USMLE_Management XV
USMLE Management Quiz
Test your knowledge with our comprehensive USMLE Management Quiz, designed for aspiring medical professionals. This quiz includes 100 carefully crafted questions that cover a wide range of topics relevant to medical management.
Whether you are preparing for examinations or seeking to solidify your understanding, this quiz is a valuable resource. Features include:
- 100 engaging multiple-choice questions
- Diverse topics related to USMLE management
- Immediate feedback on your performance
A young motorcycle driver is thrown against a concrete bridge abutment and sustains severe trauma about the face, with marked periorbital edema and ecchymosis as well as epistaxis. He is obtunded with rapid, shallow breathing. Which of the following is the next appropriate step in his workup and management?
. Evaluation of the cervical spine.
. Blind nasopharyngeal intubation with cervical in-line stabilization.
. Oropharyngeal intubation with cervical in-line stabilization.
. Emergency tracheostomy.
. Emergency cricothyroidotomy.
A23-year-old woman with no PMH presents to the office for her annual gynecologic examination. She has never been pregnant. She has had five lifetime partners. She does not have vaginal discharge, vaginal pruritus, or dyspareunia. Her menstruation is regular every 28 days and lasts for 5 days. BP, 125/75 mm Hg; P, 78 beats/min; R, 16 breaths/min; T, 98.4°F. In addition to the Pap smear, what else is indicated?
. Chlamydia testing
. Hepatitis testing
. Herpes testing
. Trichomonas testing
. HIV testing
After 10 days of nasal congestion and rhinorrhea, a 3-month-old infant develops a severe hacking cough during which he repeatedly turns dusky and appears to choke on or to vomit profuse thick, clear nasopharyngeal mucus. For 7 days, the coughing continues unabated. On physical examination, he is afebrile and his lungs are clear. His chest x-ray is normal. His WBC count is 24,000/mm3, with 15% polymorphonuclear cells, 82% lymphocytes, and 3% monocytes. Which of the following antibiotics should be used to treat this patient?
Amoxicillin
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
No antibiotics are necessary
After a weekend drinking binge, a 45-year-old man presents to the hospital with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination, the patient is noted to have tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. Laboratory tests reveal an amylase of 25,000 U/dL (normal < 180U/dL). The patient is medically managed and sent home after 1 week. A CT scan done 4 weeks later is pictured here. Currently the patient is asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Distal pancreatectomy
. Percutaneous catheter drainage
. Endoscopic drainage
. Surgical drainage
. No intervention is warranted at this time
After being injured by a bull on his mother’s farm, a young man is placed in a cast for a supracondylar fracture of his humerus. A few hours later he begins to experience intense pain, swelling, and weakness in the ipsilateral hand. Pulses are normal in bilateral upper extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Observation
. Repeat imaging of the humerus
. Elevation of the extremity
. Removal of the cast
. Surgical decompression (fasciotomy)
After complete removal of a sessile polyp of 2.0 cm by 1.5 cm found 1 finger length above the anal mucocutaneous margin, the pathologist reports it to have been a villous adenoma that contained carcinoma in situ. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Reexcision of the biopsy site with wider margins
. Abdominoperineal rectosigmoid resection
. Anterior resection of the rectum
. External radiation therapy to the rectum
. No further therapy
After her first urinary tract infection, a 1-year-old has a voiding cystourethrogram with findings shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?
. Low-dose daily antibiotics
. Immediate surgical reimplantation of the ureters
. Weekly urinalyses and culture
. Diet low in protein
. Early toilet training
After making a diagnosis in the patient in question 319, you recommended that she wear loose clothing and cotton underwear and to stop using tampons. After 1 month she returns, reporting that her symptoms of intense burning and pain with intercourse have not improved. Which of the following treatment options is the best next step in treating this patient’s problem?
. Podophyllin
. Surgical excision of the vestibular glands
. Topical Xylocaine
. Topical trichloroacetic acid
. Valtrex therapy
After suitable calculations have been made using the modified Parkland formula, a 70-kg man with extensive thirddegree burns is receiving Ringer's lactate at the calculated rate, which happens to be 750 mL/hr. The infusion was started within 30 minutes of the time when the burn occurred. Over the next 3 hours, his urinary output is recorded as 15 mL, 22 mL, and 18 mL. It is verified that the Foley catheter is open and draining freely. The urine is dark yellow, without blood, and has a specific gravity of 1040 and a sodium concentration of 10mEq/L. The patient's blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, his pulse is 98/min, and his central venous pressure is 2 cm H2O. On the basis of these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Diuretics should be given
. Fluid administration should continue at the present rate
. The rate of fluid administration should be decreased
. The rate of fluid administration should be increased
. Treatment is needed for renal failure
An 11-month-old African American boy has a hematocrit of 24% on a screening laboratory done at his well-child checkup. Further testing demonstrates: hemoglobin 7.8 g/dL; hematocrit 22.9%; leukocyte count 12,200/μL with 39% neutrophils, 6% bands, 55% lymphocytes; hypochromia on smear; free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP) 114 μg/dL; lead level 6 μg/dL whole blood; platelet count 175,000/μL; reticulocyte count 0.2%; sickle-cell preparation negative; stool guaiac-negative; and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 64 fL. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
. Blood transfusion
. Oral ferrous sulfate
. Intramuscular iron dextran
. An iron-fortified cereal
. CalciumEDTA
An 11-year-old boy presents with fever and sore throat. A rapid-strep test confirms streptococcal pharyngitis. He is leaving for a summer camp in 2 days. In the past, he has had problem finishing the whole course of antibiotic treatment. Which of the following is the best treatment for his streptococcal pharyngitis?
. A single dose of benzathine penicillin G intramuscularly
. A single dose of ceftriaxone intramuscularly
. A single dose of procaine penicillin G intramuscularly
. Erythromycin orally for 5 days
. Penicillin V orally for 5 days
An 11-year-old girl is brought to the office by her mother due to headaches for the last 4 hours. The headaches are bifrontal, and are accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and noise. It is her second episode, and both episodes were preceded by dark spots in her visual field. The first episode was 2 weeks ago. She doesn't report any numbness or tingling in her extremities, and no behavioral change or decline in school performance was noted. Her vital signs are stable, and she is afebrile. The physical examination is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Reassurance and acetaminophen
Lumbar puncture
CT scan of the head
MRI of the brain
Electroencephalogram
An 11-year-old girl presents to your office because of a family history of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following tests should you perform?
. Urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) level
. Serum insulin level
. Serum gastrin level
. Serum glucagon level
. Serum somatostatin level
An 18-month-old boy has received 5 days of amoxicillin for otitis media. He continues to have fever, and on physical examination, the right tympanic membrane is bulging with purulent fluid behind it. Which of the following is the best antibiotic to use?
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
Dicloxacillin
Cephalexin
Erythromycin
Penicillin
An 18-year-old college student, who has recently become sexually active, is seen for severe primary dysmenorrhea. She does not want to get pregnant, and has failed to obtain resolution with heating pads and mild analgesics. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for this patient?
. Prostaglandin inhibitors
. Narcotic analgesics
. Oxytocin
. Oral contraceptives
. Luteal progesterone
An 18-year-old consults you for evaluation of disabling pain with her menstrual periods. The pain has been present since menarche and is accompanied by nausea and headache. History is otherwise unremarkable, and pelvic examination is normal. You diagnose primary dysmenorrhea and recommend initial treatment with which of the following?
. Ergot derivatives
. Antiprostaglandins
. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogues
. Danazol
. Codeine
An 18-year-old G1 has asymptomatic bacteriuria (ASB) at her first prenatal visit at 15 weeks gestation. Which of the following statements is true?
. The prevalence of ASB during pregnancy may be as great as 30%.
. There is a decreased incidence of ASB in women with sickle cell trait.
. Fifteen percent of women develop a urinary tract infection after an initial negative urine culture.
. Twenty-five percent of women with ASB subsequently develop an acute symptomatic urinary infection during the same pregnancy and should be treated with antibiotics.
. ASB is highly associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes.
An 18-year-old G2P1 presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding for the past day. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. On examination she is afebrile with normal blood pressure and pulse. Her abdomen is tender in the left lower quadrant with voluntary guarding. On pelvic examination, she has a small anteverted uterus, no adnexal masses, mild left adnexal tenderness, and mild cervical motion tenderness. Labs reveal a normal white count, hemoglobin of 10.5, and a quantitative β-hCG of 2342. Ultrasound reveals a 10×5×6 cm uterus with a normalappearing 1-cm stripe and no gestation sac or fetal pole. A 2.8-cm complex adnexal mass is noted on the left. In the treatment of this patient, laparoscopic salpingostomy has what advantage over salpingectomy via laparotomy?
. Decreased hospital stays
. Lower fertility rate
. Lower repeat ectopic pregnancy rate
. Comparable persistent ectopic tissue rate
. Greater scar formation
An 18-year-old high school football player is kicked in the left flank. Three hours later he develops hematuria. His vital signs are stable. A CT scan demonstrates a grade II renal injury based on the Urologic Injury Scale of the American Association for the Surgery of Trauma. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
. Resumption of normal daily activity excluding sports
. Exploration and suture of the laceration
. Exploration and wedge resection of the left kidney
. Nephrostomy
. Strict bed rest with serial hemoglobin levels
An 18-year-old high school senior develops peripheral vision abnormalities. A CT scan of the brain reveals a cystic suprasellar mass with some calcification noted. Clinically, this is compatible with a craniopharyngioma. What is the best next step in treatment?
. Growth hormone therapy
. Cerebral angiography with tumor embolization
. Transsphenoidal decompression of the optic nerve and optic chiasm
. Surgical resection
. Radiotherapy
An 18-year-old man climbs up a utility pole to retrieve his younger brother’s kite. An electrical spark jumps from the wire to his metal belt buckle and burns hisabdominal wall, knocking him to the ground. Which of the following should guide your treatment of this patient?
. Injuries are generally more superficial than those from thermal burns.
. Intravenous fluid replacement is based on the percentage of body surface area burned.
. Electric burns often result in a transient traumatic optic neuropathy.
. Evaluation for fracture of the other extremities and visceral injury is indicated.
. Cardiac conduction abnormalities are unlikely
An 18-year-old man was assaulted and sustained significant head and facial trauma. Which of the following is the most common initial manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?
. Change in level of consciousness
. Ipsilateral (side of hemorrhage) pupillary dilation
. Contralateral pupillary dilation
. Hemiparesis
. Hypertension
An 18-year-old previously healthy man is placed on intravenous heparin after having a pulmonary embolism (PE) after exploratory laparotomy for a small-bowel injury following a motor vehicle collision. Five days later, his platelet count is 90,000/μL and continues to fall over the next several days. The patient’s serum is positive for antibodies to the heparinplatelet factor complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step management?
. Cessation of all anticoagulation therapy
. Cessation of heparin and immediate institution of high-dose warfarin therapy
. Cessation of heparin and institution of low-molecular-weight heparin
. Cessation of heparin and institution of lepirudin
. Cessation of heparin and transfusion with platelets
An 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for advice regarding birth control. She has been sexually active since the age of 15 and has had numerous sexual partners since that time. She has tried the oral contraceptive pill twice, for approximately two cycles each time, but stopped because of irregular bleeding. She has had gonorrhea once and Chlamydia twice. She does not smoke. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following forms of birth control should be recommended for this patient?
. Condoms
. Diaphragm
. Intrauterine device
. Oral contraceptive pill
. Tubal ligation
An 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for her annual physical examination. Her past medical history is unremarkable and she takes no medications. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, and she has regular menses lasting 4-5 days every 28 days. The patient became sexually active at age 16 and has had 3 partners since then. She is currently in a monogamous relationship with her boyfriend of a year and uses condoms regularly. The patient has no vaginal discharge, urinary complaints, or weight changes. Vital signs and general physical examination are within normal limits. She inquires about cervical cancer screening and human papillomavirus vaccine, which she has not received. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Give human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine now
. Perform Pap smear now
. Perform Pap smear with HPV testing
. Reassurance and follow-up next year
. Test for HPV and, if negative, give vaccine
An 18-year-old woman presents to the clinic because of 6 hours of severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She describes 6 days of mild lower abdominal pain, low-grade fever, and abnormal vaginal discharge. She is sexually active with two male partners, and her last menstrual period was 10 days ago. Her temperature is 39.5C (103.2F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Physical examination reveals involuntary abdominal guarding. The patient will not allow a pelvic examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Discharge home with oral antibiotics
Discharge home without antibiotics
Hospitalization for intravenous antibiotics and hydration
Hospitalization for intravenous hydration without antibiotics
Hospitalization with oral antibiotics and intravenous hydration
An 18-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of acute onset of RLQ abdominal pain. She also describes the loss of appetite over the last 12 hours, but denies nausea and vomiting. Her BP is 124/77 mm Hg, HR is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 102.1°F, RR is 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals lower abdominal tenderness bilaterally. On pelvic examination you elicit cervical motion tenderness and note cervical exudates. Her WBC is 20,500/μL and β-hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Bring her to the OR for an appendectomy
. Begin antibiotic therapy
. Perform a culdocentesis
. Bring her to the OR for immediate laparoscopy
. Order an abdominal plain film
An 18-year-old woman presents to the physician's office complaining of vaginal pruritus and discharge. She has no nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no other medical problems and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Pelvic examination reveals mucopurulent cervical discharge and friable cervical mucosa. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. A gram stain of the discharge reveals numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes filled with gram-negative diplococci. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Penicillin and doxycycline
. One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
. Ceftriaxone and metronidazole
. Ampicillin and gentamicin
An 18-year-old woman presents to the physician's office complaining of vaginal pruritus and discharge. She has no nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no other medical problems and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Pelvic examination reveals mucopurulent cervical discharge and friable cervical mucosa. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. A gram stain of the discharge reveals numerous polymorphonuclear lymphocytes filled with gram negative diplococci. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Penicillin and doxycycline
. One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
. Ceftriaxone and metronidazole
. Ampicillin and gentamicin
An 18-year-old young man comes to your clinic with complaints of fatigue, malaise, fever, and sore throat for the past few days. His temperature is 38.8°C (101°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 135/70 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals cervical lymphadenopathy, pharyngeal hyperemia, and splenomegaly. Complete blood count shows leukocytosis with predominant atypical lymphocytes. The heterophile antibody test is positive. When you ask if he has any questions, he replies with, "Well, I'm a rugby player in school, so I need to know when I can start playing again." What is the most appropriate advice for this patient?
. He can start playing when he becomes afebrile
. He can start playing when he is no longer fatigued
. He can start playing when his labs normalize
. He can start playing when his physical examination is normal
. He can start playing whenever he wants
An 8-month-old boy is seen by a pediatrician for the first time. The physician notes that there are no testes in the scrotum. Which of the following is the optimal management of bilateral undescended testicles in an infant?
. Immediate surgical placement into the scrotum
. Chorionic gonadotropin therapy for 1 month; operative placement into the scrotum before age 2 if descent has not occurred
. Observation until age 2; operative placement into the scrotum if descent has not occurred
. Observation until age 5; if no descent by then, plastic surgical scrotal prostheses before the child enters school
. No therapy; reassurance of the parent that full masculinization and normal spermatogenesis are likely even if the testicle does not fully descend
An 8-month-old girl is brought to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. Her antenatal and birth histories are unremarkable. Her vital signs are stable, and all developmental milestones are appropriate. On examination, a head tilt is noted. Ophthalmoscopic examination reveals a red reflex and normal corneal light reflex. The cover test reveals moderate esodeviation of the left eye. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Continuous covering of the normal eye
Continuous covering of the deviated eye
Prompt surgical correction
Measurement of intraocular pressure
Watchful waiting
An 8-month-old infant arrives to the emergency department (ED) with a 2-day history of diarrhea and poor fluid intake. Your quick examination reveals a lethargic child; his heart rate is 180 beats per minute, his respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, and his blood pressure is low for age. He has poor skin turgor, 5-second capillary refill, and cool extremities. Which of the following fluids is most appropriate management for his condition?
Dextrose 5% in 1/4 normal saline (D5 1/4 NS)
Dextrose 5% in 1/2 normal saline (D5 1/2 NS)
Normal saline
Whole blood
Dextrose 10% in water (D10W)
An 8-month-old infant, who is up-to-date with his immunizations, is brought to the clinic by his mother. The mother states that she overheard other mothers talking about a varicella vaccination that their children have received. She does not want her son to have the chickenpox virus and therefore, wants him to receive the vaccine today. The physician explains that the infant has not yet reached the recommended age for the vaccine. If this visit is in November, when is the earliest that this patient can return for the varicella vaccine?
. February
. March
. April
. May
. June
An 8-week-old female infant is brought to the office by her Caucasian mother for a well-baby examination. She was born at 34 weeks gestation, and weighed 2.9kg (6.5 Ib) at birth. She has been exclusively breastfed since birth, and her growth and development are normal for her age. The physical examination is normal, except for mild pallor. At this time, what is the most appropriate nutritional intervention for this patient?
Vitamin C supplementation
Iron supplementation
Inclusion of vegetables in diet
Inclusion of fruit juices in diet
Introduce egg and meat in diet
An 8-year-old African American boy is brought in for evaluation of a mass on the scalp. On examination, he is afebrile and nontoxic. There is a boggy mass on his scalp with alopecia. His posterior cervical lymph nodes are enlarged but nontender. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Incision and drainage
Oral amoxicillin
IV naficillin
Selenium sulfide shampoo twice a week
Oral griseofulvin and selenium sulfide shampoo twice weekly
An 8-year-old boy is brought to your office with the complaint of abdominal pain. The pain is worse during the week and seems to be less prominent during the weekends and during the summer. The patient’s growth and development are normal. The physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory screening, including stool for occult blood, CBC, urinalysis, and chemistry panel, yields normal results. Which of the following is the best next step in the care of this patient?
. Perform an upper GI series
. Perform CT of the abdomen
. Administer a trial of H2 blockers
. Observe the patient and reassure the patient and family
. Recommend a lactose-free diet
An 8-year-old boy presents to your office for a second opinion. He has a 2-year history of intermittent vomiting, dysphagia, and epigastric pain. His father reports he occasionally gets food “stuck” in his throat. He has been on a proton pump inhibitor for 18 months without symptom relief. His past history is significant only for eczema and a peanut allergy. Endoscopy was performed 6 months ago; no erosive lesions were noted and a biopsy was not performed. You arrange for a repeat endoscopy with biopsy. Microscopy on the biopsy sample reveals many eosinophils. Treatment of this condition should include which of the following?
. Corticosteroids
. Prolonged acid blockade
. Treatment for Candida sp
. Treatmentfor Aspergillus sp
. Observation
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with fever for the past 6 days. Her parents report that she has been very "cranky" and has developed a new rash. Six weeks ago, she completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin for streptococcal pharyngitis. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Her temperature is 39.4° C (103° F), blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination shows injected lips and pharynx. Bilateral conjunctivae are also injected, with no exudates. A 1.7-cm mobile lymph node is palpated on the left neck. A blanching erythematous rash is present across her face, trunk, and extremities, including the palms and soles. Her mouth is shown below. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Amoxicillin
. Aspirin and intravenous immunoglobulin
. Doxycycline
. Lymph node biopsy
. Reassurance and close follow-up
An 8-year-old girl presents with well-controlled, moderately persistent asthma. Her therapies consist of occasional use of short-acting β-agonists, daily inhaled steroids, and a leukotriene inhibitor. She presents with white patches on her buccal mucosa. You recommend which of the following?
HIV testing
Tuberculosis skin testing
Measurement of serum immunoglobulins
Discontinuation of all her asthma medications
Rinse her mouth after use of her inhaled medications
An 8-year-old male presents to the emergency department with decreased mental status. His mother states that she has noticed he has been drinking and urinating more frequently over the past several weeks. He was hard to wake up this morning and complained of abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals an afebrile drowsy male with clear airways and mild tachycardia. Mucous membranes are dry and his lips are cracked. His abdomen is mildly tender to palpation diffusely, but there is no rebound or guarding. Laboratory evaluation reveals a glucose of 560 mg/dL and potassium of 5.9 mEq/L.An arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.18. A urinalysis is positive for ketones and glucose. CT scan of the abdomen is normal. A chest x-ray film is clear. Two hours after initiation of treatment the physician adds potassium to the patient's IV fluids. Which of the following best explains this therapeutic decision?
. Acidosis causes extracellular depletion of potassium
. Hyperglycemia causes potassium to shift to the extracellular space
. Hyperkalemia will protect the patient against dysrhythmias
. Hypokalemia will result as acidosis is corrected
. Potassium should not have been added to the IV fluids
An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital complaining of nausea, abdominal pain, distention, and diarrhea. A cautiously performed transanal contrast study reveals an apple-core configuration in the rectosigmoid area. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
. Colonoscopic decompression and rectal tube placement
. Saline enemas and digital disimpaction of fecal matter from the rectum
. Colon resection and proximal colostomy
. Oral administration of metronidazole and checking a Clostridium difficile titer
. Evaluation of an electrocardiogram and obtaining an angiogram to evaluate for colonic mesenteric ischemia
An 80-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer and bony metastasis is complaining of severe back pain that has been progressively worsening for the past two weeks. His pain is so severe that it restricts him from playing golf. Eight months ago, he underwent orchiectomy, after which he was free from bone pain until now. Physical examination reveals tenderness at two sites in the lumbar region. Radionuclide bone scan shows an increased uptake in these areas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Cervical cordotomy
. Etidronate disodium therapy
. Flutamide therapy
. Hypophysectomy
. Radiation therapy
An 80-year-old woman was admitted to your service for dizziness. Cardiac monitoring initially revealed atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. Her ventricular rate was controlled with beta-blocker. An echocardiogram revealed an enlarged left atrium and an ejection fraction of 50%. No evidence of diastolic heart dysfunction was noted. She is now asymptomatic, with blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rhythm irregularly irregular, and heart rate around 80/minute. Which of the following is the best management strategy of this patient’s arrhythmia?
. Electrical cardioversion plus prolonged anticoagulation
. Electrical cardioversion without anticoagulation
. Chemical cardioversion plus prolonged anticoagulation
. Chemical cardioversion without anticoagulation
. Continued rate control plus prolonged anticoagulation
An 81-year-old woman presents to your office complaining that her uterus fell out 2 months ago. She has multiple medical problems, including chronic hypertension, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis. She is limited to sitting in a wheelchair because of her health problems. Her fallen uterus causes significant pain. On physical examination, the patient is frail and requires assistance with getting on the examination table. She has complete procidentia of the uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Reassurance
. Placement of a pessary
. Vaginal hysterectomy
. Le Fort procedure
. Anterior colporrhaphy
An 82-year-old man develops severe abdominal distention, nausea, vomiting, and colicky abdominal pain. He has not passed any gas or stools for the past 12 hours. His vital signs are normal, and his pulse is regular. He has a distended, tympanitic abdomen, with hyperactive, highpitched bowel sounds. There are no signs of peritoneal irritation. Rectal examination is negative for masses or occult blood, and trie rectal vault is empty. Abdominal xray films show distended loops of small and large bowel, as well as a very large round gas shadow that is located in the right upper quadrant and tapers toward the left lower quadrant in the shape of a parrot's beak. The patient has never had any abdominal surgery, and he does not have any palpable hernias. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Nasogastric suction, IV fluids, and observation
Repeated enemas and laxatives
Emergency celiac and mesenteric arteriogram
Proctosigmoidoscopy
Emergency exploratory laparotomy
An 82-year-old woman is brought to the ED by her daughter for worsening fatigue, dizziness, and light-headedness. The patient denies chest pain or shortness of breath. She has not started any new medications. Her BP is 140/70 mmHg, HR is 37 beats per minute, and RR is 15 breaths per minute. An IV is started and blood is drawn. An ECG is seen below. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Bed rest for the next 48 hours and follow-up with her primary-care physician
. Administer aspirin, order a set of cardiac enzymes, and admit to the cardiac care unit (CCU)
. Place a magnet on her chest to turn off her pacemaker
. Admit for Holter monitoring and echocardiogram
. Place on a cardiac monitor, place external pacing pads on the patient, and admit to the CCU
An 83-year-old woman is being evaluated for confusion. She was admitted 3 days ago after having an acute MI. Her hospital course has been complicated by narrow-complex ventricular tachycardia, which has finally been stabilized on an antiarrhythmic medication. She was also started on a post-MI protocol and an antidepressant. One day after beginning these medications, she begins to develop confusion and slurred speech. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), blood pressure is 138/60 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. She is alert and oriented to person, but she does not realize she is in the hospital. Additionally, she exhibits difficulty with word articulation, although she speaks fluently, and she demonstrates a mild resting tremor. The remainder of her examination is normal. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause these central nervous system effects?
Aspirin
Enalapril
Fluoxetine
Lidocaine
Metoprolol
An 83-year-old woman presents to a mammographic facility for a screening mammogram. The technician notices a mass in the lateral right breast. The patient denies any breast pain, nipple discharge, skin changes, or breast trauma. A right breast CC view is shown in Figure 6-7. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Incisional biopsy
. Needle biopsy
. lumpectomy, axillary dissection, and irradiation
. Total mastectomy
. Modified radical mastectomy
An 85-year-old male is placed on mechanical ventilation after a complicated elective hernia repair. After five days of endotracheal intubation with mechanical ventilation, the ratio of the rate of carbon dioxide produced to the rate of oxygen uptake is 1.05. What is the best explanation for these findings?
. Sepsis
. High-protein tube feeding
. Carbohydrate excess in the diet
. High inspired oxygen fraction
. Pulmonary atelectasis
An 85-year-old man presents to the emergency room with an acute onset of midepigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and hiccups starting 2 days ago. He is unable to keep any food down. Past history is pertinent for a long-standing hiatal hernia, hypertension, and diet-controlled diabetes. Examination reveals vital signs of pulse rate 82/min, BP 100/52 mmHg, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 97.2°F. The patient is in no acute distress, but has epigastric tenderness without guarding. Laboratory analysis revealed a hematocrit of 46 and a normal white blood cell (WBC) count. A chest x-ray is shown in Figure 6-5a. A fluoroscopically guided NG tube was placed using contrast, and his stomach was decompressed. After adequate fluid and electrolyte resuscitation, an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) contrast study was obtained and is shown in 6-5b. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Laparotomy or laparoscopy and operative repair
. continued NG tube decompression and initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
. Thoracotomy or thoracoscopy and operative repair
. Endotracheal intubation and initiation of ventilatory support
. Upper endoscopy
An 86-year-old woman presents to your office for her well-woman examination. She has no complaints. On pelvic examination performed in the supine and upright positions, the patient has second-degree prolapse of the uterus. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Reassurance
. Placement of a pessary
. Vaginal hysterectomy
. Le Fort procedure
. Anterior colporrhaphy
An 88-year-old man with a history of end-stage renal failure, severe coronary artery disease, and brain metastases from lung cancer presents with acute cholecystitis. His family wants “everything done.” Which of the following is the best management option in this patient?
. Tube cholecystostomy
. Open cholecystectomy
. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
. Intravenous antibiotics followed by elective cholecystectomy
. Lithotripsy followed by long-term bile acid therapy
An 89-year-old man has lost 30 lb over the past 2 years. He reports that food frequently sticks when he swallows. He also complains of a chronic cough. Barium swallow is shown here. What is the best treatment option for this patient?
. Placement of an esophageal stent
. Diverticuloplasty
. Excision of the diverticulum
. Excision of the diverticulum and administration of a promotility agent
. Excision of the diverticulum and cricopharyngeal myotomy
An active 78-year-old female with history of hypertension presents with the new onset of left hemiparesis. Cardiac monitoring reveals atrial fibrillation. She had been in sinus rhythm on check-up 3 months earlier. Optimal management at discharge includes a review of antihypertensive therapy, a ventricular rate control agent, and which of the following?
. Automated implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD)/permanent pacemaker to avoid the need for anticoagulation
. Immediate direct-current cardioversion
. Antiplatelet therapy such as aspirin, without warfarin
. Antiplatelet therapy plus warfarin with a target INR of 1.5
. Warfarin with a target INR of 2.0 to 3.0.
An agitated and nervous 24-year-old woman has had severe wheezing and shortness of breath for 2 days. After receiving oxygen, steroids, and salbutamol (Ventolin) in the emergency room, her breathing improves. She is still wheezing and now feels tremulous and anxious with a pulse of 110/min and respirations 30/min. Arterial blood gases on oxygen reveal a pH of 7.40, PO2 340 mm Hg, PCO2 40 mm Hg, and bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L. She is hospitalized for further treatment. Which of the following treatments or medications should be avoided in her?
Theophylline
Sedatives
Corticosteroids
Sympathomimetic amines
Intravenous (IV) fluids
An anxious 33-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 1, abortus 1, is seen for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks’ gestation by dates. This was a planned pregnancy, and she discontinued the transdermal contraceptive patch 4 months ago. She is taking prenatal vitamins, including iron and folic acid. First trimester bleeding that progressed to hemorrhage complicated her first pregnancy, necessitating a suction dilatation and curettage at 8 weeks’ gestation. Her last pregnancy was uncomplicated prenatally. She went into spontaneous labor at 39 weeks’ gestation, progressing normally in labor with a reassuring electronic fetal heart rate monitor pattern. However, after an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery with neonatal Apgar scores of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively, her female neonate died on the second day of life from overwhelming group B -hemolytic streptococcal (GBS) infection. Which of the following statements best expresses what you will tell her about her current pregnancy?
Most women with a positive vaginal GBS culture will have uninfected infants.
A negative vaginal GBS culture means the fetus will not be at risk at delivery.
Appropriate treatment for a positive GBS vaginal culture can eradicate the organism.
The GBS organism is a pathologic bacterium in the female genital tract.
Rapid nonculture assay tests are highly sensitive for the GBS organism.
An elderly woman with osteoporosis falls on her outstretched hand. She comes in with a deformed and painful wrist that looks like a dinner fork. X-ray films show a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. There is also an associated fracture of the ulnar styloid. A neurologic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
. Closed reduction and short arm cast
. Closed reduction and long arm cast
. Skeletal traction
. Intramedullary rod
. Open reduction and internal fixation
An exploratory laparotomy for multiple intra-abdominal injuries has lasted 3 and a half hours. Multiple blood transfusions have been given, and several liters of Ringer's lactate have been infused. When the surgeons are ready to close the abdomen, they find that the abdominal wall edges cannot be pulled together without undue tension. Both the belly wall and the abdominal contents seem to be swollen. Which of the following is the most appropriate management in this situation?
. Approximate the skin only, using towel clips
. Close the abdomen with heavy retention sutures
. Give diuretics and close the abdomen in the usual way
. Leave the abdomen and its contents open to the air
. Provide temporary bowel coverage with an absorbable mesh
An imaging study detects a 3.5 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm in a 60-year-old male. He has no associated symptoms. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia and hypothyroidism. His medications include aspirin, metformin, glipizide, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, low dose atorvastatin and levothyroxine. He has smoked 1-2 packs of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years, and he drinks 1-2 glasses of wine daily. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg and his pulse is 80/min. Heart sounds are normal and his lungs are clear. Laboratory studies show: Serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL, Low density lipoprotein (LDL) 150 mg/dL, HbA1C 8.5%, Serum TSH 3.0. Which of the following interventions would most reduce the likelihood of his aortic aneurysm enlarging?
. Better control of hypertension
. Better control of hypercholesterolemia
. Better control of diabetes
. Smoking cessation
. Alcohol cessation
An in-hospital workup of a 78-year-old hypertensive, mildly asthmatic man who is receiving chemotherapy for colon cancer reveals symptomatic gallstones. Preoperative laboratory results are notable for a hematocrit of 24% and urinalysis with 18 to 25 WBCs and gram-negative bacteria. On call to the operating room, the patient receives intravenous penicillin. His abdomen is shaved in the operating room. An open cholecystectomy is performed and, despite a lack of indications, the common bile duct is explored. The wound is closed primarily with a Penrose drain exiting a separate stab wound. On postoperative day 3, the patient develops a wound infection. Which of the following changes in the care of this patient could have decreased the chance of a postoperative wound infection?
. Increasing the length of the preoperative hospital stay to prophylactically treat the asthma with steroids
. Treating the urinary infection prior to surgery
. Shaving the abdomen the night prior to surgery
. Continuing the prophylactic antibiotics for 3 postoperative days
. Using a closed drainage system brought out through the operative incision
An infant born at term to a 22-year-old woman has a weak cry and is cyanotic at birth. His fingertips and oral mucosa appear blue. His blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg and his heart rate is 140/min. Chest x-ray shows clear lung fields bilaterally. PaO2 measured by arterial cannulation is 38 mmHg, and improves only minimally on 100% inspired oxygen. Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
. Loop diuretics
. Packed red blood cell transfusion
. Prostaglandin E1 infusion
. Low dose beta-blocker
. Single dose of indomethacin
An infant is born with a defect in the anterior abdominal cavity. Upon examination there are abdominal contents (small bowel and liver) protruding directly through the umbilical ring. Which of the following should be considered in the management of this condition?
. No further workup is indicated prior to closure of the abdominal wall defect.
. A Silastic silo should be placed with immediate reduction of the viscera into the abdominal cavity.
. Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics should be administered prophylactically.
. Topical antimicrobial solutions should be administered prophylactically.
. Enteral feeds for nutritional support should be initiated early prior to operative management.
An infant is delivered vaginally to a 30-year-old G1P1 woman whose pregnancy was uneventful. Examination of the newborn reveals mild atrophy of the left calf. His left calcaneum and talus are in equinus and varus positions, his midfoot is in varus position, and his forefoot is in adduction. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the ankle are limited. The neurologic examination is normal. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Reassurance
Stretching, manipulation, followed by serial casting
Casting of the whole leg up to the hip
Surgical correction within the first month of life
Watchful waiting
An infant weighing 1400 g (3 lb) is born at 32 weeks’ gestation. Initial evaluation was benign, and the infant was transferred to the level 2 nursery for prematurity. The nurse there calls at 1 hour of life and reports the infant is tachypneic. Vital signs include a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 80 breaths per minute, a temperature of 35°C (95°F), and a peripheral oxygen saturation of 98%. The lungs are clear with bilateral breath sounds and there is no murmur; the infant is in no dis- tress. The child’s chest radiograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating the infant?
. Obtain a complete blood count and differential
. Perform a lumbar puncture
. Administer intravenously 5cc of D50W
. Place the infant under a warmer
. Administer supplemental oxygen
An infertile couple presents to you for evaluation. A semen analysis from the husband is ordered. The sample of 2.5 cc contains 25 million sperm per mL; 65% of the sperm show normal morphology; 20% of the sperm show progressive forward mobility. You should tell the couple which of the following?
. The sample is normal, but of no clinical value because of the low sample volume
. The sample is normal and should not be a factor in the couple’s infertility
. The sample is abnormal because the percentage of sperm with normal morphology is too low
. The sample is abnormal because of an inadequate number of sperm per milliliter
. The sample is abnormal owing to a low percentage of forwardly mobile sperm
An inner city family has been using a neighbor to care for their 3-year-old child while the parents work. The neighbor is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. PPD test of the 3-year-old is negative. Which of the following is indicated for the 3-year-old?
. Ethambutol chemoprophylaxis
. Isoniazid chemoprophylaxis
. Rifampin chemoprophylaxis
. Streptomycin chemoprophylaxis
. No chemoprophylaxis
An intrauterine pregnancy of approximately 10 weeks gestation is confirmed in a 30-year-old G5P4 woman with an IUD in place. The patient expresses a strong desire for the pregnancy to be continued. On examination, the string of the IUD is noted to be protruding from the cervical os. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
. Leave the IUD in place without any other treatment.
. Leave the IUD in place and continue prophylactic antibiotics throughout pregnancy.
. Remove the IUD immediately.
. Terminate the pregnancy because of the high risk of infection.
. Perform a laparoscopy to rule out a heterotopic ectopic pregnancy
An obese 56-year-old female presents to her physician concerned that her asthma is worsening. She describes night-time cough and wheezing that have been increasing over recent months. She also reports feeling tired each morning because she works late hours and has no time to relax after dinner. On review of systems, the patient denies dyspnea on exertion, but acknowledges that her throat has been sore lately. Her past medical history is significant for bronchial asthma, type2 diabetes and hypertension. Her medications include an albuterol inhaler which she uses occasionally, lisinopril and aspirin. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and there are no abnormalities on physical exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Discontinue lisinopril
. Discontinue aspirin
. Add inhaled fluticasone
. Add pantoprazole
. Add salmeterol
An obese patient with a long-standing history of type 2 DM presents to his primary care physician. On examination he has decreased sensation in both lower extremities. Upon questioning of his compliance with his prescribed medications, he reports that he has stopped taking one medication because it gave him flatulence and abdominal pain. Which of the following did this man most likely stop taking?
An α-glucosidase inhibitor
Meglitinide
Metformin
Sulfonylurea
Thiazolidinedione
An otherwise asymptomatic 65-year-old man with diabetes presents to the ER with a sports-related right shoulder injury. His heart rate is noted to be irregular, and this ECG is obtained. Which of the following is the best immediate therapy?
. Atropine
. Isoproterenol
. Pacemaker placement
. Electrical cardioversion
. Observation
An otherwise healthy 24-year-old man presents in the emergency department with very severe pain of recent onset in his right scrotum. The pain is constant and began about 3 hours prior to his arrival. Physical examination shows a temperature of 39.4C (103F) but is otherwise unremarkable, except for the scrotal area. The testis on the affected side is in the normal position; however, it appears to be swollen and is exquisitely tender to palpation. The cord above the testis is equally painful and tender. Urinalysis shows pyuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Antiviral medication started within the hour
Scrotal sonogram and antibiotics
Cystoscopy and bladder irrigation
Trans-scrotal biopsy and appropriate resection
Emergency surgery and bilateral orchiopexy
An otherwise healthy 40-year-old woman sees you because of recurrent abdominal pain. In the past month she has had four episodes of colicky epigastric pain. Each of these episodes has lasted about 30 minutes and has occurred within an hour of eating. Two of the episodes have been associated with sweating and vomiting. None of the episodes have been associated with fever or shortness of breath. She has not lost weight. She does not drink alcohol or take any prescription or over-the-counter medications. Other than three previous uneventful vaginal deliveries, she has never been hospitalized. Her examination is negative except for mild obesity (BMI = 32). A complete blood count and multichannel chemistry profile that includes liver function test is normal. A gallbladder sonogram reveals multiple gallstones. What is the next best step in the treatment of this patient?
. Omeprazole, 20 mg daily for eight weeks
. Ursodeoxycholic acid
. Observation without specific therapy
. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
. Weight reduction
An otherwise healthy 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department of a small hospital because of a simple 3-cm laceration in his forehead. The patient is crying and frightened. The practitioner decides to perform conscious sedation before suturing the laceration. Support personnel and equipment are available for monitoring the patient's vital status and carrying out resuscitation measures if needed. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic agent to achieve a safe level of conscious sedation in this situation?
. Oral or rectal midazolam or diazepam
. Concomitant opioid and benzodiazepine administration
. Intravenous propofol
. Intravenous ketamine
. Concomitant analgesic-sedative agents and muscle relaxants
An upper GI series is performed on a 71-year-old woman who presented with several months of chest pain that occurs when she is eating. The film shown here is obtained. Investigation reveals a microcytic anemia and erosive gastritis on upper endoscopy. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Cessation of smoking, decreased caffeine intake, and avoidance of large meals before lying down
. Antacids
. Histamine-2 blocker
. Proton-pump inhibitor
. Surgical treatment
Approximately 2 weeks after a viral respiratory illness, an 18-month-old child complains of abdominal pain and passes some bloody mucus per rectum. A long, thin mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. No peritoneal signs are present. Intussusception is suspected. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
. Diagnostic air enema with subsequent observation and serial abdominal examinations
. Hydrostatic reduction with air enema
. Diagnostic laparoscopy with laparoscopic reduction
. Exploratory laparotomy with bowel resection
. Decompressive colonoscopy with placement of a rectal tube
As the on-call surgery resident, you are paged to see a patient on the ward who is having seizures. The patient is a 35-year-old male who underwent a cholecystectomy yesterday. His surgery was uneventful and the man appeared to be doing well until an hour ago when he developed altered sensorium. Upon arriving on the floor, you discover the patient to be confused and agitated. His vital signs include a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F), blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg, pulse of 110/min, and respirations of 18/min. The man is diaphoretic and has tremors. His wound incisions show no evidence of inflammation, and biliary drainage appears adequate. A review of his medical record indicates his medical history to be unremarkable except for mild esophagitis. He smokes a pack of cigarettes per day and drinks 6-10 beers per night. His medications include folic acid, thiamine, and omepra zole. Laboratory results include the following: CBC: Hb 14.1 g/dL, Leukocyte count 7,100/cmm. Serum Chemistry: Sodium 137 mEq/L, Potassium 4.0 mEq/L, Chloride 101 mEq/L, Bicarbonates 24 mEq/L, BUN 12 mg/dL, Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL, Glucose 104 mg/dL. Arterial Blood Gas: PH 7.40, PO2 94 mm Hg, PCO2 40 mm Hg. Which of the following should be initiated immediately in this patient?
. Disulfiram
. Chlordiazepoxide
. Phenobarbitone
. Flumazenil
. Phenytoin
As you are about to step out of a newly delivered mother’s room, she mentions that she wants to breast-feed her healthy infant, but that her obstetrician was concerned about one of the medicines she was taking. Which of the woman’s medicines, listed below, is clearly contraindicated in breast-feeding?
Ibuprofen as needed for pain or fever
Labetalol for her chronic hypertension
Amphetamines for her attention deficit disorder
Carbamazepine for her seizure disorder
Acyclovir for her HSV outbreak
At exploratory laparotomy for blunt abdominal trauma, a 14-year-old boy is found to have a ruptured spleen. The spleen is shattered into multiple fragments, and there are other serious intraabdominal injuries that will require significant operative time. For the above reasons, it is decided that a quick splenectomy is indicated, and it is done. In the postoperative period, this young man should receive which of the following treatments?
Anticoagulation
Long-term prophylactic antibiotics
Platelet transfusions
Prolonged parenteral nutrition
Vaccinations for encapsulated organisms
At the 2-week checkup of a term female infant, the mother reports a grayish and sometimes bloody vaginal discharge since birth. The infant’s mother and grandmother are the only caretakers. Examination of the external genitalia reveals an intact hymen with a thin grayish mucous discharge. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
. Parental reassurance
. MRI of the brain
. Ultrasound of the abdomen
. Gonorrhea and chlamydial swabs
. Referral to social services for possible sexual abuse
Children with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk of developing overwhelming infection with certain microorganisms. Which of the following is the most reasonable step to prevent such infection?
Periodic injections of gamma globulin
Injection of VZIG after exposure to varicella
Withholding live virus vaccines
Prophylactic administration of oral penicillin daily
Early use of amoxicillin at home for episodes of fever
Diuretics, vasodilators and oxygen are standard inpatient therapy for patients hospitalized with left-sided heart failure. When patients are discharged, a different outpatient regimen is instituted. A team of researchers compares long-term cardiovascular mortality between patients treated with two different outpatient regimens. The study results are depicted below. In comparison to the patients depicted by the dashed curve, those depicted by the solid line most likely received treatment with which of the following?
. ACE inhibitor
. Calcium channel blocker
. Loop diuretic
. Digoxin
. Dobutamine
During a bar brawl, a 19-year-old man sustains a 4-in laceration on his left arm from glass and presents to the emergency room the following morning, 10 hours later. He is neurovascularly intact and the wound is deep, extending down to fascia. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the wound?
. Closure of the skin only and administration of oral antibiotics for 1 week
. Closure of the skin and subcutaneous tissue and administration of oral antibiotics for 1 week
. A single dose of intravenous antibiotics and closure of the skin only
. A single dose of intravenous antibiotics and closure of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
. Local wound care without wound closure or antibiotics
During a campaign appearance, a political candidate is shot point blank in the right chest with a .22 caliber revolver. The entrance wound is well above the nipple line, just under the third rib, at the level of the anterior axillary line. His motorcade brings him to the emergency department, but he makes it a point to walk in, holding his right chest with a bloody hand and waving for the news media. A chest x-ray shows a hemothorax on the right, and the bullet is seen to be embedded in the right paraspinous muscles. A chest tube is placed in the right pleural cavity, and 650 mL blood is recovered. Over the ensuing 4 hours, he continues to drain between 250 and 350 mL blood per hour. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Continued observation and appropriate blood replacement
. A second chest tube in a better position to drain the blood
. Thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding vessels
. Thoracotomy, ligation of bleeding vessels, and removal of the bullet
. Thoracotomy and pneumonectomy
During a hunting trip, a young man is bitten by a coyote. The animal is captured and brought to the authorities alive. Which of the following is the most important criterion to determine the patient's need for rabies prophylaxis?
. The patient's history of previous immunizations
. The patient's clinical course over the next few weeks
. Observing the animal's behavior over the next few days
. Killing the animal and examining the brain
. The events that took place have already established the need to proceed with rabies immunization
During a screening physical examination for participating in high school sports, a 14-year-old girl is found to have a late apical systolic murmur preceded by a click. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Echocardiography shows superior displacement of the mitral leaflets of > 2 mm during systole into the left atrium, with a thickness of at least 8 mm. In addition, she states that her father also has some type of heart “murmur,” but she knows nothing else about it. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
Digoxin
Instruct the patient to avoid all forms of strenuous activity
Metoprolol
Mitral valve replacement
Prophylactic antibiotics for dental procedures
During an appendectomy for acute appendicitis, a 4-cm mass is found in the midportion of the appendix. Frozen section reveals this lesion to be a carcinoid tumor. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Appendectomy
Appendectomy followed by a colonoscopy
Appendectomy followed by a PET scan
Right hemicolectomy
Total proctocolectomy
During diagnostic evaluation, a 14-year-old girl with menorrhagia, frequent nosebleeds, and iron deficiency anaemia is found to have a low platelet count with a normal coagulation profile. Bone marrow biopsy reveals abundant megakaryocytes. On abdominal examination, no organomegaly is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
. splenectomy
. Platelet transfusion when peripheral platelet count drops below 50,000/mL
. Systemic steroids
. chemotherapy
. Expectant, with intervention only if the patient develops significant clinical bleeding
During diagnostic evaluation, a 14-year-old girl with menorrhagia, frequent nosebleeds, and irondeficiency anemia is found to have a low platelet count with a normal coagulation profile. Bone marrow biopsy reveals abundant megakaryocytes. On abdominal examination, no organomegaly is noted. The patient has a satisfactory response to the initial therapeutic intervention, but over 6–12 months’ time, the response is less dramatic and shorter in duration. There are signs and symptoms of increasing side effects from therapy. The next step in management should be to recommend which of the following?
. Partial splenectomy
. splenectomy
. Increase in steroid dose and frequency
. Bone marrow transplant
. plasmapheresis
During endoscopic biopsy of a distal esophageal cancer, perforation of the esophagus is suspected when the patient complains of significant new substernal pain. An immediate chest film reveals air in the mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Placement of a nasogastric tube to the level of perforation, antibiotics, and close observation
. Spit fistula (cervical pharyngostomy) and gastrostomy
. Left thoracotomy, pleural patch oversewing of the perforation, and drainage of the mediastinum
. Left thoracotomy with esophagectomy
. Thoracotomy with chest tube drainage and esophageal exclusion
Eight days after a difficult hemigastrectomy and gastroduodenostomy for gastric ulcer, a patient begins to leak 2-3 L of greenish fluid per day through the right corner of his bilateral subcostal surgical incision. He is afebrile and has no clinical signs of an acute abdomen. At surgery, a feeding catheter jejunostomy was placed, through which the patient has been receiving 3 L/day of elemental diet with a caloric content of 1 cal per mL, and 1 g nitrogen per 100 cal. The nursing staffs have rigged a very effective collection device for the fluid that is leaking through the wound, and the skin around the site is well protected. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
No changes in the present therapeutic plan
Addition of 2-3 L per day of IV Ringer's lactate
Immediate discontinuation of the jejunal feeding, and replacement by 5 L/day of IV 5% dextrose-half normal saline
Surgical drainage of the operative area
Surgical reconstruction of die gastroduodenostomy
Five days after an uneventful cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic middle-aged woman is found to have a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
. Administration of hypertonic saline solution
. Restriction of free water
. Plasma ultrafiltration
. Hemodialysis
. Aggressive diuresis with furosemide
Following a 2-hour firefighting episode, a 36-year-old fireman begins complaining of a throbbing headache, nausea, dizziness, and visual disturbances. He is taken to the ER, where his carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level is found to be 31%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his treatment?
. Begin an immediate exchange transfusion.
. Transfer the patient to a hyperbaric oxygen chamber.
. Begin bicarbonate infusion and give 250 mg acetazolamide (Diamox) intravenously.
. Administer 100% oxygen by mask.
. Perform flexible bronchoscopy with further therapy determined by findings.
Following a boating injury in an industrial-use river, a patient begins to display fever, tachycardia, and a rapidly expanding area of erythema, blistering, and drainage from a flank wound. An x-ray shows gas in the soft tissues. Which of the following measures is most appropriate?
. Administration of an antifungal agent
. Administration of antitoxin
. Wide debridement
. Administration of hyperbaric O2
. Early closure of tissue defect
Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 12-year-old girl develops upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An upper gastrointestinal series reveals a total obstruction of the duodenum with a coiled spring appearance in the second and third portions. In the absence of other suspected injuries, which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Gastrojejunostomy
. Nasogastric suction and observation
. Duodenal resection
. TPN (total parental nutrition) to increase the size of the retroperitoneal fat pad
. Duodenojejunostomy
Following pelvic gynecologic surgery, a 34-year-old woman becomes dyspneic, her peripheral arterial O2 saturation falls from 94% to 81%, and her measured PaO2 is 52 on a 100% non-rebreather mask. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT angiogram is consistent with a right lower lobe pulmonary embolus. Which of the following is the next step in her management?
. Systemic anticoagulation with heparin infusion
. Systemic anticoagulation with warfarin
. Placement of an inferior vena cava filter
. Thrombolytic therapy
. Open pulmonary embolectomy
Following significant head trauma, a 34-year-old woman undergoes a CT scan that demonstrates bilateral frontal lobe contusions of the brain. There is no midline shift. She has a GCS of 14. Which of the following is the best initial management of this patient?
. Observation alone
. Observation and administration of anticonvulsive medication for 1 week
. Placement of an intracranial pressure monitor
. Administration of 25 g of mannitol
. Intubation and hyperventilation
Four days after surgical evacuation of an acute subdural hematoma, a 44-year-old man becomes mildly lethargic and develops asterixis. He has received 2400 mL of 5% dextrose in water intravenously each day since surgery, and he appears well hydrated. Pertinent laboratory values are as follows:Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 118, K+ 3.4, Cl− 82, HCO3− 24Serum osmolality: 242 mOsm/LUrine sodium: 47 mEq/LUrine osmolality: 486 mOsm/LWhich of the following is the best treatment of his hyponatremia?
. Insulin infusion to keep his glucose level less than 110 mg/dL
. Slow infusion of 3% normal saline until neurologic symptoms are improved
. Rapid infusion of 3% normal saline to correct the sodium to normal
. Desmopressin (DDAVP) administration
. Administration of a loop diuretic
Four hours ago, a 28-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 38 weeks’ gestation was admitted to the labor and delivery suite. On admission, she had regular uterine contractions occurring every 2–3 minutes, a dilation of 4 cm on cervical examination, effacement of 80%, and blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg. The fetus is in longitudinal lie and cephalic presentation with an estimated weight of 3,500 g (7 lb 11 oz) by abdominal palpation. Her prenatal course was characterized by first-trimester bleeding that spontaneously resolved. Her blood pressure (BP) has gradually increased over the past 4 hours; it is now sustained at 150/95 mm Hg. Her patella deep tendon reflexes are brisk, but she has no clonus. A urine dipstick test shows 2 albumin. Administration of which of the following agents is indicated as the next step in management?
Phenobarbital
Diazepam
Magnesium sulfate
Diphenylhydantoin
Magnesium gluconate
Four of your patients who came to the office today all have signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. After the appropriate evaluation, you decided to treat them with radioactive iodine. Hyperthyroid patients with which of the following disorders are most likely to develop hypothyroidism following radioactive therapy?
. Graves' disease
. Toxic adenoma
. Multinodular goiter
. Ectopic production of thyroid hormones
. Thyroid Cancer
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