DES 2016-2017 : 2040-2299 (Fabien) 3

A dynamic illustration of a medical professional in a surgical setting, surrounded by hospital equipment, charts, and patients, symbolizing a challenging medical quiz environment.

Challenging Surgical and Medical Scenarios Quiz

Test your knowledge with our comprehensive quiz that covers a wide range of surgical and medical scenarios. From emergency situations to nuanced management strategies, this quiz is designed to challenge both students and professionals alike.

Whether you’re preparing for exams or just looking to refresh your knowledge, dive into these engaging questions!

  • 100 thought-provoking questions
  • Multiple choice answers to challenge your decision-making skills
  • Ideal for students, medical professionals, and enthusiasts
100 Questions25 MinutesCreated by SurgicalScout324
124) In this patient, a benign gastric ulcer was found, and he was placed on a proton-pump inhibitor and triple antibiotics for Helicobacter pylori. He returns to the physician’s office 3 months later with similar complaints and, on re-evaluation, the gastric ulcer was found to persist. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Surgical management
. A second trial of proton-pump inhibitors with triple antibiotics and re-evaluation in 2 months
. A trial of H2 blockers with triple antibiotics and re-evaluation in 2 months
. A trial of sucralfate and re-evaluation in 2 months
. A trial of prostaglandins and re-evaluation in 2 months
125) In a 6-month-old previously healthy male infant, an abnormality is revealed during a routine diaper change, as illustrated in Figure 6-19. The parents have noted this finding on and off on several occasions over the last month. On each occasion, the child has been feeding well, and is content and playful. We decided to do surgical repair. Several weeks later, the child presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of irritability. He has had one episode of nonbilious vomiting and has refused to breast-feed. In the emergency department, the infant appears inconsolable. He is afebrile, and his abdomen is mildly distended but soft. On removal of his diaper, the same abnormality is documented (see Figure 6-19). Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
 
 
Last but not least
. Sedation with manual reduction, admission, rehydration, and surgical repair within 24–48 hours
. Urgent surgical exploration
. Systemic antibiotics
. Elective surgical repair
. Sedation with manual reduction and arrangements for elective surgical repair
126) A 75-year-old woman with history of angina is admitted to the hospital for syncope. Examination of the patient reveals a systolic murmur best heard at the base of the heart that radiates into the carotid arteries. Electrocardiogram (ECG) is notable for left ventricular hypertrophy with evidence of left atrial enlargement. ECG reveals an aortic valve area of 0.7 cm2. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
. Aortic valve replacement
. Medical management with a nitrate and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
. Bilateral carotid endarterectomies
. Percutaneous coronary artery angioplasty and stenting
. Coronary artery bypass surgery
127) A pediatrician's office gets a phone call from a frantic mother. Her 7-year-old daughter was playing under the sink and accidentally spilled Liquid Plumber (a strong, corrosive alkaline drain cleaner) all over her arms and legs. The nurse on the phone can hear the girl screaming in the background. Which of the following are the most appropriate instructions to give the mother?
. Get the girl into the shower right away and keep the water running over her for 30 minutes before bringing her to the emergency department
. Cover the burned areas with triple antibiotic ointment until the girl can be seen at the office
. Get the girl to the emergency department as soon as possible
. Wash the burned areas with diluted vinegar and bring the girl to the office
. Wrap the burned areas in sterile dressings before bringing the girl to the emergency department
128) A 59-year-old man sustains blunt trauma in an automobile accident, resulting in multiple intra-abdominal injuries. Surgery for the repair of these injuries takes several hours and requires multiple blood transfusions and infusions of Ringer's lactate. Before all the operative steps are completed, the patient develops a significant coagulopathy, a core body temperature less than 34 C (93.2 F), and refractory acidosis. The anesthesiologists are administering fresh frozen plasma and platelet packs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for the surgeon?
. Pack the bleeding surfaces and close the abdomen temporarily with towel clips
. Provide hemostasis by liberal use of electrocoagulation
. Wash the abdomen with warm saline and continue to operate
. Complete the operation as soon as possible and do a formal abdominal closure
. Abort the operation and leave the abdomen open, covering the bowel with mesh
129) A previously healthy 19-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a penetrating wound to the right neck. There were reports of bleeding at the scene. The patient is talking, complaining of pain at the injury site and pain with swallowing. On examination, he has a normal respiratory rate, clear air entry on auscultation, blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, and heart rate of 95 beats/min. There is a penetrating right neck wound in zone 2 (between the clavicle and the lower part of the mandible), with a surrounding hematoma. On probing, there is violation of the platysma. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Neck exploration
. Intubation and observation in the ICU
. Admission to the ICU for close observation without intubation
. Observation in the ICU only if carotid angiogram is normal
. Observation in the ICU only if carotidangiogram, contrast esophagram, and bronchoscopy are normal
130) A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in an automobile crash. He is alert and oriented, with a normal neurologic examination. His respiratory rate is 20/min, with clear lungs, pulse rate of 120/min, and blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. On examination, he is noted to have a distended abdomen, with decreased bowel sounds, and a fracture of the right ankle. IV access is established, and the patient receives a rapid infusion of 2 L of saline, without changes to pulse rate or blood pressure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
. Exploratory laparotomy
. abdominal CT scan
. Insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter
. Focused abdominal sonography for trauma (FAST)
. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
131) A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine checkup. She states that she was recently hospitalized for surgery and was told she had some metal placed in a large blood vessel to prevent blood clots from moving to her lungs. An abdominal x-ray is shown here. Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for placement of this device?
 
 
Last but not least
. Recurrent pulmonary embolus despite adequate anticoagulation therapy
. Axillary vein thrombosis
. Pulmonary embolus due to DVT of the lower extremity that occurs 2 weeks postoperatively
. DVT in a patient with patient with metastatic carcinoma
. Pulmonary embolus in a patient with metastatic carcinoma
132) Two days after admission to the hospital for a myocardial infarction, a 65-year-old man complains of severe, unremitting midabdominal pain. His cardiac index is 1.6. Physical examination is remarkable for an absence of peritoneal irritation or distention despite the patient’s persistent complaint of severe pain. Serum lactate is 9 mmol/L (normal is < 3 mmol/L). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
. Perform mesenteric angiography.
. Perform computed tomography.
. Perform laparoscopy.
. Perform flexible sigmoidoscopy to assess the distal colon and rectum.
. Defer decision to explore the abdomen until the arterial lactate is greater than 10mmol/L.
133) A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe retrosternal chest pain that suddenly started a few hours ago. He has been having some chest pain and epigastric burning for the past few days but says that the current pain is different. His other medical problems include nonischemic cardiomyopathy for which he takes furosemide, carvedilol, spironolactone, lisinopril, and potassium chloride. He also has HIV infection but has chosen not to take any medication related to this diagnosis. His temperature is 38.9° C (102° F), blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Examination shows that he is in obvious distress secondary to pain. His lungs are clear to auscultation. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. His ECG is within normal limits. Chest x-ray shows a widened mediastinum and some mediastinal air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Contrast esophagography
. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and repeat ECG in 30 minutes
. Oral omeprazole and antacids
. Transesophageal echocardiography
. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
134) A 36-year-old woman presents with palpitations, anxiety, and hypertension. Workup reveals a pheochromocytoma. Which of the following is the best approach to optimizing the patient preoperatively?
. Initiation of an α-blocker at 1 to 3 weeks prior to surgery
. Fluid restriction 24 hours preoperatively to prevent intraoperative congestive heart failure
. Initiation of an α-blocker 24 hours prior to surgery
. Initiation of a β-blocker 1 to 3 weeks prior to surgery
. Escalating antihypertensive drug therapy with β-blockade followed by α-blockade starting at least 1 week prior to surgery
135) A 35-year-old woman is involved in a motor vehicle crash, sustaining a severe pelvic fracture, with disruption of the pelvic ring. In the trauma resuscitation room, she is confused and tachypneic, with a blood pressure of 90 mmHg systolic and a heart rate of 130/min. Laboratory investigations include serum electrolyte analysis, revealing a sodium of 139, a chloride of 103, and a bicarbonate of 14 meq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this acid-based derangement?
. Restoration of blood volume with aggressive IV fluid resuscitation
. Administration of sodium bicarbonate to correct the base deficit
. IV hydrochloric acid
. Intubation and hyperventilation
. This patient has no acid-based abnormality.
136) A 33-year-old pregnant woman notices a persistent, painless lump in the left breast. On examination the left breast has a single mobile mass without evidence of skin changes or lymphadenopathy in the neck or axilla. An ultrasound demonstrates a solid, 1-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. A core-needle biopsy shows invasive ductal carcinoma. The patient is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Modified radical mastectomy
. Termination of the pregnancy followed by modified radical mastectomy
. Immediate administration of chemotherapy followed by modified radical mastectomy after delivery of the baby
. Administration of radiation in the third trimester followed by modified radical mastectomy after delivery of the baby
. Total mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy
137) A 40-year-old woman presents with a rash involving the nipple-areola complex for the last month with associated itching. On physical examination there is crusting and ulceration of the nipple with surrounding erythema involving the areola and surrounding skin, no palpable breast masses, and no cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Mammogram and biopsy of the affected area
. Reexamine the patient in 1 month
. Corticosteroid cream to the affected area
. Administration of oral antibiotics
. Modified radical mastectomy
138) A 54-year-old woman presents to her physician for an opinion regarding additional therapy following curative resection of recently diagnosed colon cancer. She underwent uncomplicated sigmoid resection for invasive colon cancer 4 weeks ago. The pathology revealed carcinoma invading into, but not through, the muscularis propria, with one of eight positive mesenteric nodes. There was no evidence of liver metastases at the time of operation. Preoperative chest x-ray and CT scan of the abdomen showed no evidence of distant disease. Preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level was normal. Past history is positive for diabetes and mild hypertension. Examination is unremarkable except for a healing abdominal incision. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding adjuvant therapy?
. 5-fluorouracil chemotherapy with leucovorin
. No therapy indicated
. 5-fluorouracil chemotherapy
. doxorubicin (Adriamycin) chemotherapy
. Adriamycin chemotherapy with methotrexate and Cytoxam
139) A 55-year-old man presents to the physician’s office for his yearly physical examination. He is asymptomatic. Past history is pertinent for hypertension. Family history is positive for breast cancer in his mother at age 70 and colon cancer in his father at age 65. His examination is unremarkable except for guiac positive stool. Barium enema shows a sigmoid colon polyp. Colonoscopy confirms a 3-cm pedunculated polyp in the sigmoid colon, and snare polypectomy is performed. Pathologic examination reveals an adenomatous polyp with a focus of invasive carcinoma in the head, with a 4-mm resection margin and no tumor noted in the stalk. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. observation
. CT scan
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
. Surgical resection of sigmoid
. Regular use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
140) An elderly woman with osteoporosis falls on her outstretched hand. She comes in with a deformed and painful wrist that looks like a dinner fork. X-ray films show a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. There is also an associated fracture of the ulnar styloid. A neurologic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
. Closed reduction and long arm cast
. Closed reduction and short arm cast
. Skeletal traction
. Intramedullary rod
. Open reduction and internal fixation
141) During endoscopic biopsy of a distal esophageal cancer, perforation of the esophagus is suspected when the patient complains of significant new substernal pain. An immediate chest film reveals air in the mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Left thoracotomy with esophagectomy
. Placement of a nasogastric tube to the level of perforation, antibiotics, and close observation
. Spit fistula (cervical pharyngostomy) and gastrostomy
. Left thoracotomy, pleural patch oversewing of the perforation, and drainage of the mediastinum
. Thoracotomy with chest tube drainage and esophageal exclusion
142) In preparation for an inguinal hernia repair, a 22-year-old man has a spinal anesthetic placed. The level of sensory block turns out to be much higher than had been planned, and shortly thereafter his blood pressure drops to 75/20 mm Hg. He looks warm and flushed, and his central venous pressure is near zero. Which of the following should be included in his therapy?
. Vasoconstrictors and IV fluids
. Diuretics and fluid restriction
. Whole blood and clotting factors
. Inotropic agents and cardiac assist pump
. Vasodilators and IV fluids
143) A 27-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding pain and numbness in the right arm and hand. She reports that it is exacerbated by raising her arm over her head. On examination, the right radial pulse disappears when the patient takes a deep breath and turns her head to the left. A provisional diagnosis is made. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
. Physical rehabilitation
. Gabapentin to treat neuropathic pain
. Right first rib resection
. Thoracoscopic sympathectomy
. Upper thoracic discectomy
144) A 35-year-old man with a history of melanoma status post wide local excision with negative margins and lymph node dissection presents with 2, peripherallylocated pulmonary lesions seen on chest CT scan. Percutaneous biopsy of the lesion is consistent with metastatic melanoma. He has no evidence of recurrence or extrathoracic disease and is in good general health. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Pulmonary metastasectomy
. Chemotherapy
. Radiation therapy
. Pulmonary metastasectomy followed by radiation therapy
. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy followed by pulmonary metastasectomy
145) A 65-year-old man presents to the physician’s office for his yearly physical examination. His only complaint relates to early fatigue while playing golf. Past history is pertinent for mild hypertension. Examination is unremarkable except for trace hematest-positive stool. Blood tests are normal except for a hematocrit of 32. A UGI series is performed and is normal. A barium enema is performed, and one view is shown in Figure 6-10. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy following colonoscopy?
 
 
Last but not least
. Surgical resection and primary anastomosis
. Proximal colostomy with mucous fistula
. Radiation therapy
. chemotherapy
. Surgical bypass (colocolostomy)
146) A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of pain and weakness of the left lower extremity of 2-hour duration. Past history reveals chronic atrial fibrillation following a myocardial infarction 12 months ago. On examination, he is found to have a cool, pale left lower extremity with decreased strength and absent popliteal and pedal pulses. The opposite leg has a normal appearance with palpable pulses. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient?
. thromboembolectomy
. r-TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) infusion following anticoagulation
. Administration of vasodilators
. four-compartment fasciotomy
. Anticoagulation and close observation
147) A 53-year-old woman presents with complaints of weakness, anorexia, malaise, constipation, and back pain. While being evaluated, she becomes somewhat lethargic. Laboratory studies include a normal chest x-ray, serum albumin 3.2 mg/dL, serum calcium 14 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.6 mg/dL, serum chloride 108 mg/dL, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 32 mg/dL, and creatinine 2.0 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
. Intravenous normal saline infusion
. Administration of thiazide diuretics
. Administration of intravenous phosphorus
. Use of mithramycin
. Neck exploration and parathyroidectomy
148) A 44-year-old homeless woman presents to the emergency department because she is "bleeding from the breast." Physical examination shows a huge, fungating, ulcerated mass that occupies the entire right breast and is firmly attached to the chest wall. The right axilla is full of hard masses that are not movable either. Core biopsies of the breast are read as highly undifferentiated infiltrating ductal carcinoma, and assay for estrogen and progesterone receptors are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Radiation and chemotherapy
. Local wound care, but no specific antineoplastic therapy
. Tamoxifen therapy
. Palliative mastectomy
. Radical mastectomy with extended lymph node dissection
149) A 64-year-old woman complains of right calf pain and swelling. She recently underwent an uncomplicated left hemicolectomy for diverticular disease. A duplex ultrasound confirms the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the calf. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Heparin
. Pneumatic compression stockings
. Warfarin
. Thrombolysis
. Inferior vena cava filter
150) A 51-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office with a 2-month history of a right breast blood tinged nipple discharge. Past history is unremarkable. Family history is positive for postmenopausal breast cancer in a maternal grandmother. Examination reveals no palpable masses or regional adenopathy, but a serous discharge is easily elicited from a single duct in the right breast. Bilateral mammograms show no abnormalities. Cytology from the discharge was not diagnostic. A ductogram was ordered, and the results are shown in picture. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
 
New
. Terminal duct excision (microdochectomy)
. Collection of discharge for repeat cytologic analysis
. observation, with repeat examination and imaging studies in 3–6 months
. Modified radical mastectomy
. Central lumpectomy (including removal of the nipple/areolar complex
151) A 65-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of an abnormal screening mammogram. She denies any breast masses, nipple discharge, pain, or skin changes. Past history is pertinent for hypertension. Family history is positive for postmenopausal breast cancer in a sister. She has a normal breast examination and no axillary adenopathy. The remainder of her examination is unremarkable. An MLO view of the right breast is shown in Figure 6-6a along with a magnification view of the craniocaudal (CC) film (Figure 6-6b). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
 
Last but not least
. biopsy
. observation, with repeat mammogram in 6 months
. observation, with repeat mammogram on an annual basis
. lumpectomy, radiation therapy, and SLN biopsy
. Total mastectomy
152) A 45-year-old woman presents with a 7-cm renal cell carcinoma with radiologic evidence of abdominal lymph node involvement with no distant metastases. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Radical nephrectomy
. Radiation
. Chemotherapy
. Radiation followed by nephrectomy
. Chemotherapy followed by nephrectomy
153) A 58-year-old man is found to have high serum prostate–specific antigen (PSA) concentration with a normal prostate examination. A biopsy of the prostate confirms low-grade carcinoma. The patient wishes to avoid therapy involving any risk for impotence. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Observation
. Chemotherapy
. Prostatectomy
. Radiation therapy
. Hormonal therapy
154) A 28-year-old man with a past history of bilateral orchiopexy for cryptorchidism presents with a painless, unilateral right scrotal enlargement. On examination, there is a palpable right testicular mass and enlarged inguinal node. Scrotal ultrasonography demonstrates heterogeneity of the testis, with an associated hydrocele. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis demonstrated right-sided retroperitoneal adenopathy. CT scan of the chest is normal. Staging workup and surgery reveal a seminoma of the testicle, with positive inguinal and retroperitoneal nodes. Therapeutic management for this patient is which of the following?
. Combination radiotherapy and multidrug chemotherapy
. External beam radiotherapy
. Multidrug combination chemotherapy
. Clinical surveillance
. Laparotomy with pelvic and retroperitoneal node dissection
155) A patient with mild skin pigmentation is admitted emergently to your service because of sudden abdominal pain, fever, and a rigid abdomen. Her blood work indicates a marked leukocytosis, a blood sugar of 55 mg/dL, a sodium value of 119 mEq/dL, and a potassium value of 6.2 mEq/dL. Her blood pressure is 88/58-mmHg. She undergoes an exploratory laparotomy. Which of the following is the definitive treatment for her primary condition?
. Corticosteroids
. 10% dextrose infusion
. Bicarbonate
. Hypertonic saline
. Vasopressors
156) A 10-month-old infant presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of low-grade fever and anorexia. The parents report several episodes in which the child has been suddenly inconsolable and crying, followed by periods of lethargy. He has had nonbilious vomiting and several loose stools. On examination, the infant is pale and mildly dehydrated. His abdomen is soft and nondistended, with fullness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. The child passed another stool in the emergency department (see Figure 6-14). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic evaluation and management of this patient?
 
 
Last but not least
. IV fluid rehydration and a hydrostatic barium enema
. proctoscopy
. Oral rehydration and stool cultures
. Technetium scan
. IV fluid rehydration, NG decompression, and a UGI contrast study
157) A 45-year-old woman presents with left-sided weakness. A CT scan of the head demonstrates a well-circumscribed mass abutting the skull in the right hemisphere. Workup of the mass reveals a meningioma. Which of the following is the best next step in treatment?
. Surgical excision
. Cerebral angiography with tumor embolization
. Preoperative radiation therapy followed by surgical excision
. Chemotherapy with adriamycin
. Chemoradiation
158) A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and vomiting 3 hours ago. He reports a 6-month history of chronic epigastric pain occurring nearly every day and relieved by antacids. On examination, he appears sweaty and avoids movement. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100°F, BP of 100/60 mmHg, pulse rate of 110/min, and respiratory rate of 12/min. The remainder of his examination reveals diminished bowel sounds and a markedly tender and rigid abdomen. A chest x-ray and abdominal films reveal pneumoperitoneum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Fluid resuscitation
. Immediate laparotomy
. Nonoperative management with NG decompression and antibiotics
. Administration of H2 blockers
. Placement of a central venous line
159) An 18-year-old high school senior develops peripheral vision abnormalities. A CT scan of the brain reveals a cystic suprasellar mass with some calcification noted. Clinically, this is compatible with a craniopharyngioma. What is the best next step in treatment?
. Surgical resection
. Growth hormone therapy
. Cerebral angiography with tumor embolization
. Transsphenoidal decompression of the optic nerve and optic chiasm
. Radiotherapy
160) A 65-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency department with a history of a penetrating wound to his buttock by a wooden stump while working in his garden 24 hours earlier. On examination, he is febrile, the tissue around the wound is violaceous in color, and several bullae and crepitus are noted in the buttock. The drainage from the wound is foul smelling, watery, and grayish in appearance. The optimal treatment for this patient would include which of the following?
High-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, radical surgical debridement, and hyperbaric oxygen therapy
High-dose IV penicillin G and broadspectrum antibiotics
High-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, and local wound care with unroofing of bullae and culture of wound drainage
High-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, with surgical debridement only if and when there is no improvement with antibiotics
Radical surgical debridement
161) A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after being extricated from the driver’s seat of a car involved in a head-on collision. He has a sternal fracture and is complaining of chest pain. He is hemodynamically stable and his electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
. Admit to telemetry for 24-hour monitoring
. Admit to the regular ward with serial ECGs for 24 hours
. Emergent cardiac catheterization
. Immediate operative plating of the sternal fracture
. Discharge to home with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents for the sternal fracture
162) The imaging studies demonstrate three lesions in the right hepatic lobe suspicious for metastatic disease, each measuring 3–4 cm in diameter. There was no evidence of extrahepatic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Surgical resection
. Systemic chemotherapy
. intra-arterial chemotherapy through the hepatic artery
. Radiation therapy to the liver
. Repeat imaging studies in 3 months to determine the growth rate of the disease
163) In your discussion with the patient regarding the risks and benefits of the different management options listed above, which of the following values should you quote regarding the expected 5-year survival rate following curative surgical resection?
. 25–35%
. 5–10%
. 15–20%
. 40–50%
. 60–70%
164) A 60-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction. On his second hospital day, he begins to complain of the sudden onset of numbness in his right foot and an inability to move his right foot. On physical examination, the right femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses are no longer palpable. The left lower extremity is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Embolectomy of the right femoral artery
. Duplex imaging of the right lower extremity arteries
. CT angiogram of the right lower extremity
. CT angiogram of bilateral lower extremities
. Embolectomy of the right femoral artery with exploration of the contralateral femoral artery
165) A 60-year-old man is found on a routine physical examination to have a 3-cm pulsatile mass in the right popliteal fossa. X-ray of the right of the right lower extremity is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
 
 
Last but not least
. Surgery
. Antiplatelet therapy
. Anticoagulation
. Thrombolytic therapy
. Reassurance and re-examination if the patient develops symptoms
166) A 46-year-old woman, who had always been in good health, comes in because of the sudden onset of very severe back and leg pain that she experienced 2 hours ago when attempting to lift a heavy object. She says that she felt "a bolt of lightning" running down the back of her leg, and she still has very severe pain that prevents her from walking or moving. The pain is exacerbated by coughing, sneezing, or straining. She keeps the affected leg flexed; straight leg rising gives her excruciating pain. She has good sphincter tone and intact sensation in the perineum. Once the diagnosis is confirmed with the appropriate studies, which of the following will be the most appropriate treatment?
. Analgesics and bed rest for about 3 weeks
. Appropriate antibiotics
. Body cast for 3-6 months
. Radiotherapy to the affected area
. Surgical decompression
167) During diagnostic evaluation, a 14-year-old girl with menorrhagia, frequent nosebleeds, and iron deficiency anaemia is found to have a low platelet count with a normal coagulation profile. Bone marrow biopsy reveals abundant megakaryocytes. On abdominal examination, no organomegaly is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
. Systemic steroids
. splenectomy
. Platelet transfusion when peripheral platelet count drops below 50,000/mL
. chemotherapy
. Expectant, with intervention only if the patient develops significant clinical bleeding.
168) A 70-year-old woman undergoes a cardiac catheterization for exertional chest pain. Her pain continues to worsen and she is interested in having either surgery or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which of the following would be an indication for her to undergo either coronary artery bypass grafting or PCI?
. Two-vessel coronary disease with proximal left anterior descending artery stenosis and depressed left ventricular ejection fraction
. Isolated left main stenosis, no diabetes, and normal left ventricular ejection fraction
. Isolated left main stenosis and diabetes
. Left main stenosis and additional coronary artery disease with depressed left ventricular ejection fraction.
. Three-vessel coronary artery disease and diabetes
169) Six months ago at the time of lumpectomy for breast cancer, a 60-year-old female attorney quit a 30-year smoking habit of 2 packs per day. She had the chest radiograph shown here as part of her routine follow-up examination. Based on her age and history of smoking, you are concerned for either a new primary lung or metastatic breast malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this lesion?
. Transthoracic fine-needle aspiration of the lesion
. Follow-up CT scan in 3 months
. Magnetic resonance imaging of bilateral breasts to evaluate for recurrence of the breast cancer
. Mediastinoscopy
. Thoracotomy with lobectomy
170) A 39-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of a palpable nodule in the neck of 2 years’ duration. Her past history is pertinent for Hashimoto’s disease diagnosed 5 years ago, for which she takes thyroid hormone. She has a history of low-dose chest irradiation for an enlarged thymus gland during infancy. On examination, a 2.5-cm nodule is palpable in the left lobe of the thyroid and is firm and non-tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
. FNA of the nodule
. Ultrasound of the neck
. Thyroid scinti-scan
. MRI of the neck
. CT scan of the neck and chest
171) A 58-year-old man presents with tachycardia, fever, confusion, and vomiting. Workup reveals markedly elevated (triiodothyronine) T 3 and (thyroxine) T4 levels. He is diagnosed as having a thyroid storm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Administration of fluid, antithyroid drugs, β-blockers, iodine solution, and steroids
. Emergent subtotal thyroidectomy
. Emergent total thyroidectomy
. Emergent hemodialysis
. Emergent radiation therapy to the neck
172) A 35-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and comes in complaining of wrist pain. He relates that he was not able to break the fall, and that the heel of his hand took the brunt of his full weight as it hit the pavement. On physical examination, he is distinctly tender to palpation over the anatomic snuff box. Anteroposterior and lateral x-rays are negative. Which of the following are the most likely diagnosis and most appropriate next step in management?
. Carpal navicular fracture; thumb spica cast
. De Quervain tenosynovitis; steroid injections
. Displaced scaphoid fracture; open reduction and internal fixation
. Ligamentous injury; Ace bandage and analgesics
. No fracture; reassurance
173) A 55-year-old-woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of mammographic findings on a screening mammogram. She denies any breast masses, nipple discharge, pain, or skin changes. Past history is pertinent for insulin-dependent diabetes. Family history is positive for postmenopausal breast cancer in her mother. She has a normal breast examination and no axillary adenopathy. A mediolateral oblique (MLO) view of the right breast is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
 
Last but not least
. observation, with repeat mammogram in 6–12 months
. ultrasound
. biopsy
. lumpectomy, radiation therapy, and sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy
. Total mastectomy
174) A 34-year-old man is extricated from an automobile after a motor vehicle collision. The patient has an obvious deformity of his right thigh consistent with a femur fracture. Upon closer examination of the right thigh, there is bone visible through an open wound. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of his open femur fracture?
. Early irrigation and debridement, IV antibiotics, compartment decompression, and internal or external fixation
. Intravenous (IV) antibiotics and cast or splint placement
. IV antibiotics and internal or external fixation
. Early irrigation and debridement, IV antibiotics, and cast or splint placement
. Early irrigation and debridement, IV antibiotics, and internal or external fixation
175) A 43-year-old woman comes in because of a breast mass. Two days ago, she noticed a lump on self-examination. She has a 2-cm, firm, nontender mass in the left breast, which is movable from the chest wall, but not movable within the breast. She has no prior history of breast disease, but she is well read and well informed, and she specifically requests that a biopsy be done with a mammotome. Before proceeding, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step?
. Do a mammogram to find any other lesions that might also need to be addressed
. Discuss the surgical options in case cancer is found
. Do a mammogram to ascertain whether biopsy is needed
. First wait for two menstrual cycles to see whether there is spontaneous resolution.
. Obtain a fine-needle aspirate and go no further if no malignant cells are found
176) A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-cm right thyroid mass and palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of one of the lymph nodes demonstrates the presence of calcified clumps of sloughed cells. Which of the following best describes the management of this thyroid disorder?
. The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with modified radical neck dissection.
. The patient should be screened for pancreatic endocrine neoplasms and hypercalcemia.
. The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with frozen section intraoperative, with modified radical neck dissection reserved for patients with extra-capsular invasion.
. The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy followed by iodine 131 (131I) therapies.
. The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy.
177) A 45-year-old woman is found to have suspicious appearing calcifications in the right breast on a screening mammogram. Stereotactic biopsy of the calcifications shows lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS). On examination both breasts are dense without palpable masses. The neck and bilateral axilla are negative for lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Frequent self-breast examinations and yearly screening mammograms
. Chemotherapy
. Radiation
. Right total mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy
. Bilateral modified radical mastectomy
178) A 32-year-old, previously healthy man is a victim of a drive-by shooting, sustaining a gunshot wound to the left lower extremity. The entrance wound is located over the medial aspect of the calf, with an exit wound over the anterior pretibial region. Neurovascular examination of the extremity is normal. There is associated soft-tissue injury from the blast effect and a severely comminuted tibial fracture demonstrated on radiographs. Appropriate management of this injury includes which of the following?
. Tetanus prophylaxis, intravenous (IV) antibiotics, and operative wound irrigation and debridement, with application of an external fixation device
. Local wound irrigation, closure of the soft-tissue defect, closed reduction, and immobilization in a long-leg cast
. Local wound irrigation with antibiotic solution, closed reduction, and immobilization in a long-leg cast, with continued local wound care through an anterior cast window
. Tetanus prophylaxis, IV antibiotics, operative wound irrigation with closure of the soft-tissue defect, closed reduction, and immobilization in a long-leg cast
. Tetanus prophylaxis, IV antibiotics, long leg splint for immobilization, and operative intervention during elective surgical schedule
179) A 16-year-old adolescent boy sustains head trauma in a motor vehicle collision. He has a GCS of 15 and an obvious depressed skull fracture with 1cm displacement. During his hospital stay, he notices clear fluid draining from his nose. What is the best management strategy for this patient?
. Immediate dural repair
. Immediate surgical elevation of the skull fracture
. Delayed surgical elevation of the skull fracture
. Elevation of the head of the bed and placement of a lumbar drain
. Antibiotic therapy for sinusitis
180) A 41-year-old woman has noted bilateral thin serous discharge from her breasts. There seems to be no mass associated with it. Which of the following statements would be appropriate to tell the patient?
. Intermittent thin or milky discharge can be physiologic.
. Expressible nipple discharge is an indication for open biopsy.
. Absence of a mass on mammogram rules out malignancy.
. Galactorrhea is indicative of an underlying malignancy.
. Pathologic discharge is usually bilateral.
181) A 42-year-old woman presents to the ER with the worst headache of her life. A noncontrast CT scan of the head is negative for lesions or hemorrhage. She then undergoes a lumbar puncture, which appears bloody. All 4 tubes collected have red blood cell counts greater than 100,000/mL. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Perform a 4-vessel cerebral angiogram.
. Repeat the head CT scan with intravenous contrast.
. Perform an angiogram of the aorta and lumbar branches for immediate embolization of the injured vessel.
. Administer a dose of mannitol.
. Consult neurosurgery for immediate ventriculostomy.
182) A 16-year-old girl with a history of ulcerative colitis managed with steroid therapy presents to the emergency department with a 36-hour history of nausea, crampy abdominal pain, and severe bloody diarrhea. On examination, the patient is febrile and pale, with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and heart rate of 130 beats/min. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender. A complete blood count (CBC) demonstrates a leukocytosis with a left shift. The patient receives IV fluid resuscitation and nasogastric (NG) tube decompression. We inject high-dose IV steroids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. After 48 hours, there is no clinical improvement. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Abdominal colectomy and ileostomy and Hartmann’s procedure
. Colonoscopic decompression
. cyclosporine
. Proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis
. Abdominal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis
183) After being injured by a bull on his mother’s farm, a young man is placed in a cast for a supracondylar fracture of his humerus. A few hours later he begins to experience intense pain, swelling, and weakness in the ipsilateral hand. Pulses are normal in bilateral upper extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Removal of the cast
. Observation
. Repeat imaging of the humerus
. Elevation of the extremity
. Surgical decompression (fasciotomy)
184) A 39-year-old man presents with an isolated fracture of the tibia after being hit on the leg with a car. The patient is stable and a radiograph of the leg shows a tibial shaft fracture with severe dislocation. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the fracture?
. Intramedullary nailing
. Closed reduction and application of a long leg cast
. Surgical fixation with unreamed nailing
. External fixation
. Plate fixation
185) A 63-year-old woman notices lumps on both sides of her neck. A fine-needle aspirate is nondiagnostic, and she undergoes total thyroidectomy. Final pathology reveals a 2-cm Hürthle cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate postsurgical management of this patient?
. Radioiodine ablation.
. No further therapy is indicated.
. Chemotherapy.
. External beam radiotherapy.
. Chemotherapy, external beam radiotherapy, and radioiodine ablation.
186) A 51-year-old man presents with a 2-cm left thyroid nodule. Thyroid scan shows a cold lesion. FNA cytology demonstrates follicular cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient?
. Thyroid lobectomy.
. External beam radiation to the neck.
. Multidrug chemotherapy.
. TSH suppression by thyroid hormone.
. Prophylactic neck dissection is indicated along with a total thyroidectomy.
187) A 25-year-old man is stabbed once in the right chest. The entrance wound is on the midaxillary line, at the level of the fifth intercostal space. He arrives at the emergency department moderately short of breath, but he is fully awake and alert, is talking with a normal tone of voice, and has no distended veins visible in his neck or forehead. His blood pressure is 130/75 mm Hg, and his pulse is 82/min. Physical examination of the chest shows the wound, which is not visibly "sucking air," and demonstrates no breath sounds at all on the right side, which is tympanitic to percussion. There is no evidence of mediastinal displacement. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management?
. Cover the wound with a regular dressing and get a chest x-ray
. Cover the wound with Vaseline gauze, taped on three sides
. Endotracheal intubation
. Insert a chest tube at the right pleural base
. Insert an 18-gauge needle into the right pleural space at the second intercostal space
188) A term infant is born at a small community hospital by cesarean section for failure to progress. The infant is noted to have the following abnormality at birth. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
 
 
Last but not least
. IV fluids, IV antibiotics, warm occlusive dressing, and transfer to a center with a pediatric surgeon
. IV antibiotics alone
. Emergency surgery for reduction
. Monitor for spontaneous closure, with surgical intervention for persistent fascial defect
. Elective umbilical exploration
189) A 2-year-old child presents with a 2-day history of painless rectal bleeding. On examination, the child is pale with tachycardia. The abdomen is nondistended and nontender. There is dark blood on rectal examination. The child has the following imaging study (see Figure 6-2). Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
 
 
Last but not least
. Aggressive resuscitation followed by surgical exploration
. Surgical exploration
. colonoscopy
. Acid suppression therapy
. IV steroids
190) A 40-year-old previously healthy man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain that radiates from the right loin (flank) to groin. This pain is associated with nausea, sweating, and urinary urgency. He is distressed and restless, but an abdominal examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. IV fluid hydration, IV analgesics, and nonenhanced computed tomography (CT) scan
. Insertion of a urethral catheter
. IV fluid hydration, IV analgesics, and arrangements for lithotripsy
. Cystoscopy and retrograde pyelogram
. Urine culture, followed by initiation of antibiotic therapy
191) Incisional biopsy of a breast mass in a 35-year-old woman demonstrates cystosarcoma phyllodes at the time of frozen section. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this lesion?
. Wide local excision with a rim of normal tissue
. Lumpectomy and axillary lymphadenectomy
. Modified radical mastectomy
. Excision and postoperative radiotherapy
. Excision, postoperative radiotherapy, and systemic chemotherapy
192) A 36-year-old woman, 20 weeks pregnant, presents with a 1.5-cm right thyroid mass. FNA is consistent with a papillary neoplasm. The mass is cold on scan and solid on ultrasound. Which of the following methods of treatment is contra-indicated in this patient?
. 131I radioactive ablation of the thyroid gland
. Right thyroid lobectomy
. Subtotal thyroidectomy
. Total thyroidectomy
. Total thyroidectomy with lymph node dissection
193) A 45-year-old man presents to the physician’s office complaining of dysphagia and retrosternal pressure and pain of 2-year duration. The symptoms have worsened over the last 3 months. He has a 30 pack-year smoking history and drinks beer on weekends. Vital signs include a BP of 150/90 mmHg, pulse rate of 90/min, and respiratory rate of 12/min, with a normal temperature. Examination reveals a thin man with a normal heart, lung, and abdomen examination. An esophagogram reveals a 6-cm, smooth, concave defect in the mid-esophagus with sharp borders. Esophagoscopy reveals intact overlying mucosa and a mobile tumor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
. Thoracotomy with extramucosal resection
. Repeat esophagoscopy with biopsy
. Thoracotomy with esophageal resection
. Radiation therapy
. chemotherapy
194) A 45-year-old woman presents with dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and weight loss. She had x-rays shown here as part of her workup. Upper endoscopy reveals no evidence of malignancy and esophageal motility studies show incomplete lower esophageal sphincter relaxation. Which of the following is the next best step in the treatment of this patient?
. Laparoscopic posterior 180 (Toupet) fundoplication
. Laparoscopic myotomy of the lower esophageal sphincter (Heller)
. Laparoscopic anterior 180 (Dor) fundoplication
. Laparoscopic 360 (Nissen) fundoplication
. Transhiatal esophagectomy
195) During diagnostic evaluation, a 14-year-old girl with menorrhagia, frequent nosebleeds, and irondeficiency anemia is found to have a low platelet count with a normal coagulation profile. Bone marrow biopsy reveals abundant megakaryocytes. On abdominal examination, no organomegaly is noted. The patient has a satisfactory response to the initial therapeutic intervention, but over 6–12 months’ time, the response is less dramatic and shorter in duration. There are signs and symptoms of increasing side effects from therapy. The next step in management should be to recommend which of the following?
. splenectomy
. Partial splenectomy
. Increase in steroid dose and frequency
. Bone marrow transplant
. plasmapheresis
196) A 70-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He has a prior history of hypertension and mild congestive heart failure, which were adequately controlled with digoxin and diuretics. To facilitate perioperative management, a Swan-Ganz (multilumen pulmonary artery) catheter was inserted in the operating room. During the first few hours postoperatively, the patient is noted to have a blood pressure of 140/70 mmHg, heart rate of 110/min, flat neck veins, a pulmonary arterial wedge pressure of 9 mmHg, and poor urine output. Several hours after this intervention a bolus of IV crystalloid, the patient is reassessed. The blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg, heart rate is 90/min, neck veins are distended, and the pulmonary arterial wedge pressure is 17 mmHg. Urine output is still low in volume. At this point, management should be which of the following?
. A nitroprusside infusion
. IV furosemide
. A bolus of IV crystalloid
. A dopamine infusion
. IV digoxin administration
197) A 19-year-old previously healthy man is an unbelted driver of a motor vehicle involved in a front-end collision. On arrival in the emergency department, the patient is noted to have stridor, with marked respiratory distress, and an oxygen saturation of 88% despite 100% oxygen by mask. He has obvious extensive facial injuries, a flail chest, and poor chest expansion. Bag-mask-valve ventilation is ineffective. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. cricothyroidotomy
. Orotracheal intubation
. Nasotracheal intubation
. tracheostomy
. Placement of bilateral chest tubes
198) A 32-year-old man presents with an asymptomatic mass in his right testicle. On examination, the mass cannot be transilluminated. Ultrasound shows a solid mass in the right testicle. Which of the following is the most accurate method in obtaining a diagnosis of testicular cancer?
. Radical inguinal orchiectomy
. Serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein and beta human chorionic gonadotrophin
. Percutaneous biopsy of the testicular mass
. Incisional biopsy of the testicular mass through a scrotal incision
. Excisional biopsy of the testicular mass through a scrotal incision
199) A 10-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with pain in the left testicle. The pain was acute in onset and began 1 hour ago. On physical examination, he is noted to have a high-riding, firm, and markedly tender left testis. The right testicle is normal. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Orchiopexy of bilateral testicles
. Manual detorsion of the left testicle with external rotation toward the thigh; orchiopexy if the condition recurs
. Manual detorsion of the left testicle with internal rotation toward the thigh; orchiopexy if the condition recurs
. Orchiectomy of the left testicle
. Orchiopexy of the left testicle
200) A pedestrian is hit by a speeding car. Radiologic studies obtained in the emergency room, including a retrograde urethrogram (RUG), are consistent with a pelvic fracture with a rupture of the urethra superior to the urogenital diaphragm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
. Immediate placement of a suprapubic cystostomy tube
. Immediate percutaneous nephrostomy
. Immediate placement of a Foley catheter through the urethra into the bladder to align and stent the injured portions
. Immediate reconstruction of the ruptured urethra after initial stabilization of the patient
. Immediate exploration of the pelvis for control of hemorrhage from pelvic fracture and drainage of pelvic hematoma
201) A previously healthy 45-year-old man presents with a 9-month history of a slow-growing, painless right neck mass. He is a nonsmoker and has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is a nontender, discrete, 3-cm mass over the angle of the right mandible. Facial muscle function and sensation are normal. An oropharyngeal examination is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Superficial parotidectomy
. antibiotics
. Excisional biopsy
. Observation with re-evaluation in 2–4 weeks
. Chest x-ray
202) A 63-year-old man underwent a 3-vessel coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) 5 hours ago. Initially, his mediastinal chest tube output was 300 mL blood/h, but an hour ago, there was no further evidence of bleeding from the tube. His mean arterial pressure has fallen, and several fluid boluses were administered. His central venous pressure (CVP) is elevated to 20 mm Hg, and he has required the addition of inotropes. Which of the following is the best management strategy?
. Return to the operating room for exploration of the mediastinum
. Addition of vasopressors along with the inotropes
. Transfusion of packed red blood cells
. Placement of an intraaortic balloon pump
. Infusion of streptokinase into the mediastinal chest tube
203) An 89-year-old man has lost 30 lb over the past 2 years. He reports that food frequently sticks when he swallows. He also complains of a chronic cough. Barium swallow is shown here. What is the best treatment option for this patient?
. Excision of the diverticulum and cricopharyngeal myotomy
. Placement of an esophageal stent
. Diverticuloplasty
. Excision of the diverticulum
. Excision of the diverticulum and administration of a promotility agent
204) A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a soft-tissue injury to the left lower extremity. The injury was sustained 8 hours earlier in a motorcycle accident on a gravel road. On examination, the patient has a 7-cm deep laceration to the calf, with visible road debris. He had full tetanus immunization as a child and a tetanus booster immunization at age 15. Appropriate management of this injury would include which of the following?
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound; tetanus toxoid
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound; tetanus toxoid and tetanus immune globulin
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound; IV antibiotics
. Tetanus toxoid and IV antibiotics
205) A 6-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a painful, markedly swollen elbow. While ice-skating, he fell with his arm outstretched. Radiographs of the elbow demonstrate a displaced, supracondylar fracture of the humerus. On examination, there is pain on passive flexion at the wrist and a decreased radial pulse, with diminished capillary refill in the hand. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this injury?
Open reduction with pinning, exploration of the brachial artery, and decompression fasciotomy of the forearm fascial compartments
Admission to hospital for close observation, with immobilization of the elbow at 90 of flexion
Closed reduction with percutaneous pinning under general anesthesia
Open reduction and pinning under general anesthesia
Open reduction with pinning, and exploration of the brachial artery
206) A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest. He comes in fully awake and alert, and, in a normal tone of voice, he states that he feels short of breath. His vital signs are normal and stable. On physical examination, he has no breath sounds at the right base, and only faint breath sounds at the apex. He is dull to percussion over the right base. A chest x-ray film confirms that he has a hemothorax on that side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Insertion of a chest tube at the right base
. Oxygen by mask, analgesics, and no specific intervention
. Intubation and use of a respirator
. Insertion of a chest tube in the right second intercostal space
. Exploratory thoracotomy
207) A 35-year-old woman with a history of previous right thyroidectomy for a benign thyroid nodule now undergoes completion thyroidectomy for a suspicious thyroid mass. Several hours postoperatively, she develops progressive swelling under the incision, stridor, and difficulty breathing. Orotracheal intubation is successful. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
. Wound exploration
. Fiberoptic laryngoscopy to rule out bilateral vocal cord paralysis
. Administration of intravenous calcium
. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and debridement of the wound
. Administration of high-dose steroids and antihistamines
208) In a 6-month-old previously healthy male infant, an abnormality is revealed during a routine diaper change, as illustrated in Figure 6-19. The parents have noted this finding on and off on several occasions over the last month. On each occasion, the child has been feeding well, and is content and playful. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
 
 
Last but not least
. Referral for elective surgical repair
. antibiotics
. Reassurance to the parents that the abnormality will resolve without intervention
. Referral to the emergency department for immediate surgical consultation
. Scrotal support
209) A 60-year-old man seeks medical attention because of recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient also reports a history of increasing difficulty in urination (decreased flow, straining, and hesitancy) over the last several months. A prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is mildly elevated and a prostate biopsy proves benign. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
. α-Adrenergic blocker
. 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
. α-Adrenergic blocker and 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
. Open prostatectomy
210) An 83-year-old woman presents to a mammographic facility for a screening mammogram. The technician notices a mass in the lateral right breast. The patient denies any breast pain, nipple discharge, skin changes, or breast trauma. A right breast CC view is shown in Figure 6-7. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
 
Last but not least
. Needle biopsy
. Incisional biopsy
. lumpectomy, axillary dissection, and irradiation
. Total mastectomy
. Modified radical mastectomy
211) A 25-year-old unhelmeted man involved in a motorcycle collision has multiple cerebral contusions on head computed tomographic (CT) scan. He is agitated but hemodynamically stable, with a heart rate of 80 beats per minute and a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 90 mm Hg. An intracranial pressure monitor is placed, and the initial ICP reading is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate in the management of his traumatic brain injury (TBI) over the next few days?
. Administration of mannitol (1 g/kg) to reduce his ICP
. Hyperventilation to maintain a cerebral PCO2 of 25 to 30 mm Hg
. Administration of neosynephrine to increase his MAP and, consequently, his cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
. Placement of the patient in Trendelenburg position to increase cerebral perfusion
. Avoidance of all sedating drugs in the first 24 to 48 hours in order to accurately assess his neurologic status
212) A 50-year-old woman complains of headaches and lateralizing weakness. A CT scan of the brain reveals an irregular mass in the right cerebral hemisphere. A biopsy documents that this is a glioblastoma. Which of the following is the best treatment strategy for potential cure?
. Combined surgical resection, external beam radiation, and chemotherapy with temozolomide
. Chemotherapy with temozolomide alone
. Combination chemotherapy with carmustin, cisplatin, and temozolomide
. External beam radiation alone
. Surgical resection alone
213) An 85-year-old man presents to the emergency room with an acute onset of midepigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and hiccups starting 2 days ago. He is unable to keep any food down. Past history is pertinent for a long-standing hiatal hernia, hypertension, and diet-controlled diabetes. Examination reveals vital signs of pulse rate 82/min, BP 100/52 mmHg, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 97.2°F. The patient is in no acute distress, but has epigastric tenderness without guarding. Laboratory analysis revealed a hematocrit of 46 and a normal white blood cell (WBC) count. A chest x-ray is shown in Figure 6-5a. A fluoroscopically guided NG tube was placed using contrast, and his stomach was decompressed. After adequate fluid and electrolyte resuscitation, an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) contrast study was obtained and is shown in 6-5b. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
 
 
Last but not least
. Laparotomy or laparoscopy and operative repair
. continued NG tube decompression and initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
. Thoracotomy or thoracoscopy and operative repair
. Endotracheal intubation and initiation of ventilatory support
. Upper endoscopy
214) A 49-year-old woman presents to her physician with dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food eaten hours earlier, and coughing over the last 6 months. She was hospitalized 1 month ago for aspiration pneumonia and successfully treated with antibiotics. Examination reveals a thin-appearing woman with normal vital signs and unremarkable chest, heart, and abdominal examination. A UGI contrast study is performed and reveals a pharyngoesophageal (Zenker’s) diverticulum. Which of the following is the most important aspect of treatment?
. Cricopharyngeal muscle myotomy
. Resection of the diverticulum
. H2 blockers
. Elevation of the head of the bed
. diverticulopexy
215) A 40-year-old alcoholic is brought to the emergency department with frostbite to both lower extremities. His core body temperature is 36°C. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for the patient’s thermal injury?
. Rapid rewarming in warm water
. Sympathectomy without any delay
. Debridement of devitalized tissues
. Slow rewarming at room temperature
. Slow rewarming with dry heat
216) A 35-year-old woman presents with a serum calcium level of 15.2 mg/dL and an elevated parathyroid hormone level. Following correction of the patient’s hypercalcemia with hydration and furosemide, which of the following is the best therapeutic approach?
. Neck exploration and resection of a parathyroid adenoma
. Administration of steroids
. Radiation treatment to the neck
. Neck exploration and resection of all 4 parathyroid glands
. Avoidance of sunlight, vitamin D, and calcium-containing dairy products
217) A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of pain and weakness of the left lower extremity of 2-hour duration. Past history reveals chronic atrial fibrillation following a myocardial infarction 12 months ago. On examination, he is found to have a cool, pale left lower extremity with decreased strength and absent popliteal and pedal pulses. The opposite leg has a normal appearance with palpable pulses. Following successful treatment for an embolus to the left femoral artery with no evidence of a reperfusion injury (anticoagulation with heparin and thromboembolecctomy), which of the following long-term treatments would most likely decrease the chance of recurrent embolus?
. anticoagulation
. Exercise program
. Coronary artery bypass grafting
. Aortofemoral bypass grafting
. Placement of a vena cava filter
218) A 63-year-old man has a chylothorax that after 2 weeks of conservative therapy appears to be persistent. The chest tube output is approximately 600 mL/day. Appropriate management at this time includes which of the following procedures?
. Thoracotomy and ligation of the thoracic duct
. Neck exploration and ligation of the thoracic duct
. Subdiaphragmatic ligation of the thoracic duct
. Thoracotomy and repair of the thoracic duct
. Thoracotomy and abrasion of the pleural space
219) A 32-year-old woman has a CXR screening, and a 1.5-cm mass is noted in the right lower lobe. She is a nonsmoker. Bronchoscopy shows a mass in the right lower lobe orifice, covered with mucosa. Biopsy indicates this is compatible with a carcinoid tumor. Imaging suggests ipsilateral mediastinal lymph node involvement but no extrathoracic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment plan?
. Right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection
. Right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection followed by adjuvant chemotherapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection
. Chemoradiation
220) A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of weight loss, abdominal cramps, and intermittent nonbloody diarrhea. On examination, her abdomen is mildly distended and there is a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant. Stool cultures yield normal fecal flora. CT scan with oral contrast demonstrates an inflammatory mass in the right lower quadrant, with thickening of the terminal ileum and ileocecal valve.Initial management should include which of the following?
. Nutritional supplementation and systemic steroids
. Antibiotics and IV fluids
. lactose-free diet
. antispasmodics
. laparotomy
221) A 33-year-old woman is found to have a palpable thyroid nodule during a routine medical checkup. A sonogram confirms the presence of a solid, 1.5-cm nodule in the right lobe of the thyroid gland. Fine needle aspirate cytology (FNA) is reported as "follicular tumor, otherwise unspecified." At surgery, a frozen section is read as follicular carcinoma. With the neck open, the surgeon can feel for enlarged jugular and peritracheal lymph nodes, and finds none. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
. Total thyroidectomy plus postoperative radioactive iodine
. Enucleation of the tumor
. Right thyroid lobectomy
. Total thyroidectomy
. Total thyroidectomy, radical neck dissection, and postoperative radioactive iodine
222) A 63-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a several-week history of fever, night sweats, weight loss, and cough. Her CXR is noted to have a density in the left upper lobe with a relatively thin-walled cavity. Bronchoscopy and computed tomographic (CT) scan are suggestive of a lung abscess rather than a malignant process. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Systemic antibiotics directed against the causative agent
. Percutaneous drainage of the lung abscess
. Tube thoracostomy
. Left upper lobectomy
. Surgical drainage of the abscess
223) A 4-year-old previously healthy girl presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of rectal bleeding and dizziness. She has no other gastrointestinal symptoms. On examination, she appears pale. Her heart rate is 140 beats/min, and she has a 20 mmHg postural drop in systolic blood pressure. The child’s abdomen is nondistended and nontender, and fresh blood and clots are in the rectal vault on rectal examination. Definitive management of this child should include which of the following?
. IV fluid resuscitation, transfusion with blood products as indicated, followed by a laparotomy with Meckel’s diverticulectomy and ileal resection
. Immediate exploratory laparotomy
. IV fluid resuscitation, followed by a colonoscopic polypectomy
. hemorrhoidectomy
. Stool softeners and topical steroids
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