Ideal for learners at all levels
142 Questions36 MinutesCreated by LearningLizard101
1. Frank owned a home that was destroyed by a hurricane. Both ABC and XYZ Banks were listed as additional interests on his homeowner policy. The insurance company will make a payment to:
A. The first mortgagee,ABC
B. The Insured
C. Jointly to ABC and XYZ
D. All listed interests
2. Insurance applies separately to each insured as if other insureds did not exist. This is defined as:
A. Severability
B. Conditional
C. Warranty
D. None of the above
3. Property insurance policies usually contain a(n) __________ clause, stating the insured cannot dump damaged property on the insurer and demand its full value:
A. Pro Rata
B. Abandonment
C. Liberalization
D. All of the above
4. A(n) __________ is one wherein economic loss would be suffered from an adverse happening to the subject:
A. Conditional Contract
B. Personal Contract
C. Economic Contract
D. Insurable Interest
5. States that if the insurer adopts a revision which would broaden coverage without additional premium within some period of time prior to the policy period or during the policy period, the insured receives the benefit of such broadened coverage.
A. Cancellation Clause
B. Policy Period
C. Pro Rata
D. Liberalization
6. The __________ states that when there is an unbroken connection between an occurrence and damage that grows out of the occurrence, then the resultant damage is all a part of the occurrence.
A. Doctrine of Proximate Cause
B. Doctrine of Perils & Hazards
C. Insurance Policy Handbook
D. Doctrine of Property Insurance
7. The Loss Settlement Valuation that subtracts an allowance for depreciation is defined as?
A. Actual Cash Value
B. Replacement Cost
C. "Old for New"
D. None of the Above
8. A policy condition, either based on information in the insured's application or inserted by the insurer, is defined as:
A. Warranty
B. Misrepresentation
C. Concealment
D. None of the Above
9. The following are basic characteristics of a property or liability insurance contract, except:
A. Personal Contract
B. Conditional Contract
C. Loss of Settlement Contract
D. Contract of Adhesion
10. The Insurer's responsibility to pay for a property loss may be conditioned on the insured having used reasonable means to avoid the loss, to protect the property against further loss, and to give the insurer proof of the loss is defined as?
A. Conditional Contract
B. Adhesion Contract
C. Indemnity Contract
D. All of the Above
11. Which of the following is not one of the "Thresholds" in the "No-Fault" law?
A. Death of the Insured
B. Temporary Injury of the Insured
C. A permanent loss of a bodily function
D. Permanent scarring on the face of the insured
12. Under Mechanical Breakdown Coverage, new cars are eligible for service up to:
A. 36Months/36,000Miles
B. 24Months/36,000Miles
C. 12,000Months/12,000Miles
D. 12 Months/36,000 Miles
13. If financial responsibility doesn't exist at the time of an accident, which of the following things must happen to avoid penalties?
A. The legally valid claims of others must be satisfied (up to 10/20/10)
B. The owner and operator must provide certification of future responsibility for future accidents
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above
14. As to required proof for future accidents by purchase of auto liability insurance, the insurer must make a filing (Form SR-22) certifying that coverage is in effect, and this certification must remain on file for __________ years:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
15. The Business Automobile Policy includes all of the following coverage forms except:
A. The Garage Coverage Form
B. The Trailer Interchange CoverageForm
C. The Truckers Coverage Form
D. The Business Auto Coverage Form
16. Personal Injury Protection, or PIP, has a __________ per person, per accident limit.
A. 10,000
B. 20,000
C. 1,000
D. Depends on the damaged property
17. The following examples are referred to as __________ liability limits: 25/50/25 or 10/20/10.
A. Split
B. Single
C. Straight
D. None of the Above
18. Jeremy has a not at fault accident. If he has PIP with a $1,000 deductible, how much can he expect his PIP coverage to pay toward his medical bills that total $3,000?
A. $1,600
B. $1,000
C. $2,400
D. $3,000
19. Frank has a not-at-fault accident, he has basic PIP, no deductible and Med pay of $5,000. How much will his Med Pay contribute to medical bills of $15,000?
A. $15,000
B. $5,000
C. $3,000
D. $0, Frank is not-at-fault
20. Which of the following is not one of the rating factors for a Homeowner's Policy?
A. Type of Construction
B. Location of Risk
C. Age & Gender of Insured
D. Proximity to Fire Department
21. On a Homeowner's Policy, covers items that are not permanently attached to the dwelling. This is defined as:
A. Other Structures
B. Excess Structures
C. Personal Property
D. Dwelling
22. A lender has an insurable interest in a home and finds protection in the:
A. Loss Payee Clause
B. Mortgagee Clause
C. Lender Clause
D. Additional Insured Clause
23. Which of the following forms is "all-risk" on the dwelling policy?
A. DP-1, or the Basic Form
B. DP-2, or the Broad
C. DP-3, or the Special Form
D. None of the Above
24. When the basic liability limits provided by the policy are insufficient for an insureds needs, two coverage forms are used to provide the additional amounts of coverage:
A. Excess Liability
B. Umbrella
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above
25. Which of the following is not covered under Coverage C, Personal Property?
A. A fire breaks out in the residence and an over night guest loses his clothes in the fire
B. A fish dies because he has been left alone for a week without food
C. The insureds daughters tennis racket is stolen from her locker
D. The insureds suitcase and clothing, valued at $1,500, are stolen from his hotel
26. All of the following are eligible for a Homeowner's Policy, except?
A. An apartment tenant
B. A condominium owner
C. Four-family dwelling owner-occupant
D. A business condo owned by a local insurance company
27. Which of the following are characteristics of Homeowner's Insurance?
A. Protects against economic loss to residences and household property and legal liabilities
B. Owner-occupants of 1-4 family dwellings
C. Renters who maintain residential occupancy in any type of building
D. All of the Above
28. Jeremy owns a home that is recently damaged due to a hurricane. The repair estimate is averaged at $25,000 and Jeremy decides to stay in a hotel because most of the damage is to his bedroom and kitchen. Under a Homeowner's Policy, what coverage will pay for the hotel room bill?
A. Fair Rental Value
B. Value Obligation
C. Loss of Use
D. Insurers Duties
29. An insured who wishes to purchase flood insurance, but is located in a moderate or low risk flood zone may do so by purchasing a:
A. Preferred Risk Flood Policy
B. Standard Flood Policy
C. Universal Flood Insurance
D. None of the Above
30. Used only for Commercial Condominiums, it covers the unit-owners business personal property and the personal property of others in the insured's care, custody or control:
A. Condominium Dwelling Form
B. Personal Condominium Unit Owners Form
C. Condominium Unit Owners Form
D. None of the Above
31. The Commercial Property Contract includes all of the following, except:
A. Common Policy Conditions
B. Commercial Property Conditions
C. Coverage Form
D. Commercial Loss Schedule
32. Insures a condominium association against direct physical loss or damage to buildings, business personal property and personal property of others in the care, custody or control of the association and located at the premises:
A. Condominium Association Form
B. Condominium Unit Owners Form
C. Condominium Insured Owner Form
D. None of the Above
33. Sometimes referred to as commercial fire and allied lines, this is the form of insurance that covers direct and indirect losses related to properties other than one-to-four family dwellings and farm properties:
A. Business Property Insurance
B. Building Property Insurance
C. Commercial Property Insurance
D. None of the Above
34. Under Commercial Property Policies, Florida law requires an insurer to give the insured at least __________days advance written notice of non-renewal.
A. 25
B. 90
C. 45
D. None of the Above
35. When a business's personal property values fluctuate, a single, fixed amount of insurance could produce either over- or under-insurance at any given time. With this option, the limit of coverage is set at an amount somewhat higher than expected peak values.
A. Value Reporting
B. Replacement Cost
C. Agreed Value
D. None of the Above
36. Liberalization states, "The insured gets the benefit of any broadened coverage if the company, within __________ days of inception, adopts a form revision that is broader and without increase in premium."
A. 10 days
B. 55 days
C. 65 days
D. 45 days
37. Used to cover buildings in the course of construction:
A. Builders Risk Policy
B. Builders Replacement Policy
C. Construction Replacement Policy
D. None of the Above
38. First developed as an extension of Ocean Marine coverage, to provide coverage for cargo traveling over land, instead of by sea.
A. Commercial Inland Marine Coverage
B. Personal Inland Marine Coverage
C. Ocean Commercial Coverage
D. None of the Above
39. Protects against loss of business income that results from damage to covered property from a covered cause of loss.
A. Business Income Insurance Coverage
B. Business Income Replacement Coverage
C. Business Income Actual Value Coverage
D. None of the Above
40. What payment covers several areas of costs related to claims, and are payable in addition to the policy limits?
A. Supplementary
B. Liability
C. Personal Injury
D. All of the Above
41. Three full-time employees from a local furniture company are horsing around and one is pushed into a machine that cut his foot. How will the company's General Liability respond?
A. The MedPay Section must pay Primary
B. The General Liability Policy will pay up to $20,000 in medical payments
C. The GL policy will not pay
D. Only property damage is covered under GL policy
42. Which of the following can be found in a Commercial General Liability Contract?
A. Declarations
B. Common Policy Conditions
C. Occurrence and Claims-Made Forms
D. All of the Above
43. There is __________ coverage for injury, damage or clean-up costs caused by pollutants, subject to minor exceptions:
A. 50%
B. 10%
C. 0%
D. A Percentage Ratio
44. Under a Commercial General Liability Policy, a basic limit of __________ per person applies to Medical Payments:
A. $1,000
B. $10,000
C. $2,500
D. $5,000
45. The Commercial General Liability __________ identifies the named insured and address, states the policy period and premium and miscellaneous information about the insured, and specifies the limits of coverage that apply.
A. Declarations
B. Contract
C. Policy
D. None of the Above
46. The Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion endorsement, in general, __________ all hazards related to nuclear energy.
A. Includes
B. Excludes
C. Prohibits
D. Summarizes
47. Toxic wastes escaped from a gas station disposal tank. The insured operator discovers the leak and cleans up the spill. Unfortunately, the waste quickly seeped into the ground and has caused illness among the residents of a neighboring community This is an example of?
A. Loss Known
B. Known Loss
C. Claims-Made
D. None of the Above
48. Applies to BI or PD which occurs during the policy period, regardless of any later time at which a claim is made:
A. Occurrence Form
B. Claims-Made Form
C. Premises and Operations Exposure
D. None of the Above
49. Applies only to a BI or PD which occurs on or after the retroactive date, and for which the claim is received or recorded by an insured or the company during the policy period:
A. Occurrence
B. Claims-Made
C. Operations Completed
D. None of the Above
50. All of the following are components of Workers Compensation, except:
A. Up to $750,000 in Death Benefits
B. Reimbursement for Medical Expenses incurred
C. Reimbursement for lost wages on percentage basis
D. Uneral costs up to $7,500
51. The following are classes of disability, except:
A. Permanent Total
B. Temporary Total
C. PermanentImpairment
D. Temporary Full
52. The measure to determine disability benefits is the __________ of the employee at the time of injury:
A. Average Monthly Wage
B. Average Weekly Wage
C. Average Daily Wage
D. Income Estimate
53. Mandatory for risks exceeding certain annual premiums, recognizes the prior loss experience of the risk and applies either a debit for unfavorable experience or a credit for better-than- expected loss results. This is defined as:
A. The Experience Rating Plan
B. The Retrospective Rating Plan
C. The Risk Plan
D. None of the Above
54. Under workers compensations, a rate is charged for every __________ of payroll to employees.
A. $100
B. $1,000
C. $10
D. $500
55. Under Workers Compensation, Part Four Your Duties if Injuries Occur, an employer is required to:
A. Provide the names/addresses of injured persons and witnesses
B. Promptly provide any legal papers
C. Cooperate and assist as insurer requests
D. All of the Above
56. Under Workers Compensation, Employers Liability includes:
A. Claims by others for the liabilities to insureds employees
B. Claims by relatives of injured employees for consequential damages
C. Claims made by employees that are not subject to Workers Comp Laws
D. All of the Above
57. Samantha eats uncooked chicken at a local barbecue joint and becomes violently ill. Which of the following workers compensation benefits would pay for this occurrence?
A. A products and completed operations form
B. A premises and operations form
C. An owners and contractors protective liability form
D. None of the Above
58. An optional alternative providing for adjustment of premium after expiration, based on a guaranteed basic premium to the insurer to which is added the actual losses incurred by the insured. This is defined as:
A. Cost-Plus Rating Plan
B. ExperienceRatingPlan
C. Retrospective Rating Plan
D. None of the Above
59. Under Employer's Liability, the minimum limits of liability are:
A. 100/100/500
B. 100/500/1000
C. 500/100/500
D. 100/500
60. Under Inside The Premises - Robbery or Safe Burglary of Personal Property, a special limit of __________ per occurrence applies to articles whose principal value is precious metals, precious or semiprecious stones, pearls or furs, and to the physical or intrinsic value of manuscripts, drawings or records:
A. $1,000
B. $2,000
C. $4,000
D. $5,000
61. Under Crime Insurance, losses must be discovered within 1 year. This is defined as:
A. The Discovery Period
B. The Loss Sustained Period
C. The Open Period
D. All of the Above
62. Crime Insurance is _________ over any other Insurance coverage.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Excess
D. Recess
63. Cover only losses that both occurred and were discovered during the policy period, or within one year of its expiration. This is defined as:
A. Discovery
B. Loss Sustained
C. Sustained Loss
D. None of the Above
64. Any loss discovered during the policy period or within 60 days after its expiration (one year after expiration for losses connected with employee benefit plans) is covered regardless of when it occurred. This is defined as:
A. Loss Sustained
B. Valuation
C. Discovery
D. None of the Above
65. Under Crime Insurance, the insured is covered for loss by:
A. Theft
B. Burglary
C. Robbery
D. All of the Above
66. Provides for loss of money and securities outside the premises in the care, custody and control of a messenger or armored car service resulting from theft, disappearance or destruction. This is defined as:
A. Inside the Premises
B. Outside the Premises
C. Care, Custody, & Control
D. None of the Above
67. Taking or attempted taking of property from within a locked safe or vault, by unlawful entry, with visible marks of forcible entry, or taking of the safe or vault from inside the premises. This is defined as:
A. Safe Burglary
B. Inside the Premises
C. Custodial Burglary
D. None of the Above
68. Covers for all types of property, when surrendered away from the premises as a result of a threat to do bodily harm to the insured or an employee, or to a relative or invitee of either, who is (or allegedly is) being held captive. This is defined as:
A Extortion
B. Surrendered Property
C. Client's Property
D. None of the Above
69. Employee Theft Coverage may be written in the following ways:
A. Scheduled Persons Coverage
B. Scheduled Position Coverage
C. Blanket Coverage
D. All May Apply
70. Which of the following are NOT a type of bond?
A. Contract
B. Fiduciary
C. Court
D. Apprentice
71. Which of the following are characteristics of a License Bond?
A. To guarantee the licensee will act according to laws
B. Protect public from unfair business practice
C. Proper collection and payment of taxes
D. All of the Above
72. Guarantees the performance between the principle and the obligee:
A. Principal
B. Obligee
C. Surety
D. All of the Above
73. This bond guarantees indemnification to the obligee for any losses resulting from the principal's failure to complete the contract work in accord with specifications:
A. Performance
B. Bid
C. Court
D. Maintenance
74. One who undertakes to perform, to fulfill a contract or to meet an obligation is known as:
A. Principal
B. Obligee
C. Surety
D. All of the Above
75. This form of bond is required to accompany a bid for a contract which will require that the successful bidder furnish further bond if awarded the job:
A. Bid
B. Performance
C. Court
D. Maintenance
76. May act as part of the bonding party and agrees to reimburse the surety for any loss it may suffer from having bonded the principal:
A. Indemnitor
B. Surety
C. Obligee
D. None of the Above
77. Which of the following are parties to a Bond?
A. Principal
B. Obligee
C. Surety
D. All of the Above
78. This type of bond covers streets, sidealks, sewers, etc.:
A. Sidewalk
B. Subdivision
C. Supply
D. None of the Above
79. When a person has lost stock certificates, bonds or similar instruments, a bond is generally required by the issuing company to reissue the document. This is known as a:
A. Public Official Bond
B. Lost Instrument Bond
C. Public Instrument Bond
D. None of the Above
80. A __________ is a selected group of hospitals and medical practitioners in a given area who have joined together in an effort to reduce medical costs.
A. HMO
B. Major Medical Insurance
C. Coinsurance
D. PPO
81. Define the coverage that pays a flat amount per day for hospitalization, regardless of expenses or other insurance:
A. Hospitilization
B. Hospital Indemnity
C. Hospital Services
D. All of the Above
82. This optional provision states that if the insured becomes totally disabled, premiums are waived but the coverage remains in force:
A. Waiver of Subrogation
B. Waiver of Premium
C. Waiver of Value
D. None of the Above
83. Provides coverage for expenses, including loss of income, arising from an accident. This is defined as?
A. Accident Insurance
B. Hospitilization
C. Hospital Pay
D. None of the Above
84. This type of provision states the insurer can refuse to renew the policy only under certain conditions. The policy must state the conditions under which the policy will not be renewed. This is defined as?
A. Conditionally Renewable
B. Guaranteed Renewable
C. Optionally Renewable
D. None of the Above
85. The coverage that is intended to afford protection against catastrophic losses is defined as?
A Major Medical
B. HMO
C. PPO
D. None of the Above
86. A policy may contain a provision which states a period of time between issuance and acceptance before sickness benefits begin. This is defined as:
A. Waiting Period
B. Elimination Period
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above
87. Characteristics of an HMO plan usually include:
A. Small of non-existent Deductibles
B. Fewer Exclusions
C. Insurance services to members through employed physicians
D. All of the Above
88. Provides indemnification to the insured for basic hospitalization of room and board in the hospital, nursing care, laboratory fees, operating room, medical supplies, etc. This is defined as?
A. Hospitalization Expense
B. Hospital Indemnity
C. Accident Policy
D. All of the Above
89. A(n) __________ provides comprehensive health services to its members for a prepaid fixed fee, equivalent to an insurance premium.
A. HMO
B. PPO
C. Major Medical Plan
D. All of the Above
90. Established in 1973, this association was created for applicants who are unable to obtain insurance in the private market:
A. FWCJUA
B. FWUA
C. Citizens
D. FRPCJUA
E. FAJUA
91. In 2002, the Florida Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association (FRPCJUA) and the Florida Windstorm Joint Underwriting Association (FWUA), were combined to create:
A. FWCJUA
B. FWUA
C. Citizens
D. FRPCJUA
E. FAJUA
92. Passed during a legislative session in 1993, this association was created for employers who cannot obtain workers compensation insurance in the private market:
A. FWCJUA
B. FWUA
C. Citizens
D. FRPCJUA
FAJUA
93. A General Lines Agent instructs a licensed Customer Representative 4-40 to thoroughly cover the details of a new life insurance product with every Homeowner customer who calls or visits the office. The agent provides training on the new product. Although the Customer Representative does not have a Life License, he or she feels comfortable with the training and does as requested. Which of the following is true?
A. This practice is acceptable if done in the office under supervision of General Lines Agent
B. This practice is acceptable because adequate training and product knowledge was provided
C. This practice is unacceptable and may result in the suspension or revocation of the Customer Representative's license
D. This practice is only acceptable if the product training was certified by the Life Insurance Company
94. Unlike a Customer Representative, a General Lines Claim Adjuster need not be appointed with the Department of Financial Services.
A. True
B. False
95. While selling an Automobile policy to a customer, an agent tells them that they are also required to purchase an Emergency Road Service Plan, even though that is not true. This is an example of:
A. Misrepresentation
B. Lack of Fitness
C. Deception
D. Sliding
96. A licensed General Lines Claim Adjuster is required to complete how many hours of continuing education every two years?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
97. Once a Customer Representative 4-40 has been licensed and appointed for at least 3 years, he or she may transact insurance in the home of an existing customer.
A. True
B. False
98. After pleading guilty or no contest to a felony, a licensed individual has _________ days to inform the Department?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
99. Must be licensed, appointed by a General Lines Agent and can transact AUTO insurance only in the Office Only.
A. Customer Representative 4-40
B. Limited Customer Representative 4-42
C. General Lines Claim Adjuster 6-20
D. General Lines Agent 2-20
100. Defaming a competitor company or agent is not only unprofessional, it can also result in a license suspension.
A. True
B. False
101. Defaming a competitor company or agent is not only unprofessional, it can also result in a license suspension.
A. True
B. False
102. A General Lines Claim Adjuster is required to obtain the same number of Continuing Education hours as a licensed Customer Service Representative.
A. True
B. False
103. An Insurance Company which is formed under the laws of the State of Illinois, and has its Home Office there, is considered a:
A. US Domestic Company
B. Foreign Company
C. Alien Company
D. Unadmitted Company
104. One who is involved in the investigation, adjustment, negotiation and/or trial preparations of claims arising under insurance policies is defined as:
A. Insurance Agent
B. General Lines Agent
C. Claims Adjuster
D. All of the Above
105. Commonly referred to as claims auditor Establishing a dollar value on a claim is defined as:
A. Negotiation
B. Evaluation
C. Adjusting
D. None of the Above
106. Damaged property that may be retrieved, reconditioned and sold to reduce an insured loss is defined as:
A. Junk
B. Salvage
C. Covered Property
D. Peril
107. The voluntary or intentional relinquishment of a known right is defined as a(n):
A. Waiver
B. Estoppel
C. Avoidance of Performance
D. None of the Above
108. The principle of utmost good faith on which an insurance contract is based places serious responsibilities on the claims adjuster in regards to:
A. Conduct
B. Work Habits
C. Claim Handling Activites
D. All of the Above
109. The adjusters basic activities in claims handling are:
A. Investigation
B. Evaluation
C. Negotiation
D. All of the Above
110. Under the Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act, penalties are provided for misrepresentation of business practices, which include all of the following except:
A. Failing to act promptly
B. Failure to explain claim denials in writing
C. Denying claims with reasonable investigation
D. Failure to maintain complaint handling procedures
111. An adjuster who represents the financial interests of the insured named in the policy is defined as a(n):
A. Public Adjuster
B. Bureau Adjuster
C. Fee Adjuster
D. Independent Adjuster
112. When investigating liability insurance claims, which of the following three major elements are determined:
A. Coverage
B. Liability
C. Damages
D. All of the Above
113. A relationship that requires maintenance of a high degree of fidelity and loyalty to the interests of the principal, whether or not the adjuster is a direct employee is defined as:
A. Fiduciary
B. Estoppel
C. Public
D. NoneoftheAbove
114. An adjuster who is self employed and not affiliated with either insurers or bureaus is defined as a(n):
A. Fee Adjuster
B. Public Adjuster
C. Bureau Adjuster
D. Independent Adjuster
115. The adjuster's investigation may include all of the following except:
A. Verification of Bills and Estimates
B. Photographs
C. Witness Canvasses
D. Policy Cancellation
116. The assertion of an alleged legal right against an insurer, which carries with it a demand for appropriate relief, is defined as:
A. Adjustment
B. Summons
C. Claim
D. None of the Above
117. Relieving the financial burden on the claimant by making certain payments to the claimant even before the claim can be negotiated is defined as:
A. Advanced Payment
B. Full Release Settlement
C. Non-Advanced Payment
D. Scheduled Payment
118. The process of disposing of an insurance claim is defined as:
A. Adjusting
B. Claims Management
C. Adjustment
D. None of the Above
119. All of the following are requirements for the "Code of Ethics," except:
A. Adjusters should not give legal advice
B. Adjusters may negotiate with a claimant who is represented by an attorney
C. A witness who requests a copy of a statement given must be provided with one
D. Adjusters will keep an unprejudiced and open mind
120. A written statement given by the insured to the insurer acknowledging that money received in the settlement of damages is received, not as a final payment, but as an advance pending an outcome of a claim against the person responsible for the damage. This is defined as a(n):
A. Loan Receipt
B. Subrogation Loan
C. Full Release Statement
D. Partial Release Statement
121. Duties and functions of the Department of Financial Services include all of the following except:
A. Approve the issuance of licenses
B. Rating and underwriting rules
C. Claims Supervision
D. Investigate charges of unethical behavoir
122. An adjuster who is a salaried employee under the supervision of the home, branch, or regional claims department of insurers is defined as a(n):
A. Company or Staff Adjuster
B. Fee Adjuster
C. Public Adjuster
D. Bureau Adjuster
123. Which of the following are not considered to be an adjuster:
A. Employee or Staff Adjuster
B. Independent Adjuster
C. Public Adjuster
D. General Lines Adjuster
124. An applicant for a license as an adjuster may qualify as an adjuster in the following fields (but not limited to):
A. All lines of insurance except life and annuities
B. Property and Casualty
C. Workers Compensation Insurance
D. All of the Above
125. A motor vehicle or mobile home which is a total loss is defined as:
A. Lost Profit
B. Salvage
C. Salvageable
D. All of the Above
126. When making any payment for damage to an automobile for a partial loss, the insurer shall have printed on the loss settlement, "Failure to use the insurance proceeds in accordance with the security agreement, if any, could be a violation of s.812.014, Florida Statutes." This is payment for a(n):
A. Third Party Claim
B. Two Party Claim
C. Derivative Claim
D. All of the Above
127. The District of Columbia and any state or territory of the United States in which an insurance agent maintains his or her principal place of residence or principal place of business and is licensed to act as an insurance agent. This is defined as:
A. Business Territory
B. Home Territory
C. Home State
D. None of the Above
128. Any material which is or may have been a motor vehicle or mobile home, which is inoperable and which material is in such condition that its highest or primary value is either in its sale or transfer as scrap metal or for its component parts, or a combination of the two. This is defined as:
A. Junk
B. Derelict
C. Major Component Parts
D. None of the Above
129. An individual appointed by a general lines or agency to assist that agent or agency in transacting the business of insurance from the office of that agent or agency is defined as:
A. Customer Representative
B. GeneralLinesAgent
C. Adjuster
D. None of the Above
130. The authority given by an insurer or employer to a licensee to transact insurance or adjust claims on behalf of an insurer or employer is defined as:
A. Appointment
B. Express Authority
C. Registered
D. Certificate of Authority
131. The Department may issue a nonrenewable temporary license authorizing the appointment of a general lines insurance agent, life agent, or an industrial fire or burglary agent, for a period not to exceed:
A. 1 Year
B. 6 Weeks
C. 1 Month
D. 6 Months
132. How many continuing education hours must an insurance adjuster complete every 2 years?
A. 12
B. 20
C. 24
D. 14
133. Which of the following are considered unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices:
A. False Statements
B. Unfair Discrimination
C. Unlawful Rebates
D. All of the Above
134. A customer representative appointed by a general lines agent or agency in transacting only the business of private passenger motor vehicle insurance from the office of that agent or agency is defined as:
A. Automobile Agent
B. Automobile Representative
C. Limited Custome Service Representative
D. Limited Customer Service Agent
135. An individual representing an insurer as to life insurance and annuity contracts, including agents appointed to transact life insurance, fixed-dollar annuities, or variable contracts by the same insurer is defined as:
A. Life Agent
B. Life Representative
C. General Lines Agent
D. None of the Above
136. Charging an applicant for a specific ancillary coverage or product, in addition to the cost of the insurance coverage provided for, without the informed consent of the applicant is a practice of:
A. Churning
B. Sliding
C. Soliciting
D. None of the Above
137. Which of the following are reasons for refusal, suspension or revocation of a license or appointment?
A. Lack of Qualifications
B. Failure to Pass State Examinations
C. Fraudulent or Dishonest Practices
D. All of the Above
138. Every licensee shall notify the department, in writing, after a change of name, residence address, principal business street address and/or mailing address within how many days?
A. 60
B. 30
C. 15
D. 90
139. An agent who transacts any one or more of the following types of insurance: Property, Casualty, Surety, Marine, and Health is defined as a(n):
A. Customer Service Representative
B. Adjuster
C. Health Agent
D. General Lines Agent
140. An agent representing a health maintenance organization, or as to health insurance only, an insurer transacting health insurance is defined as a(n):
A. Health Agent
B. Health Representative
C. HMO Agent
D. None of the Above
141. An applicant for a temporary license must be:
A. A natural person at least 18 years of age
B. A US citizen or legal alien who possesses work authorization
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above
142. One who is duly authorized by a subsisting certificate of authority issued by the department to transact insurance in this state. This is defined as a(n):
A. Unauthorized
B. Certified
C. Domiciled Insurer
D. Authorized
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