The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.
True
False
Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
Receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
Effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
Receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
Effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because....?
They show the routes of motor nerves
They show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery
They outline the location of the numbers nerve plexus
They can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
Which receptors adapt most slowly?
Touch
Pressure
Nociceptors
Smell
Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):
Roots, divisions, cords, trunks
Roots, trunks, divisions, cords
Trunks, divisions, cords, roots
Divisions, roots, trunks, cords
The musculocutaneous nerve is a major of the brachial plexus.
True
False
Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are....?
Rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses
Involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
Always mediated by the brain
Autonomic only
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by...?
Golgi organs
Wallerian cells
Schwann cells
Dendrites
Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all EXCEPT which of the following?
Trigeminal
Facial
Vagus
Olfactory
A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a...?
Crossed-extensor reflex
Flexor reflex
Plantar reflex
Golgi-tendor reflex
A nurse is asked about the cause of excruciating pain of tic douloureux. How should the nurse answer
The pain is caused by damage to the optic nerve, resulting in anopsias
The pain is caused by damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve, resulting in nerve deafness
The pain is caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve. Pressure on the trigeminal nerve root can turn normal stimuli, like tooth brushing into painful stimuli
The pain is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve. The nerve is constantly transmitting pain signals to the brain
Which of the following nerves does NOT arise from the brachial plexus?
Ulnar
Phrenic
Median
Radial
Complicated interlacing of the ventral rami form networks called nerve plexus. The crisscrossing of the nerve fibers from the various spinal nerves is advantageous because..?
Viruses that infect by moving through PNS nerves are prevented entry to the CNS
Having several nerve fibers unite enhances motor function
Injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ
Having several nerve fibers unite enhances sensory function
Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Axillary
Radial
Ulnar
Median
A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?
Olfactory
Vagus
Accessory
Glossopharyngeal
Which of the following is NOT a plexus of the vagus nerve?
Cardiac
Esophageal
Inferior hypogastric
Pulmonary
Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?
First thoracic
Second cervical
Third lumbar
First coccyx
The autonomic and somatic nervous systems are two separate systems that work totally independent of each other and lack any functional overlap.
True
False
The vasomotor tone of blood vessels is mostly under sympathetic control
True
False
Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because...?
Preganglionic fibers are short
NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
Preganglionic fibers are long
Inactivation in ACh is fairly slow
Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle
Most glands
Which sympathetic fibers form a splanchnic nerve?
Those that synapse with somatic fibers
Those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered
Those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia
Those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers
Autonomic ganglia are motor ganglia, containing the cell bodies of motor neurons.
True
False
Autonomic dysreflexia....?
Results from over excitatory input from the cortex
Is also known as autonomic areflexia
Usually precedes spinal shock
Involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the...?
Sympathetic trunk
Vagus nerves
Sacral nerves
Phrenic nerve
Raynaud's disease...?
Is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
Occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord
Is frequently life threatening
Is induced by heat stress
Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity?
Beta 1
Beta 2
Beta 3
Alpha 1
The effect of beta-blocker drugs is to decrease blood pressure.
True
False
Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerves.....?
Trigeminal
Vagus
Facial
Hypoglossal
Sympathetic division stimulation causes...?
Increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate an blood pressure
Decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
Decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
The gray rami communicates consist of myelinated postganglionic fibers.
True
False
The adrenal medulla is considered by some to be a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion since embryologicially, they arise from the same tissue.
TRUE/ False
Receptors for hearing are located in the...?
Vestibule
Cochlea
Tympanic membrane
Semicircular canals
The receptor for static equilibrium is the...?
Semicircular canals
Macula
Utricle
Cochlear duct
What is the main function of the rods in the eye?
Depth perception
Vision in dim light
Accommodation for near vision
Color vision
70% of all sensory receptors are located in the...?
Eye
Ears
Nose
Skin
The tarsal plate of the eyelid....
Is connected to the elevator palpebral
Assists in the act of winking
Is connected to the superior rectus muscle
Is composed of connective tissue surrounding a thin cartilage plate
Damage to the medial rectus muscles would probably affect...?
Accommodation
Convergence
Pupil constriction
Refraction
If you shine a light into one eye, both pupils will constrict. The best explanation is?
A small portion of light always enters the other eye
Sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasma and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain
Info from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes
This in fact does not occur and info from both eyes is always separated
In order for sound to reach the spiral organ ( of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the perilymph and endolymph in motion.
True
False
Ceruminous glands are...?
Modified taste buds
Modified apocrine sweat glands
Glands found in the lateral corners of your eye
Saliva glands found in the base of the tongue
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of olfactory receptor cells?
They are ciliated
They are chemoreceptors
They have a short life span of about 60 days
They are unipolar neurons
The structure that allows equalization of the pressure in the middle ear with that outside the body is the external auditory meatus.
True
False
Which structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
Iris
Cornea
Lens
Aqueous humor
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of conduction deafness?
Otosclerosis
Middle ear infection
Impacted cerumen
Cochlear nerve degeneration
Bitter taste is elicited by...?
Hydrogen ions
Metal ions
Alkaloids
Acids
Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it?
Sour-acids
Bitter-alkaloids
Umami-triglycerides and fatty acids
Salty-metal ions
Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate?
Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes
Visual pigment content is reduced in cones more than rods
The impaired vision is caused by reduced cone function
The most common cause is vitamin D deficiency
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.
Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant
Basal cells carcinomas are the least common but most malignant
Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing
Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corner
Which are the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?
Meissner's corpuscle
Free nerve ending
Pacinian corpuscle
Ruffini body
Which glands produce ear wax?
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
Infection
Unbearable pain
Catastrophic fluid loss
Loss of immune function
When an individual is exposed to extremely cold air the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that more blood will be brought closer to the outside surface of the skin.
True
False
A patient has skin that is slightly blue in color. A likely treatment for this person might be...?
Giving the patient supplemental oxygen by mask
Encouraging the patient to eat more orange colored vegetables
Exposing the patient to more sunlight
Increasing fluids through IV therapy
The friction ridges seen in fingers, palm, and foot prints are different amount various people but very similar btw identical twins. This evidence suggests which of the following?
That friction ridges are genetically determined
That friction ridges allow for better tactical sensation
That friction ridges change over time
That friction ridges aid in gripping
What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?
Nutrition and hormones
Sex and hormones
Age and glandular products
The size and number of hair follicles
The single most important risk for skin cancer is...?
Use of farm chemicals
Genetics
Overexposure to UV radiation
Race
We are told that every surface we touch is teeming with bacterial cells, and bacteria are found in the pools we swim in, the water we wash with, and on the hands of friends. Why are we not inundated with bacterial infections on our skin?
Many bacteria are killed by bacterial substances in the sebum and sweat
The low pH of the skin secretions retards the multiplication of bacteria on the skin
Not all bacteria are harmful or thrive on the skin
All of the above
Which of the following will help the skin to fight infection but one. Which of the following will have little effect on the skin's ability to fight infection?
Greater production of melanin
Increased secretions of defensins from skin cells
More tight junctions btw keratinocytes of the stratum corneum
Greater production of keratinocytes resulting in more layers of stratum corneum
The protein found in large amounts in the outermost layer of epidermal cells is collagen.
True
False
Which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older woman?
Poor posture
Heritage such as African or Mediterranean
Estrogen deficiency due to menopause
Abnormal PH receptors
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system and bone tissue?
Communication
Storage of minerals
Support
Houses the bone marrow which produces blood cells (hematopoiesis)
Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of...?
Vitamin D and chloride
Calcium and vitamin D
Calcium and vitamin E
Potassium and vitamin D
Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone.
True
False
What age do bones reach their peak density?
Early childhood
At birth
Late adulthood
Early adulthood
All bones stop growing by the end of adolescence.
True
False
Which hormone increase osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
Parathyroid hormone
Thyroxine
Calcitonin
Estrogen
Which bone would likely take the longest to heal?
Thigh bone of an elderly individual
Finger bone of a young individual
Thigh bone of a young indivdual
Finger bone of an elderly individual
Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function.
True
False
Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is the appositional growth?
The lengthening of hyaline cartliage
The secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
Growth at the epiphyseal plate
Along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger
The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anterior and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate tissue for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch.
Bone
Hyaline cartilage
Fibrocartilage
Elastic cartilage
Ossification of the ends of long bones...
Is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation
Takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification
Is produced by secondary ossification centers
Involves medullary cavity formation
All of the bones of the adult skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable.
True
False
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
All synovial joints are freely movable
In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present
Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses
Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable
Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum?
True
False
After having a severe cold accompanied by nasal congestion, Jamila complained that she had a headache just above her eyes and that the right side of her face ached. What specific bony structures probably became infected by the bacteria of viruses causing the cold?
The ethmoidal and sphenoid sinuses located at the frontal bone, and the right frontal sinus located in the right maxilla
The ethmoidal sinuses in the ethmoid bone and the right maximally sinus located in the right maxilla
The sphenoidal sinuses located in the sphenoid bone, and the right maxillary sinus located in the right maxilla
The frontal sinus located in the frontal bone, and the right maxillary sinus located in the right maxilla
Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?
Head
Calcareous
Lateral malleolus
Medial malleolus
Which of the following bones is NOT weight bearing?
Tibia
Talus
Fibula
Femur
The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts the movement of the humerus but does increase the stability of the joint.
True
False
The largest and strongest bone of the face is the maxilla.
True
False
There are 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar vertebrae.
True
False
The "true wrist" or carpus consists of...?
The phalanges
The metacarpals
A group of 8 short bones united by ligaments
Radial and ulnar styloid processes
The pelvic girdle does NOT include the..?
Femur
Pubis
Ishium
Ilium
Which vertebra does NOT have a body?
Axis
Last lumbar
Last cervical
Atlas
What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs?
To prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine
The remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column
To absorb shock an provide flexibility to the spine
To hold together the vertebra and support the body
Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify a saddle joint of the skeleton.
Interphalangeal joint of the finger
Carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges
Metacarpophalangeal joint of the finger
Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?
Patellar ligament
Medial patellar retinacula
Lateral patellar retinacula
Extra capsular ligament
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are..?
Amphiarthroses
Synovial joints
Synarthroses
Diarthroses
A fibrous join that in a peg-in-socket is called a .... joint?
Syndemosis
Suture
Gomphosis
Synchondrosis
Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?
Syndesmoses
Sutures
Synchondroses
Gomphxses
A joint united by fibrocartilage tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ...?
Symphysis
Gomphosis
Syndesmosis
Suture
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called...?
Menisci
Bursae
Tendons
Ligaments
What are menisci (articular discs0?
Tendon sheaths
Wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity
Small sacs containing synovial fluid
Cavities lined with cartilage
Tendon sheaths....?
Are extensions of periosteum
Act as friction-reducing structures
Are lined with dense irreg CT
Maggie is a 28 y.o white woman who has newly diagnosed RA. She complains of painful, stiff hands an feet, feeling tired all the time, and reports an intermittent, low grade fever. She asks the nurse if she is going to be "crippled". How should the nurse respond?
RA is due to the accumulation of crystals in the joints that impair movements of the joint and cause extreme pain
RA results in the formation of bony spurs that enlarge the bone ends, restrict joint movement, and cause pain
RA is a chronic, systemic, inflammatory disorder. Inflammation occurs in the joint, and the fluid that accumulates causes swelling, stiffness, impairment of joint movement, and extreme pain.
Not all cases of RA result in fluid accumulation, swelling, stiffness, impairment of joint movement, and extreme pain
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to...?
Form the synovial membrane
Produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)
Provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
Attach tendons
The hop joint is a good example of a ...... Synovial joint.
Multiaxial
Non axial
Biaxial
Uniaxial
A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
True
False
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are...?
Myofibrils
T tubules
Microtubules
Mitochondria
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
The action potential stops growing down the overloaded T tubules
Acetylcholinesterase destroys the ACh
The tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
Calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at the axon terminal of a motor neuron there is a short period called the .... Period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.
Refractory
Relaxation
Contraction
Latent
The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by...?
Recruiting small and medium muscle fibers
Increasing stimulus above the tripe stimulus
Increasing stimulus above the threshold
Increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
Of the following items listed below, which is the best description for why skeletal muscle stores glycogen?
The glycogen is an insulting layer that helps regulate body temperature
Skeletal muscle is a heavy consumer of energy
Glycogen provides a smooth surface for filaments to slide on
Glycogen is part of muscles rigid supporting framework
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
Latent
Fatigue
Relaxation
Refractory
Which of the following statements is true?
Smooth muscle cells have T tubules
Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei
Skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei
Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyramid acid for energy. As as result, the pyramid acid is converted to...?
HCL acid
A strong base
Stearic acid
Lactic acid
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
Actin filaments
Myosin filaments
Z discs
Thick filaments
One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is the production of heat.
True
False
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.
True
False
The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bears active sites for myosin attachment.
True
False
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Myofibrillar network
Intermediate filament network
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
True
False
The nurse encourages the patient to do his own activities of daily living such as bathing, eating, dressing, and toiling activities. How do these activities promote physical conditioning?
The contraction of the muscles in these activities helps maintain the shape, size, and strength of muscles as all joint mobility
The contraction of the muscles in theses activities reverses myotonic dystrophy and rebuilds muscle mass
The contraction of the muscles in these activities reverses sarcopenia and rebuilds muscle mass
It does not. Only weight-bearing exercises maintain the shape, she, and strength of muscles
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cells by...?
Storing energy that will transferred to ADP to resynthesizes ATP
Forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
Including a conformational change in the myofilaments
Forming a chemical compound with actin
Gary was injured in a car accident that severed the motor neurons innervating his quadriceps. Even though he has had extensive physical therapy, he is still suffering muscle atrophy. Why is the therapy not working?
In myotonic dystrophy, there is a gradual lose of muscle mass as muscle proteins degrade faster than they can be replaced
In denervation (disuse) atrophy, fibrous CT replaces the muscle tissue that was lost. When atrophy is complete, fibrous tissue can't be reversed to muscle tissue
In sarcopenia, there is gradual lose of muscle mass as muscle proteins degree faster than they can be replaced
In myasthenia gravis, fibrous CT replaces the muscle tissue the was lost. Why atrophy is complete fibrous tissue can't be reversed to muscle tissue
The term central nervous system refers to the...?
The somatic nerves
The spinal nerves
Sensory (afferent) nerves
Brain and spinal cord
Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry info about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
Parasympathetic nervous system
Sensory (afferent) division
Somatic nervous system
Sympathetic nervous system
Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the CNS.
True
False
Which of the following is NOT true of graded potential?
They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
They can be called postsynaptic potentials
They can form on receptor endings
They are short lived
During depolarization, the inside of the neurons' membrane becomes LESS negative.
True
False
Meningitis can be caused by infection of the CNS by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection?
Satellite cells
Schwann cells
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase.
True
False
A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse btw 2 neurons.
True
False
Bacteria in the blood can prevent entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain?
Oligodendrocytes
Satellite cells
Schwann cells
Astrocytes
The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is NOT sensitive to another stimulus is the...?
Depolarization
Absolute refractory period
Repolarization
Resting period
Which of the following is NOT a function of ANS?
Innervation of glands
Innervation of skeletal muscle
Innervation of cardiac muscle
Innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
What does the CNS use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
Origin of the stimulus
Size of the action potentials
Frequency of action potentials
Type of stimulus receptor
A second nerve impulse CANNOT be generated until?
All Na gates are closed
Proteins have been resynthesizes
The membrane perennial has been reestablished
The Na ions have been pumped back into the cell
Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes.
True
False
An action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. Which of the following examples below best shows that the positive feedback aspect of an action potential?
A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. This stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels.
Voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization.
Potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions
The sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes.
Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?
Leakage channel
Voltage-gated channel
Mechanically gated channel
Ligand-gated channel
Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
Sensory (afferent) division
Parasympathetic division
Sympathetic division
Somatic nervous system
A flat EEG is good indication of deep sleep.
True
False
Rides of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called...?
Gyri
Ganglia
Sulci
Fissures
The primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space
True
False
The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.
Visceral sensory area
Gustatory cortex
Vestibular cortex
Olfactory cortex
The blood-brain barrier is effective against...?
Nutrients such as glucose
Anesthetics
Alochol
Metabolic waste such as urea
One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and depth of breathing.
True
False
Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
Red blood cells
Glucose
Potassium
Protein
The arbor vitae refers to...?
Cerebellar gray matter
Flocculondoular nodes
The pleat like convolutions of the cerebellum
Cerebellar white matter
Which type of memory is exemplified by a racing heartbeat upon hearing a rattlesnake nearby?
Emotional
Declarative
Motor
Procedural
The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter, internal white matter, and the superior and inferior colliculi.
True
False
Which ventricle is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord?
Second
Third
Fourth
First
Embryonic damage to the mesencephalon could result in improper formation of the midbrain.
True
False
The ________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.
Midbrain
Diencephalon
Basal nuclei
Brain stem
Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
Contusion
Hemorrhage
Concussion
Swelling
A disturbance of posture, muscle tremors at rest, and uncontrolled muscle contraction are all symptoms of damage to the basal nuclei.
True
False
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
Supplementary and cerebellar-pontine
Segmental an nigrostriatal
Pyramidal and corticospinal
Extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
In which body cavities are the lungs located?
Pleural, mental, thoracic
Mediastinal, thoracic, ventral
Pleural, dorsal, abdominal
Pericardial, ventral, thoracic
Which of the following organs/structures would be found in the left iliac region?
Appendix
Stomach
Liver
Heart
Intestines
What body cavity contains the uterus?
Abdominalpelvic
Cranial
Thoracic
Pericardial
Choose the following statement is NOT correct regarding serous membranes.
Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures
Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a virtual space btw the 2
Visercal pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart,and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart
Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid
What is the correct regional term for the shoulder?
Brachial
Antecubital
Otic
Cephalic
Acrominal
Some of the nerve endings in the skin are sensitive to changes in temperature. They are part of a negative feedback mechanism regulating body temperature. These nerve endings represent a(n) ________ in the negative feedback mechanism.
Homeostatic balance or "ideal" value
Effector
Control center
Receptor
Input
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex: [1. molecules 2. Atoms 3. Tissues 4.Cells 5. Organs]
1,2.3.4.5
5,4,3,1,2
2,1,4,3,5
1,2,4,3,5
Positive feedback differs from negative feedback because....?
Positive feedback is generally beneficial while negative feedback is typically harmful
Positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus while negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level
Positive feedback is critical to health while negative feedback serves only to alert us to potential health threats
positive feedback is when Ms. McKee gives me a good grade on this test (because I studied hard), while negative feedback is when she gives me a bad grade (because I didn’t study).
Positive feedback provides moment-to-moment wellbeing while negative feedback causes a cascade effect
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT...?
Body erect, arms at sides, PALMS TURNED POSTERIORLY, thumbs pointed laterally
The stomach is ....... To the spine.
Promixal
Anterior
Distal
Medial
Lateral
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains....?
The lowest possible energy usage
A relatively stable internal environment, within limits
A static state with no deviation from preset joints
A dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances
Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________.
Addition of a water molecule btw each two units
Addition of a carbon atom btw each two units
Removal of a water molecule btw each two units
Removal of a carbon atom btw each two units
Addition of carbon dioxide btw each two units
What happens in redox reactions?
Both decomposition and electron exchange occur
The electron acceptor is oxidized
The organic substance that loses hydrogen is usually reduced
The reaction if uniformly reversible
A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with...?
The release of energy
The consumption of energy
A synthesis
Forming a larger molecule
Dehydration
Forming glycogen as energy storage in the liver is an example of...?
Anabolism
Oxidation
Exergonic
Catabolism
Hepatic accommodation
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
H2o
NaCl
NaOH
CH4
CO2
What property of water is demonstrated when we sweat?
High heat capacity
High heat of vaporization
Polar solvent properties
Reactivity
Cushioning
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.
Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers.
Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversible changes in shape.
Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.
What is a chain of more than 50 amino acids called?
Triglyceride
Polysaccharide
Eicosanoids
Nucleic acid
Protein
Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.
Synthesis
Decomposition
Exchange
Reversible
Catabolic
What is electrically charged particle due to the loss of an electron?
Atom
Neutron
Anion
Cation
Molecule
Triglycerides are a poor source of stored energy.
True
False
Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes?
Some enzymes are purely protein.
Some enzymes are purely protein.
Each enzyme is chemically specific.
Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.
Act as biologically catalysts
Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes?
Digesting particles taken in by endocytosis
Degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles
Help in the formation of cell membranes
Breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood
Self destructing the cell
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the membrane potential?
In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential.
The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump.
The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+ions.
The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes.
Voltage only occurs at the membrane surface
Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?
Circulating anitbody
Molecule transport through the membrane
Forms a lipid bilayer
Oxygen transport
Energy storage
A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize...?
Phagocytosis
Pinocytosis
Receptor-mediated endocytosis
Exocytosis
Vesicular trafficking
Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
lipid metabolism and cholesterol synthesis
Steroid-based hormone synthesis
Breakdown of stored glycogen to form free glucose
protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes
Detoxifies certain chemicals
Which of the following structures would aid a cell in allowing more nutrients to be absorbed by the cell?
Stereocilia
Microvilli
Primary cilia
Flagella
Gap junctions
Which of the following would NOT be constituent of a plasma membrane?
Glycolipids
Transport proteins
MRNA
Phospholipids
Glycoproteins
A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein, and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. This transport protein would best be described as ________.
A pump
A channel
A symporter
A carrier protein
A concentration gradient
The main component of the cytosol is...?
Proteins
Sugars
Salts
Water
Hormones
Which of these is an inclusion, NOT an organelle?
Melanin
Lysosome
Microtubule
Cilia
Ribosome
Which of the following is a function of the glycolcalyx?
increasing membrane stability
Holds cells together
Acting as a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell
Increasing membrane potential
Allowing for cellular recognition
Mitochondria...?
Contain digestive enzymes called acid hydrolyses
Are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP
Contain their own DNA separate from that of the cell
Synthesize proteins for use outside the cell
All of the above
If active transport establishes a concentration gradient with the use of ATP, then the concentration gradient can be looked at as ________.
Potential energy that can be harnessed when molecules passively diffuse down the concentration gradient
An unusable byproduct of active transport that will simply diffuse away
Unwanted pressure that will be alleviated by channel mediated facilitated diffusion
A byproduct of active transport that will be alleviated by pinocytosis
An impermeable barrier
What are the two ways to classify epithelial tissues?
Shape and number of layers
Apical and basal
Stratified and simple
Size and shape
Function and location
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________.
Hydroxyapatite crystals
Hyaline cartilage
Reticular fibers
elastic fibers
Collagen fibers
Which of the following is NOT found in cartilage but IS found in bone?
Living cells
Lacunae
Collagen fibers
Elastic fibers
Blood vessels
The daughter cells in mitosis are NOT genetically distinct.
True
False
Which of the following statements is TRUE of CT?
Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.
When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.
Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength.
Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.
________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.
Stratified cuboidal
Stratified columnar
Transitional
Pseudo stratified columnar
Simple columnar
What type of membrane consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?
Mucous membrane
Serous membrane
Cutaneous membrane
Endothelium
Regenerative membrane
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________.
Exocrine
Endocrine
Sebaceous
Ceruminous
Sweat
Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?
Pseudostratifed columnar
Simple columnar
Simple squamous
Simple cuboidal
Transitional
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.
It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix
Its primary function if nutrient storage
Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic
Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleous
Its rare throughout the body
A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells ________.
Lines most the respiratory tract
Aids in digestion
Is more durable than all other epithelia
Is found in some of the larger glands
Aids in engird storage
Which type of tissue has virtually no regenerative ability?
Dense irreg CT
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Areolar CT
Bone tissue
The primary blast cell for CT proper is the...?
Osteoblast
Chondroblast
Hemocytoblast
Fibroblast
Lymphoblast
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