Medical Billing and Coding

The difference between the provider's actual charge and the allowable charge is called _______________.
V code
Write off
Utilization review
Upcoding
Which defines unbundling correctly?
Three-digit code that describes a classification of a product or service provided to the patient
With in 1 calendar year a claim's date of service
Providers and facilities on the formulary
Using codes that describe different components of a treatment instead of using a single code that describes all steps of the procedure
Providers and facilities out of the net work is described as:
Tier 1
Tier 2
Tier 3
Tier 4
Organization other than a patient which pays for services, such as insurance companies, Medicare and Medicaid are called_____________.
Primary Insurance
Secondary insurance
Tertiary Insurance
Third party Payer
Mr. Allis is admitted at Sentara Northern Virginia Hospital and is being monitored by Dr. Gory. Dr Gory is Mr. Allis' __________
Attending Physician
Referring Physician
Supervisiing Provider
All
The procedure used to visualize the uterus is termed as:
Arthroscopy
Hysteroscopy
Colonoscopy
Colposcopy
The IXth (ninth) cranial nerve is termed as:
Vagus nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Which is the positive urine protein for Multiple Myeloma?
Vanilmandelic acid
Cathecolamines
Bence - Jones Protein (BJP)
Albumin
Which defines utilization review (UR)?
Codes used to classify visits when circumstances other than disease or injury are the reason for the appointment.
A process used to determine the medical necessity of a particular procedure or service, designed to ensure that the procedure or service is appropriate and is being provided in the most cost-effective way.
Assigning a diagnosis or procedure code at a higher level than the documentation supports
Three digit code that describes a classification of product or service provided to the patient
Using multiple codes that describe different components of a treatment instead of using a single code that describes all steps of the procedure is__________________
UB-04 code
Unbundling
Upcoding
Timely filing requirement
Timely filing requirement is defined as ________________
Providers and facilities not on the formulary
Within 1 calendar year of a claim's date of service
Providers and facililties out of the network
Aging report within 1 year
Which is the correct Tier related to its definition?
Tier 1 Providers and facilities in a PPO's network
Tier 2 Providers and facilities out of the network
Tier 3 Providers and facilities within a broader, contracted network of the insurance company
Tier 1 Provider's and facilities not on the formulary
Ms Elizabeth is under the monitoring of Dr. Carl's care. Dr. Carl is Elizabeth's _____________
Subscriber
Primary Care Physician (PCP)
Supervising provider
Attending Physician
Physicians are not allowed to refer patients to a particular with whom they have a financial relationship. This law is _________________
Staff Model
Stark Law
HIPAA
SCHIP
A model of HMO that provides hospitalization and physician services through its own staff is named as ______________.
Staff Model
Stark Law
Revenue Code
Remittance Advice (RA)
Code that explains the reason for a payment adjustment is called________________.
RA
RARC
Revenue Code
Reimbursement
Codes that are not related to a specifc claim are termed as ______________
PHI
Provider-level adjustment reason code
Private insurance
Private fee-for-service plan
A HIPAA rule that establishes protections for the privacy of individual's health information is ______________
Privacy Rule
Prior approval number
Primary Insurance
Predetermination
A review that looks at whether the procedure could be performed safely but less expensively in an outpatient setting is termed ________________
Preauthorization
Precertification
Predetermination
Precounselation
The amount the patient owes is called:
Premium
Deductible
Coinsurance
Patient responsibility
Which is used when no other code applies to the adjustment?
Ordering physician
Other adjustment
Out-of-network
Out-of-pocket maximum
A unique 10-digit code for providers required by HIPAA is which of the following?
NPI
Network model
Notice of exclusions
MS-DRG grouper
A modifier can be defined as which of the following?
A private health insurance that pays for most of the charges not covered by Parts A and B
A private health insurance that pays for most of the charges not covered by Parts C and D
Additional information about types of services, and part of valid CPT or HCPCS
The incidence of cases of disease in a specific population
Plans that provides focused, specialized health care for specific groups of people, such as those who have both Medicare and Medicaid, live in a long-term care facility, or have chronic medical conditions is termed as _________________.
Medicare specialty plan
Medicare Summary Notice (MSN)
Medigap
Modifier
The organ that receives a hormone is classfied as the
Exocrine organ
Serum assay
Target organ
HHNS
A patient is admitted to the hospital for surgical removal of a neoplasm with adjunct chemotherapy. While in the hospital, the patient's COPD and hypertension were also monitored. Which diagnosis should be coded as the principal diagnosis?
Neoplasm
COPD
Hypertension
Chemotherapy
ICD-10-CM, which one of the following choices is a code placeholder that has no meaning?
Z
0
-51
X
Which one of the following choices is the correct code for osteochondropathy of the elbow and ankle?
M93.90
M93.07
M93.92
M93.99
What degree is a burn if it completely damages the epidermis and then part of the dermis?
First
Second
Third
Need more information
Symptoms that most patients experience with a given condition are known as
Integral symptoms
Related symptoms
Unrelated symptoms
Uncertain diagnoses
A patient overdoses on a prescription drug because he was acidentally following the incorrect doses set by the physician. This incident would be classified as a(n)
Adverse effect
Poisoning
Underdosing
Toxic effect
A negative physical reaction is coded as a(n)
Adverse effect
Complication
Misadventure
External cause
Which term means "to spread and invade organs"?
Neoplasm
Malignant
Metastasize
CA insitu
If a physician documents "metastatic cancer in lung, liver, and bone," what's the primary cancer site?
Bone
Liver
Lung
Unknown
Nausea and pain are both examples of
Signs
Symptoms
Abnormal laboratories
A living patient is donating a kidney. Which one of the following diagnosis codes indicates a kidney donor?
Z31.5
Z34.01
Z52.4
Z28.01
A patient previously smoked for 14 years, but no longer smokes. Which one of the following choices is the correct ICD-10-CM code for history of tobacco use?
Z72.0
Z87.891
V15.82
When coding burns for multiple sites, it's important to remember to assign
Separate codes for each burn site
Only one main burn code
Only one combination code
One code only for the highest degree of burn
Which of the following choices is a tissue replacement using from another person?
Autograft
Allograft
Xenograft
Synthetic
Which one of the following choices is defined as "the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admision of the patient to the hospital"?
Principal procedure
Principal diagnosis
Secondary diagnosis
Secondary procedure
Which of the following choices is a result of using external cause codes?
Higher reimburement payments for hospitals
More complicated code assignments
Ability to track who is at fault for medical costs
Database of nationally required manadatory reporting
Which of the following episodes of care indicates the patient that the patient received active treatment for an injury during the current encounter?
Initial
Subsequent
Sequela
Status
A patient was admitted to the hospital with slurred speech, facial drooping, and left arm weakness. On discharge, the physician documents "possible stroke." What should be listed as the principal diagnosis?
Slurred speech
Facial drooping
Left arm weakness
Stroke
A patient sees a doctor for diabetic cataracts. He also has diabetic neuropathic arthropathy. How many codes will be assigned for this encounter?
1
2
3
4
An undetermined type of poisoning due to Trimeton would be coded to which one of an undetermined type of poisoning due to Trimeton would be coded to which one of the following groups?
T45.0X1
T45.0X2
T45.0X3
T45.0X4
If a physician documents "personal history of breast cancer," which one of the following choices indicates the correct way to search the coding manual index for the code assignment?
History > personal > malignant neoplasm
Malignant > neoplasm > history
Neoplasm > history > personal
Personal > history > neoplasm
Jone Doe visits a physician office for a required pre-employment examination for a new job. Which diagnosis code should be assigned?
Z00.110
Z02.1
Z00.00
Z08
A patient with type 1 diabetes comes into the office for wound care of a diabetic foot ulcer with muscle necrosis on the heel of the foot. Which diagnosis code is sequenced first?
Type 1 diabetes
Combination code for type 1 diabetes with foot ulcer
Non pressure chronic foot ulcer, left heel
Necrosis, left heel
On May 15 the physician documents, "Hypertension based on multiple elevated blood pressure readings from March, April and May. The coder should assign code(s) for
Elevated blood pressure readings and hypertension
Hypertension
Hypretension for March, April, and May
Elevated blood pressure for March, April, and May
The extraction of specific data from a medical record, often for use in an external database, such as a cancer registry is called ___________________
Abstracting
Sequencing
Coding
Abuse
Practices that directly or indirectly result in unnecessary costs to the Medicare program is termed as _____________
Abuse
Account number
Accounts receivable
Activity
ICD Coding is used to assign codes to:
Payments
Diagnosis
Procedures
All
An EOB is sent by the:
Patient
Biller
Insurance carrier
Provider
To ensure the patients' information is protected, the government enacted:
Medicare
HIPAA
Coding mandates
Tricare
An outstanding payment from a patient is ocnsidered delinquent after:
10 days
1 year
30 days
60 days
Which ICD-10 category would you use to code "tachycardia"?
I00-I99
D00-D99
K00-K59
None
COB stands for:
Coding of benefits
Coordinaiton of biopsies
Calcualtion of benefits
Coordination of benefits
Inorder to accept payment from the carrier, the provider must:
Be licenced
Accept assignment
Submit claim
All
Modifiers are attached to:
ICD codes
CPT codes
Denials of payment
A & B
What is the name of the procedure that involves the passage of an endoscope down through the tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach?
Septoplasty
Colonoscopy
Laryngoscopy
Esophagoscopy
Which of the following is a valid ICD 10 code?
S83.0A
S83.0XA
S83.0XXA
S83.A
What is the difference between co-pay and co-insurance?
They mean the same thing and are used by insurance companies
Coinsurance is a % and copay is a set amount
Copay is a % and coinsuranceis a set amount
Coinsurance is the term used only for Medicare patients.
What does the prefix "onco" mean?
Pain
Inflammation
Removal
Cancer
TRICARE was implemented for what type of individuals?
Retired military personnel with Medicare Parts A and B
Surviving spouse or child of military member who died in the line of duty
Active duty members of the uniformed services and their families
Spouse or child of a veteran rated permanently and totally diabled
Which organ produces bile?
Liver
Pancreas
Kidney
Gall bladder
Which of the following is a HIPAA violation?
Doctors sharing patient information for treatment
Biller sharing information for payment
Biller sharing information with proxy of comatose patient
None
Which procedure is most likely to need a Prior Authorization?
Rhinoplasty
Mastectomy
Vaginal delivery
Angiogram
The proper CPT range for anesthesia is:
00100-01999
10021-69990
H00-H99
None
The member's ID number must appear on the CMS 1500.
True
False
Insurance for the elderly is:
Medicaid
Tricare
Blue Cross
Medicare
The CPT codebook would be used to code:
Angina
Angiogram
Tachycardia
None
Add-on codes are part of ICD coding?
True
False
Which is not a type of diabetes?
Renal
Type B
Gestational
Juvenile
Which of these procedures requires a modifier?
Spirometry on an infant
Discontinued spirometry
Repeated spirometry
All
When might a health care proxy be used?
Upset patient
Cancer patient
Foreign patient with language barrier
None
Which of the following overrides HIPAA?
A court order
When a family member is involved
When compensation is offered
All
Which of the following insurances is not government-based?
Medicaid
Medicare
Aetna
Tricare
Which scenario requires part of box 10 on CMS 1500 to be checked "yes"?
Automobile accident
Fall from a ladder at work
Airplane crash
All
When does the medical biller get an EOB?
Before a patient sees a doctor
Before a claim is submitted
After a claim is submitted
After a claim is rejected
Where might you find cartilage?
Between carpals and metacarpals
Between stomach and small intestine
Inside brain
In the heart
Which box on a claim form indicates special permission to do a procedure?
Box 27
Box 12
Box 23
Box 9
Medicare's 80/20 policy is known as:
Managed care
Co-pay
Deductible
None
Which medical specialists would treat impetigo in an adult?
Dermatologist
Nephrologist
Neonatologist
None
To code cancers, you use this:
CPT codebook
Table of Neoplasms
The CMS 1500
None
Which type of diabetes involves the kidneys?
Renal
Gestational
Type 2
Type 1
All anesthesia codes require a physical status modifier
True
False
Who receives a payment when box 27 on CMS 1500 is checked "no"?
Patient
Insurance company
Medical biller
No one, payment denied
Which type of medical care would carry the highest copayments?
PCP care
Specialist care
Emergency room care
Preventive care
Which body part might be involved when being treated by a gastroenterologist?
Fallopian tube
Spinal Cord
Epiglottis
Heart
When is "X" used in an ICD-10 code?
As an add-on code
As a placeholder
As an initial encouter
All
Which ICD-10 code category would be used to code asthma?
H00-H59
H60-H95
I00-I99
J00-J99
The amount a member pays monthly for their insurance is called :
Deductible
Premium
Copayment
None
Which insurance is never primary?
Medicare
Medicaid
Bluecross
Aetna
ICD-10 coding become mandatory in 2011?
True
False
What would you do first if a claim was rejected for an invalid ID number?
Contact the patient
Contact the insurance company
Check the card information
Resubmit the claim
Which diagnosis would be coded in the B category using ICD-10?
Dermatitis due to poison ivy
Huntigton's disease
AIDS
Angina
In which body system would you find the trachea?
Digestive
Respiratory
Endocrine
Female reproductive
Which part of Medicare covers medication?
A
B
C
D
In what category would you find the ICD-10 code for obesity?
E00-E89
F01-F99
G00-G99
H00-H59
What type of doctor is often referred to as a "gatekeeper"?
Dermatologist
PCP
Oncologist
Intern
In what CPT code range would you find an MRI?
70010-79999
99201-99499
10021-69990
None
Which one of the following choices is defined as "the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital?
Principal diagnosis
Principal Procedure
Secondary diagnosis
Secondary procedure
Patient comes into an office to have allergens applied to his skin to see if reactoins occur. This is called
Patch testing
Biopsy
Culture
Xenograft
What is the correct code for crohn's disease of the large intestine with abscess?
K50
K50.1
K50.11
K50.114
A patient is seen for synovium rupture in teh right shoulder and right elbow. Which of the following choices is the correct code and sequencing for this scenario?
M66.111
M66.121
M66.111, M66.121
M66.121, M66111
Patient is admitted for treatment of malignant neoplasm of the bladder that has metastasized to the uterus, ovaries, and rectum. What should be sequenced first?
Bladder
Uterus
Ovaries
Rectum
You cannot have both Medicare and Medicaid.
True
False
Mr. Jones is disabled, 62 years old and works for a company that has 80 employees. He has both Original Medicare and insurance from his employer. Mr. Jones needs medical care. Generally,
Mr. Jones will most likely have to pay for the medical care out of his own pocket
Medicare will pay for the entire cost of his medical care
His current employer should pay first on any medical care he receives and Medicare should pay second
Medicare should pay first on any medical care he receives and his current employer insurance should pay second
A process used to determine the medical necessity of a particular procedure or service, designed to ensure that the procedure or service is appropriate and is being in the most cost-effective way.
Upcoding
UB-04 code
Unbundling
Timely filing requirement
Three-digit code that describes a classification of a product or service provided to the patient.
CMS-1500
UB-04 code
CMS 1450
None
Payment for services rendered from a third-party payer.
Claim
Reimbursement
RA - Remittance advice
Revenue Code
Four digit code that identifies specific accomodation, ancillary service, or billing calculation related to services on a bill.
RARC
RA
SCHIP
Revenue code
Physcians are not allowed to refer patients to a practitioner with whom they have a financial relationship.
Staff model
Stark law
Subscriber
False claim law
Individually identifiable health information
PHI
ICD Codes
PPO
HCPCS
17b locator on CMS1500
ICD Code
Provider's name
Referring Physcian's name
NPI
A private health insurance that pays for most of th charges not covered by Parts A and B
MSN
Medigap
Medicare Part D
Medicaid
Which part of Medicare plan provides hospitalization insurance to eligible individuals:
A
B
C
D
Coding and Classification system that captures diseases and health-related conditions.
ICD-10-CM
CPT Codes
HCPCS
ICD-10-PCS
Coding and classification system developed for use in the U.S. only. Specific to inpatient hospital procedures.
ICD-10-CM
CPT Codes
HCPCS
ICD-10-PCS
Abstracted information is which of the following?
Sent to the physician
Sent to the patient
Coded
Sent to the insurance company
Abstracting involves which of the following?
Writing notes about codes
Selecting relevant information from the health record
Coding physicians' notes
Answering questions from insurance companies
CPT codes are used to describe which of the following?
Supplies used during surgery
Type of insurance a patient has
Services rendered by the provider
Payments received from third-party payers
The term reconciliation means which of the following?
Resolving difference with the insurance company
Working with Medicare on a problem
Getting more information about a patient from a physician
Determining how much the provider has been reimbursed and how much patients owe
Which of the following is NOT a charge the patient is expected to pay?
Coinsurance
Deductible
Difference between the provider's charges and what the insurance company will pay
Copayment
The allowable charge is which of the following?
Amount the provider charges for a service
Amount the patient agrees to pay
Amount the health insurance company will pay providers
Amount set by hospitals
An RA (Remittance Advice) is sent to the patients
 
False
An RA is sent to the providers
True
False
An aging report refers to which of the following?
The length of time the report has been in the CDM
The ages of all patients in a provider's practice
The claims that are outstanding
The amount of money the provider's office has received in the alst 6 months
A copay is the patient's share of the insurance premium.
True
False
Which of the following accurately defines preauthorization?
A doctor is given the go-ahead to see a patient
A physician suggests that a patient see a specialist
A health plan gives approval to perform a procedure
A hospital gives the doctor approval to perform a procedure
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