Medic quiz

You are dispatched to a residence for a 29 year old woman with difficulty beathing. The patient was recently diagnosed with leukemia and has just completed her first round of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Upon arriving at the scene, you find the patient sitting in a recliner. Her level of breathing is shallow. Her husband, obviously frightened, pleads with you to do something. You should -
Move her to the floor and open her airway
Administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask
Assist her ventilations while she is in a sitting position
Assess her carotid pulse for rate and regularity
As multiple myeloma progresses, the patient would MOST likely experience -
Atrophy of large muscle groups
Frequent nosebleeds
Sponaneous fractures
Acute intracranial bleeding
The hematocrit is the
Overal proportion of red blood cells in the blood
Percentage of hemoglobin found within red blood cells
Percentage of blood accounted for by the plasma
Ratio of blood cells to platelets
Indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Affects multiple organs over a long period of time
May never spread from the lymphoid system
Most frequently occurs in men over 50 years of age
Is the most aggressive form of the disease
Which of the following is NOT a major component of the hematologic system?
Liver
Pancreas
Spleen
Bone marrow
In contrast to chronic leukemia, acute leukemia occurs when -
Bone marrow is replaced with abnormal lymphoblasts
The patient experiences easy bruising and frequent bleeding
Abnormal lymphoid cells accumulate in the bone marrow
Mutated fibroblasts rapidly accumulate in the circulatory system
During the second stage of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
Free thrombin and fibrin deposis increase in the bloodstream
Decreased clotting factors cause uncontrolled hemorrhage
The coagulation and fibrinolytic systems become overwhelmed
Large quantities of platelets aggregate and cause the blood to clot
Red blood cell production is stimulated by erythropoietin, which is secreted by the
Bone marrow
Liver
Kidneys
Spleen
In which of the following situations would a transfusion reaction MOST likely occur?
A person with type a-negative blood receives type o blood
A person with type o blood receives type ab blood
A person with type ab blood receives type o blood
A person with type b positive blood receives type b positive blood
You receive a call to a residence for a patient who is "sick". Upon arriving at the scene, you find the patient, a 39 year old woman, lying on the couch with a wet washcloth on her forehead. She is conscious and alert, and tells you that she has had several episondes of diarrhea and noticed bright red blood in her stool. Her pulse rate is rapid and weak, her skin is cool and clammy, and her blood pressure is 98/58 mm hg. Her medical history is significant for hemophilia, for which she is receiving factor VIII therapy. As you pull out a nonrebreathing mask, she tells you that her husband will be home in a few hours and that he will take her to the hospital. You should -
Ask her to sign a refusal of EMS transport form, have a neighbor sit with her until her husband gets home, and then return to service
Notify her husband, explain the situation to him, and advise him that you will be transporting his wife to the hospital
Tell her that her condition is critical and that you are legally required to transport her to the closest appropriate medical facility
Advise her that her condition dictates immediate transport to the hospital and that delaying transport could result in death
Patients with type A hemophilia -
Have a low platelet count
Have a deficiency of factor VIII
Require infusions of factor IX
Bleed due to thrombocytopenia
The primary component of the immune system is the -
Neutrophil
Lymphocyte
Eosinophil
Leukocyte
You are transporting a 55 year old woman to the hospital. The patient has lymphoma and complains of generalized, severe pain. She is receiving supplemental oxygen and has an IV line of normal saline established. Her blood pressure is 110/64 mm hg, pulse rate is 104 beats/min and regular, and respirations are 22 breaths/min and adaquate. You should -
Administer narcotic analgesia as needed while closely monitoring her blood pressure
Ensure that she is in a comfortable position and administer a 250 ml saline bolus
Give her 2 to 5 mg of a benzodiazepine sedative and provide constant reassurance
Provide emotional support, but regrain from analgesia as this may cause hypotension
Abdominal pain that is associated with polycthemia is usually associated with
Acute pancreatitis
Gastrointestinal bleeding
An enlarged spleen
Liver engorgement
The primary site for cell productionin the human body is the
Spleen
Kidney
Liver
Bone marrow
Which of the following statements regarding leukemia is correct?
Most patients with leukemia have a normal white blood cell count
Leukemia is the result of abnormal white blood cell development
Leukemia may cause leukocytosis, a low white blood cell count
A hallmark of leukemia is an excess production of platelets
Anemia would result from all of the following conditions EXCEPT -
Chronic hemorrhage
An increase in iron
Acutel blood loss
Erythrocite hemolysis
Formed elements of the blood account for approximately __% of the total blood volume.
35
55
25
45
A patient who presents with petechiae is MOST likely -
Thrombocytopenic
Leukopenic
Anemic
Polythemic
In contrast to acquired immunity, natural immunity occurs when -
Groups of people are immunized against a substance, which protects vulnerable people in the group
The mother passes antibodies to the fetus via the placenta, thus protecting the fetus against a variety of diseases
The body encounters the antigen and experiences a full immune response with all the pathology of the disease
The body is vaccinate, allowing it to produce the antibodies without having to experience the disease itself
During the secondary assessment of a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction, you should -
Focus exclusively on the patient's blood pressure
Expect the patient to vomit, often without nausea
Apply the cardiac monitor to detect dysrhymias
Recall that capnography will be a less reliable tool
Histamine release causes all of the following effects EXCEPT
Increased vascular permeability
Increased cardiac contractility, which results in hypertension
Vasodilation, which results in flushed skin and hypotension
Contraction of the smooth muscles of the respiratory system
The correct dose, concentration and route of epinephrine for a 40 pound child with an allergic reaction and no signs of cardiovascular collapse are -
0.12 mg 1:1,000 IM
0.21 mg 1:10,000 IV
0.18 mg 1:1,000 SQ
0.25 mg 1:1,000 IV
An unresponsive patient with signs of anaphylactic shock -
Needs hyperventilation with a bag-mask device
Is often unable to be intubated successfully
Indicates cerebral hypoxia and hypercarbia
Requires immediate antihistamine therapy
The three MOST significant indicators of anaphylactiv shock are
Dyspnea, hypotension and tachycardia
Hives, chest tightness and restlessness
Dizziness, flushed skin and abdominal pain
Prunitus, peripheral swelling and urticaria
The primary treatment for hypotension secondary to anaphylaxis is -
Epinephrine
A dopamine infusion
Diphenhydramine
Isotonic crystalloid
Which of the following clinical signs or symptoms are MOST indicative of upper airway swelling in a patient experiencing a sever allergic reaction?
Crackles and wheezing
Chest tightness and dyspnea
Hoarseness and stridor
Facial edema and coughing
Patients with ______ are at an invreased risk for anaphylaxis
Strep infection
Immunosuppression
Atopic dermatitis
Acute pharyngitis
Transport of a patient in anaphylactic shock may be delayed for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT
Epinephrine administration
Assessment of lung sounds
Secondary assessment
Aggressive airway control
Which of the following medications causes the MOST lge-mediated drug reactions in the United States?
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Sulfa
Aspirin
The MOST ominous respiratory sign in a patient with anaphylactic shock is -
Diminished lung sounds
Diffuse coarse crackles
Labored tachypnea
Loud expiratory wheezing
An antigen is MOST accurately defined as a -
Substance that causes the immune system to produce antibodies
Harmless substance that the body does not recognize as being foreign
Chemical the immune system produces to destroy and allergen
Chemical mediator that deactivates foreign substances in the body
Physiologic effects of histamine include all of the following EXCEPT -
Severe bronchoconstriction
Systemic vasodilation
Increased vascular permeability
Increased cardiac contractility
___ antibodies respond in allergic reactions and are located ____
Lgd in the lymph and blood
Lgg in the blood, lymph and intestines
Lga in tears, saliva, blood and lymph
Lge on the mast and basophil cells
Systemic lupus erythematosus is a disease caused by -
Excessive lge antibody production
Primary immune system failure
A multisystem autoimmune disorder
A marked deficiency of neutrophils
Which of the following immunoglobulins is thought to stimulate antibody producing cells to make antibodies?
Lgm
Lgd
Lgg
Lge
When a person is vaccinated against a disease -
Smaller titers of the disease are injected into the person, which results in the production of antibodies that cause histamine release and a mild allergic reaction
A secondary response occurs. As antibodies are produced and the vaccinated person experiences a milder form of the disease against which he or she has been vaccinated
The body develops antibodies in response to the vaccine and produces an immune response before the disease can enter the body and cause damage
The immune system does not produce any antibodies against that particular disease unless the person is directly or indirectly exposed to it
A 31 year old man presents with diffuse hives, intense itching and watery eyes that began acutely about an hour ago. He is conscious and alert, is breathing without difficulty and tells you that he does not have any allergies or significant medical problems. His blood pressure is 123/76 mm hg. Pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, and respirations are 16 breaths/min and unlabored. The MOST appropriate drug, dose and route for this patient are -
Epinephrine, 0.3 mg 1:1,000 IV
Diphendydramine, 25 to 50 mg, IM
Epinephrine, 0.01 mg/kg 1:1,000, SQ
Albuterol, 2.5 mg, via nebulizer
Which of the following medications has the SLOWEST onset of action when given to a patient with a severe allergic reation?
Methylprednisolone
Glucagon
Albuterol
Dyphenhydramine
Common central nervous system manifestations of anaphylactic shock include all of the following EXCEPT
Confusion
Combativeness
Headache
Anxiety
Following the primary response to a foreign substance in the body -
Develops sensitivity and is able to recognize the substance following subsequent exposure
Recognizes the substance as a foreign, but does not produce antibodies until subsequent exposure
Releases massive amounts of antigen-specific antibodies, which produce a severe allergic reaction
Utilizes macrophages to immediately destroy the substance and eliminate it from the body
In the absence of IV or IO access, the ____ route is the preferred route for the administration of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylactic shock
ET
IM
SQ
Intradermal
You have treated the same patient several times for a severe allerfic reation. While educating him about the preventionof future reactions, you should advise him to -
Carry at least two EpiPen injectors
Call 911 as soon as he is exposed
Avoid the substance he is allergic to
Wear an identification bracelet
An abnormal immune response that the body develps when it is reexposed to an allergen is called -
Hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
Secondary response
An allergic reaction
Adults in anaphylactic shock should receive the ___ concentration of epinephrine via the ____ route in a dose of ____ mg.
1:10,000, IV, 0.1 m
1:1,000, IM, 1
1:1,000, IV, 0.5
110,000, IM, 0.5
Which of the following general statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?
In order to provide appropriate treatment, you must first determine what caused the allergic reaction
Anaphylactic shock would most likely occur following initial exposure to an offending antigen
In the presence of anaphylaxis, intervention takes precedenve over identifying the offending antigen
Most patients who cary prescribed EpiPen are not completely aware of what substances they are allergic to.
A 20 year old woman complains of difficulty breathing and the feeling of a lump in her throat approximately 10 minutes after being stung by a wasp. Your assessment reveals that she is anxious, in in obvious respiratory distress and has hives covering her arms and legs. Further assessment reveals diffuse wheezing, a blod pressure of 80/50 mm hg, and a heart rate of 120 beats/min. You should -
Apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, start and iv with normal saline, and administer 1 mg of epinephrine 1:10,000 via iv push
Administer albuterol via an inline nebulizer attached to a bag-mask device, assist ventilations and consider administering epinephrine
Immediately sedate and intubate her to protect her airway, administer 25 mg of benadryl im and consider an epinephrine infusion
Administer high-flow oxygen, start a largepbore IV infuse up to 2 liters of normal saline, and administer 0.3 mg of epinephrine 1:1,000 im
You are caring for a 40 year old man in obvious anaphylactic shock after being stung by a scorpion. The patient is responsice to pain only, has poor respiratory effort and is hypotensice and tachycardic. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate treatment sequence for this patient?
Assisted ventilation, combitube insertion, 25-50 mg of benadryl im followed immediately by 0.3 mg of epinephrine 1:1,000 SQ. And a large bore IV with normal saline
High-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. 0.1 to 0.5 mg epinephrine 1:1.000 im, two large bore iv lines with normal saline and 20 ml/kg boluses of normal saline
Assisted ventilation, intubation if necessary, at least one large-bore IV with normal saline. 1 mg epinephrine 1:10,000 IV and up to 50 mg of benadryl IV or IM
Immediate intubation, 0.5 mg epinephrine 1:1,000 SQ, two large-bore IV lines with normal saline, a 250 ml normal saline bolus and 25 mg of benadryl im
A 34 year old woman states that she feels like she has a grain of sand in her eye. Assessment reveals that her eye and the surrounding area are red. Treatment for her should include -
Instructing her to continue rapid eye blinking and adminstering analgesia as indicated
Gently rubbing the surface of the eye with a cotton tipped applicator to remove the foreign body
Carefully assessing her eye for an object imbedded in the globe and removing it if one is present
Gently irrigating her eye and taping the affected eye closed to prevent it from drying out
A 55 year old woman complains of severe vertigo, tinnitus, nausea and a sense of fullness in her right ear. You should -
Keep her supine, administer crystalloid fluid boluses and inspect her ear.
Administer diphenhydramine to reduce any swelling in her inner ear
Carefully inspect her ear with an otoscope and administer furosemide
Administer an antiemetic and monitor her airway in case she vomits
A patient with a dysconjugate gaze following an ocular injury -
Should have ice applied ot the eyes to prevent blindness
Should be treated by irrigating both eyes for 20 minutes
Has discoordination between the movements of both eyes
Most likely has concomitant basilar skull fracture
A ruptured tympanic membrane -
Is characterized by cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ears
Commonly results in permanent hearing loss
Commonly leads to an infection of the middle ear
Is extremely painful but typically heals spontaneously
A yeast infection that causes white patches in the mouth or on the tongue is called -
Thrush
Halitosis
Gingivitis
Leukoplakia
A young female patient presents with a headache, severe aching around her right ear, and difficulty chewing. Assessment and treatment for her should focus on -
Providing analgesia as needed and transport
Anticipating airway compromise
Avoiding the use of a nasopharyngeal airway
Placing her in a semi-fowler position
Aqueous humor
Cannot be replenished by the body if it is lost
Is contained in the anterior chamber of the eye
Is contained in the posterior chamber of the eye
Is found between the iris and the lens of the eye
Hyphema is defined as -
Marked swelling of the globeof the eye
Double vision following blunt eye trauma
Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
Severe ecchymosis to the orbital region
In contrast to the oculomotor nerve, the optic nerve -
Is the second cranial nerve and provides the sense of vision
Carries parasympathetic nerve fibers that constrict the pupil
Innervates the muscles that cause motion of the uppe eyelids
The third cranial nerve and regulates the movement of the eyes
Metal filings are particularly inflammatory becuase they cause a "rust ring" of the ____ after 24 hours
Retina
Cornea
Sclera
Iris
Patients with glaucoma often complain of -
A blind spot toward the center of vision
Specks or floaters in the field of vision
Intense burning or itching around the eyes
A sudden painless complete loss of vision
Signs or symptoms of otitis media include -
Bulging tympanic membrane
Hypersensitivity to sound
Bilateral chornic tinnitus
Vertigo and violent vomiting
The ____ decrease(s) the weight of the skull and provide(s) resonance for the voice
Nasal septum
Turbinates
Paranasal sinuses
Nasal mucosa
The bony sockets for the teeth that reside in the mandible and maxilla are called -
Cusps
Dentin
Pulp
Alveoli
The large cartilaginous external portionof the ear is called the -
Cochlea
Auricle
Ossicle
Oval window
Which cranial nerve provides taste sensation to the posterior portions of the tongue and carries parasympathetic fibers to the salivary glands?
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Vestibulocochlear
Hypoglossal
Which of the following statements regarding epiglottitis is correct?
It now occurs more often in adults
It is caused by the Staphylococcus bacterium
It is much less severe than croup
It affects children under 2 years of age
Which of the following statements regarding the nasal septum is correct?
It may be slightly deviated to one side or the other
The nasal septum separates the oropharynx and nasopharynx
Inflammation of the nasal septum is common during infection
The nasal septum is comprised mainly of cartilage
Which of the following structures receives light impulses and converts them to nerve signals that are conducted to the brain by the optic nerve and interpreted as vision?
Retina
Pupil
Cornea
Lens
Within the cochlea, at the ____, vibration stimulates hair movements that form nerve impulses that travel to the brain via the auditory nerve.
Oval window****
Semicircular canals
Organ of Corti
Cochlear duct
A rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle groups that is commonly observed during a seizure is called ___ activity
Hypertonic
Myoclonic
Clonic
Tonic
An adult who opens her eyes in response to verbal stimuli, is disoriented and pushes your hand away when you palpate a panful area has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of
11*****
12
9
10
For any patient with an increase in intracranial pressure, the paramedic must
Avoid administering IV fluid boluses
Mantain an adaquate blood pressure
Take measures to lower blood pressure
Give glucose to prevent hypoglycemia
Pupils that differ in size by less than 1 mm
Are a sign of methamphetamine abuse
Indicate increased intracranial pressure
Are a sign of optic nerve compression
May be a normal variant in some patients
A patient who is unable to use a common object is said to be
Apraxic
Aphasic
Atonic
Agnosic
A person's level of consciousness is regulated by the
Occipital lobe of the brain
Reticular activating system
Cerebral cortex
Diencephalon
Hyperventilating a patient who has increast intracranial pressure (ICP) will
Increase the carbon dioxide levels in the brain through vasodilation
Decrease the ICP and maintain adaquate cerebral perfusion
Constrict the cerebral vasculature and decrease cerebral perfusion
Dilate the cerebral vasculature and cause further increases in ICP
What portion of the brainstem regulates respiratory rate and depth?
Basal nuclei
Medulla
Pons
Midbrain
A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 or less
Is likely experiencing brain herniation
Is often able to localize his or her pain
May require definitive airway control
Has moderate neurologic dysfunction***
Decerebrate posturing
Is characterized by abnormal flexion of the arms and extensionof the lower extremities
Is a more severe finding than decorticate posturing, as it indicates damage in or near the brainstem
Is considered less severe than decorticate posturing, because it indicates that the brainstem is intact
Is an early clinical finding because it occurs with minimal increases in intracranial pressure
_____ is a term used to describe changes in a person ability to perform coordinated motions such as walking
Myoclonus
Decussation
Ataxia
Bradykinesia****
A staggering gait is MOST suggestive of damage to the
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Medulla
Cerebrum
An idiopathic seizure is one in which
The cause is not known
A part of the brain is affected
The entire brain is affected
A postictal phase is not present
Which of the following causes of altered mental status is NOT an acute process?
Acidosis
Uremia
Epilepsy
Psychosis
A loss of balance and equilibrium suggests injury to the
Cerebrum
Midbrain
Thalamus
Cerebellum
A patient who is experiencing agnosia
Is probably experiencing an ischemic stroke in the cerebellar area
Cannot use a pencil secondary to dysfunction of the occipital lobe
Has neuronal dysfunction between the temporal and frontal lobe
May call a knife a fork when he or she is asked to name the object
A synapse is
The body's main neurotransmitter
A cluster of sensory nerve cells
A slight gap between nerve cells
The point where a nerve cell terminates
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 7 year old girl experienced a seizure. According to the childs mother, she was sitting at the dinner table and then suddenly stopped speaking and started blinking her eyes very rapidly. The episode lasted less than 1 minute, after which the childs condition rapidly improved. The clinical presentation is consistent with _____ seizure
Complex partial
Simple partial
Absence
Tonic-clonic
Among other functions the medulla oblongata
Communicates with the pituitary gland
Sends messages to move skeletal muscles
Directly regulates body temperature
Controls blood pressure and heart rate
A 33 year old woman had an apparent syncopal episode. According to her husband, she complained of dizziness shortly before the episode. He further states that he caught her before she fell to the ground. Upon your arrival. The patient is conscious but confused and is sitting in a chair. Her blod pressure is 90/60 mm hg. Pulse rate is 110 beats/min and regular. Her blood glucose level is 74 mg/dl. The MOST likely cause of her syncopal episode is
Vasovagal response
A seizure
Acute hypoglycemia
Dehydration
When a patient with Parkinson disease is asked to turn, he or she takes small steps until the turn is complete. This is called
Ataxia
Dystonia
Decussation
Bradykinesia
Patients with trismus often require
Premedication with lidocaine before being intubated
Hyperventilation to reduce severe intracranial pressure
Immediate tracheal intubation before the airway swells shut
Sedation or chemical paralysis to facilitate airway control
An elderly man who is a resident of a skilled nursing facility is found unresponsive by a staff nurse. When you and your partner arrive, you assess the patient and note that his respirations are slow and shallow, his heart rate is slow, weak and irregular, and his skin is cool and clammy. You should
Assess his blood glucose level and give high-flow oxygen
Apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and apply the ECG
Obtain a 12 lead ECG tracing and access his pupils
Assist his ventilations and access his oxygen saturation
A high level of oxygen to the brain of a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke and increased intracranial pressure
Lowers intracranial pressure and oxygenates the brain
Increases intracranial pressure, but oxygenates the brain
Causes vasoconstriction and can impair brain function
Dilates the blood vessels and can cause brain herniation
A 29 year old man who was recently prescribed an antipsychotic medication, presents with an acute onset of bizarre contortions of the face. Treatment should include
Diphenhydramine 25 mg
Diazepam 5 mg
Promethazine 25 mg
Ondansetron 4 mg
A paramedic would MOST likely be infected with TB if he or she
Received a needlestick from a person suspected of having active TB
Was exposed to blood-stained vomitus of a patient with active TB
Was close to a coughing patient who had a positive TB skin test
Performed mouth-to-mouth on a patient with active untreated TB
Signs and symptoms of HIV infection may include all of the following, EXCEPT
Swollen lymph glands
Right upper quadrant pain
Acute febrile illness
Malaise and a headache
Hepatitis B is also referred to as
Serum hepatitis
Fecal hepatitis
CSF hepatitis
Enteral hepatitis
Common signs and symptoms of TB include all of the following, EXCEPT
A persisitent cough
Weight loss
Hemoptysis
Photophobia
Occupationally acquired hepatitis C virus infection
Is not possible because an effective one series vaccine is available
Is related to a contaminated needlestick with visible blood on the sharp
Occurs by ingestion of food that is contaminated with infected feces
Is most commonly contracted via blood exposure to nonintact skin
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Most often occurs within 5 to 10 years of HIV infection
Exists when T-helper lymphocytes are dangerously high
Is characterized by the presence of opportunistic infections
Occurs in as many as 85% of HIV-infected individuals
Virulence is defined as the
Ability of an organism to invade and creae disease in a host
Severity of infection once an organism enters the body
Degree of difficulty that it takes to destroy an organism
Amount of time that it takes for an organism to infect the host
After an employee who believes he or she has been exposed to an infectious disease notifies the designated infection control officer (DICO) the DICO should
Determine whether an actual exposure occurred
Execute the post exposure plan within 24 to 36 hours
Immediately refer the employee to a designated physician
Obtain the patients consent to have his or her blod drawn
Common signs and symptoms of meningitis include
Mental status changes, fever, stiff neck and headache
A dark red rash, combativeness and a low grade fever
Irritability, back pain, headache and hypertension
Slow onset fever, tinnitus and an occipital headache
Hepatitis A is often described as a benign disease because
There is an effective vaccination to prevent infection
People with hepatitis A are typically asymptomatic
Lifelong immunity occurs once the disease is acquired
No known method of transmission has been identified
Unlike bacteria, viruses
Are larger and reproduce outside the cell
Can only multiply outside a host
Can only be contracted by direct contact
Die when exposed to the envirnment
A person with TB infection
Has active TB and is highly contagious
Has tested positive for exposure to TB
Usually has a negative radiograph
Poses a significant health risk to others
If you do not receive a flu vaccine and are exposed to a person with the flu
An injection of immune globulin given within 12 hours after the exposure will prevent you from contracting the flu
Symptoms of the flu, if you contract it, will become evident within 12 to 24 hours after the exposure
A nasal spray that contains the live flu virus in an attenuated form will be administered to you within 48 hours
Antiviral drugs may be given within 48 hours after the exposure to reduce the severity of the flu if you contract it
The primary target of infection with the human immunodeficiency virus is the
Lymphatic system
Central nervous system
Immune system
Pulmonary system
Most infectious disease exposures in health care providers occur due to
Sharps injuries
Indirect contact
Blood splatter
Inhaled droplets
Death in the prehospital setting following an acute myocardial infarction is MOST often the result of
Asystole
Cardiogenic shock****
Myocardial rupture
Ventricular fibrillation
A regular cardiac rhythem with a rate of 104 beats/min, upright P waves, a PR interval of 0.14 seconds, and QRS complexes that measure 0.10 seconds should be interpreted as
Supraventricular tachycardia
Normal sinus rhythm
Sinus tachycardia
Junctional tachycardia
Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker?
Capoten
Tenormin
Cardizem
Lanoxin
The right atrium, right ventricle and part of the left ventricle are suplied by the
Left main coronary artery
Cicumflex artery
Right coronary artery
Left anterior descending artery
An unresponsive, pulseless, apneic patient presents with ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. After defibrillating the patient, you should
resume CPR and reassess the patient after 2 minutes
Take no more than 10 seconds to assess for a pulse
Deliver another shock if his cardiac rhythm is unchanged
Reassess the cardiac rhythm to see if it has changed
Jugular venous distention in a patient sitting at a 45 degree angle
Indicates right-sided heart compromise
Is not clinically significant
Suggests left-sided heart failure
Is a sign of reduced preload
Which of the following ECG waveforms represents ventricular depolarization?
T wave
U wave
ST segment
QRS complex
Which of the following mechanisms causes hypertension?
Atherosclerotic plaque narrows one or more of the coronary arteries, resulting in increased cardiac perfusion
Heart rate that is persistently above 80 beats/min causes an increase in cardiac output and resultant increase in blood pressure
Increased afterload stimulates the Frank-Starling reflex. Which raises the pressure behind the blood leaving the heart
Arteriosclerosis results in invreased elasticity of the arteries. Causing vasodilation and increased arteriolar capacity
Acute coronary syndrome is a term used to describe
A clinical condition in which patients experience chest pain during exertion
A sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance that causes a decrease in cardiac output
Acute chest pressure or discomfort that subsides with rest or nitroglycerin
Any group of clinical symptoms consistent with acute myocardial ischemia
Lead I views the _____ wall of the heart while lead aVF views the ___ wall of the heart
Posterior, septal
Lateral, inferior
Septal, anterior
Anterior, inferior
Repolarization begins when
The sodium and calcium channels close
Cancium ions slowly enter the cardiac cell
The inside of the cell returns to a positive charge
Potassium ions rapidly escape from the cell
Which of the following interventions should be performed en route to the hospital during a lengthy transport of a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction?
12 lead electrocardiography
Asprin administration
IV therapy and analgesia
Supplemental oxygen*****
Patients experiencing a right ventricular infarction
Usually have anterior myocardial damage
Often require higher doses of morphine
Should not be given baby aspirin
May present with hypotension
Which of the following occurs at the AV node during a third degree heart block?
Impulses bypass the AV node and enter the ventricles
All impulses are blocked from entering the ventricles
There is an abnormal delay in conducting impulses
Every third impulse is allowed to enter the ventricles
An electrical wave moving in the direction of a positive electrode will
Cause a positive deflection on the ECG
Produce a significant amount of artifact
Manifest with narrow QRS complexes
Cause a negative deflection on the ECG****
After delivering a shock to a patient in pulseless ventricular tachycardia, you should
Check for a pulse
Deliver two effective ventilations
Resume CPR
Reassess the cardiac rhythm
The MOST common cause of right-sided heart failure is
Left sided heart failure
Long standing emphysema
Pulmonary hypotension
You and your partner arrive at the scene of an unresponsive male patient. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. The patients wife tells you that he collapsed about 10 minutes ago. You should
Ask the patient's wife if her husband has a living will
Apply the defibrillator pads and assess his cardiac rhythm
Initiate CPR as your partner applies the defibrillator pads
Begin CPR with a compression to ventilation ratio of 15.2
When viewing leads v3 and v4 you are looking at the ____ wall of the ___
Anterior, left ventricle
Inferior, right ventricle
Lateral, left ventricle
Septal, heart
Unlike the parasympathetic nervous system, the sympathetic nervous system
Is not under the direct control of the autonomic nervous system
Constricts the pupils and increases gastrointestinal function when stimulated****
Provides a mechanism for the body to adapt to changing demands
Is blocked when drugs such as atropine are administered
A beta adrenergic blocker would counteract all of the following medications, EXCEPT
Isoproterenol****
Epinephrine
Atropine
Norepinephrine
Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
Is characterized by a large P wave and a PR interval that is shorter than normal
Slows SA nodal discharge and decreases conduction through the AV node
Completely blocks the AV node preventing ventricular depolarization
Causes a decrease in the production of epinephrine and and norepinephrine****
Shortly after adminstering a second dose of 4 mg of morphine to a 49 year old woman who is experiencing chest pain, the patients level of consciousness markedly decreases. Further assessment reveals that she is hypotensive, bradycardic and hypoventilating. You should
Assist her ventilations and administer naloxone
Elevate her legs and give a 500 ml saline bolus
Administer 0.5 mg of atropine and reassess her
Immediately intubate her to protect her airway
Any electrical impulse that originates in the ventricles will produce
Wide QRS complexes and a rate between 20 and 40 beats/min
Bizarre looking QRS complexes and a rate less than 60 beats/min
Low amplitude QRS complexes and dissociated P waves
A rapid dhythm with wide QRS complexes and no pulse
The inferior wall of the left ventricle is supplied by the
Right coronary artery
Left anterior descending artery
Left coronary artery
Circumflex artery
What is the MOST appropriate sequence of treatment for a patient with a suspected acute myocardial infarction?
Morphine, ocygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin
Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine
Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine
Aspirin, nitroglycerin, oxygen, morphine
The mitral valve
Is a tricuspid valve located on the right side of the heart
Separates the right atrium from the right ventricle
Prevents blood regurgitation into the left ventricle
Is located on the highter pressure side of the heart
A prolonged PR interval
Is a sign of rapid atrial depolarization
Is greather than 120 milliseconds
Indicates that the AV node was bypassed
Indicates an abnormal delay at the AV node
The treatment for sinus tachycardia should focus on
Administering IV fluid boluses
Decreasing the heart rate
Correcting the underlying cause
Relieving pain and anxiety
If the ECG leads are applied correctly the PQRST configuration should be inverted in lead
AVL
AVR
I
II
Which of the following differentiates an artrial rhythm from a sinus rhythm?
Dissociated P waves
Varying shapes in P waves
Tachycardia
Profound bradycardia
Untreated ventricular tachycardia would MOST likely deteriorate to
Pulseless electrical activity
Ventricular fibrillation
Asystole
Torsade de pointes
A key to interpreting a Mobitz type II second degree heart block is to remember that
Unlike a Mobitz type I second degree heart block, a type II heart block is always regular
In this type of heart block, the PR interval gets progressively longer until a P wave is not conducted
The PR interval of all of the conducted Pwaves and there corresponding QRS complexes is constant
Most type II second degree AV blocks have more than two nonconducted P waves that occur in succession
Atherosclerosis is a process in which
Calcium precipitates into the arterial walls, greatly reducing the arterys elasticity
Plaque ruptures from a distant location and lodges in one of the the coronary arteries
Plaque infiltrates the arterial wall, decreasing its elasticity and narrowing its lumen
The outer wall of a coronary artery becomes lined with masses of fatty tissue
A decreased cardiac output secondary to a heart rate greater than 150 beats/min is caused by
Myocardial stretching due to increased preload
Increased automaticity of the cardiac pacemaker
Ectopic pacemaker sites in the atria or ventricles
Decreacses in stroke volume and ventricular filling
A pathologic Q wave
Can only be substantiated by viewing at least two previous 12 lead ECG's
Is wider than 0.04 seconds and indicates that a myocardial infarction occurred in the past
Is deeper than one quarter of the height of the R wave and indicates injury
Generally indicates that an acute myocardial infarction has occured within the past hour
A 39 year old man in asystole has been unresponsive to high-quality CPR and two doses of epinephrine. The patient is intubated and an IO catheter is in place. You should focus on
Providing mild hyperventilation
Searching for reversibly causes
Establishing a peipheral IV line
Transcutaneous cardiac pacing
) You are attempting to intubate a 5 year old girl when you note that her heart rate has fallen from 12- beets/min to 80 beats/min. A patent iv line has been established. The MOST appropriate action is to
Abort the attempt and ventilate with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen
Poor lung compliance during your initial attempt to ventilate an unconscious apneic adult should be treated by
Reopening the airway and reattempting to ventilate
In contrast to a curved laryngoscope blade, a straight laryngoscope blade is designed to
Extend beneath the epiglottis and lift it up
If you see a soft-tissue bulge on either side of the airway when performing nasotracheal intubation
You have probably inserted the tube into the pyriform fossa
When nasally intubating a patient, the ET tube is advanced
When the patient inhales
Capnography is a reliable method for confirming proper ET tube placement because
Carbon dioxide is not present in the esophagus
Pulse oximetry is used to measure the
Percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen
The condition in which the body’s tissues and cells do not receive enough oxygen is called
Hypoxia
Compared to orotracheal intubation, nasotracheal intubation is less likely to result in hypoxia because
It must be performed on spontaneously breathing patients
The hypoxic drive stimulates breathing in patients with
Chronically decreased PaO2 levels
Boit respirations are characterized by
An irregular patern of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
The BEST way to be certain that the ET tube has passed through the vocal cords is to
Visualize the tube passing between the vocal cords
When two paramedics are ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, the paramedic not squeezing the bag should
Maintain an adequate mask-to-face seal
Physiologic effects of CPAP include
Opening of collapsed alveoli
Asymmetric chest wall movement is characterized by
One side of the chest moving less than the other
Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents include all of the following, EXCEPT
Pancuronium bromide
Vecuronium bromide
Succinylcholine chloride
Rocuronium bromide
During sleep, the metabolic rate is ____ and the number of respirations ____
Low, increases
High, increases
Low, decreases
High, decreases
The main disadvantage of LMA is that it
Is associated with significant upper airway swelling
Spontaneously dislodges in the majority of patients
Is technically more difficult to perform than intubation
Does not provide protection against aspiration
The involuntary control of breathing originates in the
Diencephalon
Pons and medulla
Hypothalamus
Cerebral cortex
You have intubated a 70 year old man with chronic bronchitis and are en route to the hospital. During transport, you note that ventilations are becoming increasingly difficult and the digital capnometry reading is falling. Your partner tells you that she can still hear bilaterally equal breath sounds. But they are faint. She further tells you that there are no sounds over the epigastrium. What intervention is MOST likely indicated for this patient
Tracheobronchial suctioning
Hyperventilation at 24 breaths/min
Immediate extubation
Withdrawing the tube 2 cm
The BURP maneuver usually involves applying backward, upward, and rightward pressure to the
Lower third of the thyroid cartilage
Upper third of the cricoid cartilage
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