OBGY USS 3nd

A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician's office for evaluation of vaginal dryness, burning and dyspareunia. She also has dysuria and increased urinary frequency. The symptoms have been present for several months but have intensified recently. She has tried over-the-counter lubricants with little relief. Her last menstrual period was seven years ago. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension and pravastatin for hypercholesterolemia. Physical examination shows scarce pubic hair and reduced elasticity and turgor of the vulvar skin. Pale, dry and smooth vaginal epithelium is noted. Urine dipstick is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, comes for a routine prenatal visit. According to her history, she is at 18-weeks gestation. Her family history is significant for Down syndrome on her maternal side. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show a decreased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 24-year-old woman presents to your office with a self-palpated breast lump. She discovered the mass 2 days ago while taking a shower and noted that it is mildly tender. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 3 weeks ago. Her past medical history is insignificant. She has no family history of breast cancer. Physical examination reveals a lump in the superior outer quadrant of the right breast without palpable lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most reasonable next step in the management of this patient?

A 76-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe vulvar itching for the past six months. She has tried over-the-counter topical lubricants without relief. Physical examination reveals numerous vulvar excoriations. The vulvar skin is thin, dry and white in color. The labia minora are difficult to visualize. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 30-year-old G2 P 1woman at 38 weeks gestation presents to the hospital complaining of regular and painful uterine contractions that started two hours earlier. Pelvic examination reveals bulging membranes, and her cervix is 50% effaced and dilated to 3 cm. Her pregnancy was complicated by first trimester hemorrhage of unknown cause. Her past medical history is unremarkable. After placing a fetal heart monitor and an external tocometer on the patient, you note 3 separate 15 beat/min decreases in the fetal heart rate not coinciding with uterine contractions, each lasting for 25 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 15-year-old girl is being evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She is otherwise healthy and has no previous medical problems. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals normal breast development, normal pubic and axillary hair, and a blind vagina; the uterus and adnexae could not be appreciated. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals 2 ovaries and no uterus is seen. The karyotype is 46XX. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 24-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby by vaginal delivery at 36 weeks gestation. She had a prolonged premature rupture of the membranes, and mid forceps application was required during delivery. On the second postpartum day she complained of fever and chills. She cannot breast-feed because her "nipples are tender". Her temperature is 38.5C (101.3F), blood pressure is 120/55 mmHg and pulse is 92/min. Bimanual examination shows tender uterus and foul-smelling lochia. Her nipples are cracked but without surrounding erythema or warmth. Physical examination otherwise shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 14-year-old female is brought to the physician's office for evaluation of excessive menstrual bleeding. She experienced menarche at age 13, and since then her menses have been irregular and unpredictable. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and for the past week she has been having heavy menstrual bleeding. She has never been sexually active. Vital signs are stable. Her external genitalia are normal. She refused pelvic examination, and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A 26-year-old G1 P1 woman requests contraception after delivering a healthy baby three weeks ago. She is breastfeeding the child and plans to continue for at least six months. She does not want to get pregnant for at least one year. She has no medical problems and does not take any medication. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most preferred method of contraception you can advise for this patient?

A Caucasian couple presents to your office for infertility evaluation. They are unable to conceive after 14 months of unprotected sex. The woman is 23 years of age. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. She denies perimenstrual pain or pelvic discomfort. Her last menstrual period was six days ago. Her past medical history is insignificant, and bimanual examination is normal. The man is 27 years old, He is not taking any medications, Physical examination, including external genitals, is normal. What is the best next step in the management of this couple?

A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of infertility. She and her 39-year-old husband have not been able to conceive after 13 months of unprotected and frequent intercourse. She has 28-day regular menstrual cycles. The patient had a pregnancy with her husband at age 31. She has no other genitourinary complaints such as menorrhagia, dyspareunia or pelvic pain. She has no previous history of sexually transmitted diseases or abdominal surgery. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is an aerobics instructor and teaches 230-minute classes daily. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Complete physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her condition?

A 22-year-old woman (G2POA1) is being followed by her family physician for pregnancy. She is currently at 28 weeks' gestation, feeling well, and gaining an appropriate amount of weight. She has not had sexual intercourse during her pregnancy. Her first prenatal exam at 12 weeks' gestation showed a negative HIV, Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and urine cultures. Her blood type is A negative and Rh (D) negative. She has not communicated with the father of the child during the pregnancy but is excited to raise the child with the help of her mother. She is unable to recall or confirm her immunization status for a number of vaccines. Which of the following measures is warranted at this time?

A 29-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She is 10 weeks pregnant as determined by her last menstrual period. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She is devoutly religious and has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband since getting married 5 years ago. They live in a house built in 1983 where she works as a homemaker. Her husband is an accountant. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following screening tests is indicated at this time?

A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy external genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset intense uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. She has been followed closely for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 140/86mmHg, pulse is 92/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity and moderate vaginal bleeding. Pelvic examination shows an effaced and 3cm dilated cervix. Ultrasonography shows a fundic placenta and a fetus in the cephalic position. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. After initial resuscitation the bleeding is stopped Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A wealthy executive donates five million dollars for the prevention of intrauterine growth restriction in the local county. Spending this money on which of the following programs would prevent the greatest number of cases of fetal growth restriction (FGR) in the population?

A 20-year-old, G1PO, woman at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital because of regular uterine contractions and passage of clear fluid per vagina. She has no other symptoms. Her pregnancy thus far has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is 38.2 C (100.7 F), blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min and respirations are 17/min. Speculum examination shows a closed cervix and clear fluid pooling in the vaginal fornix. The pH of the fluid is 7.5. Fetal heart monitoring shows a rate of 165/min and uterine contractions occurring every 3-4 minutes. Initial laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.2 g/L Platelets 198,000/mm3 Leukocyte count 18,500/mm3 Neutrophils 86% Lymphocytes 14% Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

An 81-year-old woman presents to your office complaining that her uterus fell out 2 months ago. She has multiple medical problems, including chronic hypertension, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis. She is limited to sitting in a wheelchair because of her health problems. Her fallen uterus causes significant pain. On physical examination, the patient is frail and requires assistance with getting on the examination table. She has complete procidentia of the uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 78-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic hypertension, and history of myocardial infarction requiring angioplasty presents to your office for evaluation of something hanging out of her vagina. She had a hysterectomy for benign indications at age 48. For the past few months, she has been experiencing the sensation of pelvic pressure. Last month she felt a bulge at the vaginal opening. Two weeks ago something fell out of the vagina. On pelvic examination, the patient has total eversion of the vagina. There is a superficial ulceration at the vaginal apex. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 40-year-old G3P3 comes to your office for a routine annual GYN examination. She tells you that she gets up several times during the night to void. On further questioning, she admits to you that during the day she sometimes gets the urge to void, but sometimes cannot quite make it to the bathroom. She attributes this to getting older and is not extremely concerned, although she often wears a pad when she goes out in case she loses some urine. This patient is very healthy otherwise and does not take any medication on a regular basis. She still has regular, monthly menstrual periods. She has had three normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries of infants weighing between 7 and 8 lb. An office dipstick of her urine does not indicate any blood, bacteria, WBCs, or protein. Her urine culture is negative. Based on her office presentation and history, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 38-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of urinary incontinence. Her symptoms are suggestive of urge incontinence. She admits to drinking several large glasses of iced tea and water on a daily basis because her mother always told her to drink lots of liquids to lower her risk of bladder infections. Urinalysis and urine culture are negative. After confirming the diagnosis with physical examination and office cystometrics, which of the following treatments should you recommend to the patient as the next step in the management of her problem?

A 45-year-old woman with previously documented urge incontinence continues to be symptomatic after following your advice for conservative self-treatment. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman presents to your office with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. This is her second infection in 2 months. You treated the last infection with Bactrim DS for 3 days. Her symptoms never really improved. Now she has worsening lower abdominal discomfort, dysuria, and frequency. She has had no fever or flank pain. Physical examination shows only mild suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient?

A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy external genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?

A 23-year-old G3POA2 female presents to your clinic at an estimated 12 weeks of gestational age. She is a new patient and has come to your clinic to seek an elective abortion. She has had two elective abortions in the past because of unplanned pregnancy. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is within normal limits and a limited ultrasound examination was able to detect fetal heart tones. You and your partners have a strict policy against performing abortions because some members of the group object to the procedure. You decide it would be best to stick to this policy; however, the patient becomes angry and tells you that she will sue you if you do not perform the procedure. What is the best response to this patient?

A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of aching and swelling in both legs. The aching of her legs is worst at night. She has no shortness of breath or chest pain. She has no past medical history. Her temperature is 36.9 C (98.2F), blood pressure is 11 0/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows symmetrical pitting edema of both calves with no tenderness of either calf. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 27-year-old female comes to the physician's office for evaluation of infertility. She has not been able to conceive for 12 months despite frequent intercourse. Her menses started at age 12 and have always been irregular. She uses over the counter acne medications. She is also obese and has been unsuccessful with weight loss. Physical examination shows an obese woman with sparse hair over the upper lip. There is no galactorrhea, thyromegaly or clitoromegaly. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's infertility?

A 20-year-old, gravida 1, para 0, at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of moderate vaginal bleeding. She has a colicky suprapubic pain radiating to the back and denies the passage of tissue through her introitus. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has no history of trauma or serious illness. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 100/65 mm of Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and the products of conception can be seen through it. Her blood type is AB Rh negative and her antibody titer is 1:2. Ultrasonogram shows a ruptured gestational sac with no fetal heart motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

You are seeing a patient in the emergency room who complains of fever, chills, flank pain, and blood in her urine. She has had severe nausea and started vomiting after the fever developed. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 3 days ago by her primary care physician. The patient never took the antibiotics that she was prescribed because her symptoms improved after she started drinking cranberry juice. The patient has a temperature of 38.8C (102F). She has severe right-sided CVA tenderness. She has severe suprapubic tenderness. Her clean-catch urinalysis shows a large amount of ketones, RBCs, WBCs, bacteria, and squamous cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 22-year-old woman has been seeing you for treatment of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past 6 months. She married 6 months ago and became sexually active at that time. She seems to become symptomatic shortly after having sexual intercourse. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient to help her with her problem?

A 23-year-old G1PO female presents for her first prenatal visit at 14 weeks gestation. A pap smear is done at that time and a high grade squamous intraepitheliallesions (HSIL) is seen at cytology. A test for HPV discloses the presence of a strain with high oncogenic risk. A satisfactory colposcopy is done and shows no site of abnormalities. At this time the next best step is:

A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has felt only 2 or 3 fetal movements in the past 12 hours. As in her previous pregnancies, she has gestational diabetes, which is under good control with diet and mild exercise. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination is unremarkable. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

An 18-year-old woman comes to your office because of abdominal pain. She states that the pain started yesterday afternoon and has been worsening. The pain is in the right lower quadrant and does not radiate. She rates it a 7 on a scale of 1 to 10. She has had some nausea but no vomiting. Nothing seems to improve or worsen the pain. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes thyroid hormone replacement, and no other medical problems. She has never had surgery. She is allergic to penicillin. Physical examination is significant for right lower quadrant tenderness. Bimanual examination reveals right adnexal tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of amenorrhea. She had menarche at age 13 and has had normal periods since then. However, her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. She also complains of an occasional milky nipple discharge. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She is particularly concerned because she would like to become pregnant as soon as possible. Examination shows a whitish nipple discharge bilaterally, but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal. Prolactin is elevated. Head MRI scan is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has some mild nausea, but otherwise no complaints. She has no significant medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She is concerned for two reasons. First, the "flu season" is coming, and she seems to get sick every year. Second, a child at her son's daycare center recently broke out with welts and was sent home. Which of the following vaccinations should this patient most likely be given?

A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 39 weeks' gestation, comes to the labor and delivery ward with contractions. Past obstetric history is significant for two normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries at term. Examination shows the cervix to be 4 centimeters dilated and 50% effaced. The patient is contracting every 4 minutes. Over the next 2 hours the patient progresses to 5centimeters dilation. An epidural is placed. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed, demonstrating copious clear fluid. 2 hours later the patient is still at 5centimeters dilation and the contractions have spaced out to every 10 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, comes to the physician for the first time for a prenatal checkup. She changed her physician and in the interim has missed two prenatal checkups. She states that she is at 7 months gestation. According to her prenatal records and an ultrasound performed at 16 weeks gestation, she is now at 30 weeks, but her fundal height is only 26cm (10.2 inches). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. You suspect fetal growth restriction (FGR) and order a repeat ultrasonogram. Which of the following is the single most useful parameter for predicting fetal weight by ultrasonogram in suspected FGR?

A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is rushed to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She was sleeping when she first noticed the bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 14th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 11 6/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows cold extremities and bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 25-year-old G1PO woman at 39 weeks gestation by last menstrual period confirmed by first trimester ultrasound presents to the hospital with complaints of vulvar pain and a "bump" on her vulva. On examination you see clear vesicles and inguinal adenopathy. No cervical or vaginal lesions are present. She is 2cm dilated, 50% effaced and at-2 station. Fetal heart rate and contraction monitoring is started. She is contracting regularly. No abnormalities are seen. Which of the following is the most effective intervention to reduce neonatal morbidity in this patient?

A 54-year-old female comes to the physician because of involuntary loss of urine. She states "Doc, whenever I laugh, cough, or sneeze, I am unable to hold my urine. I am afraid to leave the house." She has no involuntary loss of urine while sleeping. She had a hysterectomy four years ago. She has had no trauma to her head or back. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Physical examination shows a relaxed anterior vaginal wall. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. A cotton-tipped swab test reveals a urethral straining angle of 45 degrees when intra-abdominal pressure is increased. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most beneficial long-term management for this patient?

A 25-year-old woman is referred to the physician for lactation suppression after the death of her 1-month-old infant from severe sepsis. She is very depressed and complains of breast fullness and tenderness. Examination shows both breasts are warm, firm and tender to palpation. Prenatal records show no abnormalities except mild varicosities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, presents to your office at 20 weeks' gestation for a routine prenatal check-up. This pregnancy has been uncomplicated thus far. She is known to be D (-) while her husband is D (+). Her obstetric history is significant for intrapartum placental abruption, which did not require caesarian delivery. She received a standard dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy and immediately postpartum. You decide to determine her anti-D antibody titers, and they turn out to be 1:34. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the positive antibody screen in this patient?

A 15-year-old girl is being evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She has no other symptoms. She has not been sexually active. She has no other medical problems and does take any medication. Her family history is unremarkable. On examination, you note fully developed breasts and absent axillary and pubic hair. External genitalia have a normal appearance, but the vagina is abnormally short and blind ended. Initial work-up reveals no uterus on ultrasound, a testosterone level of 400 ng/dl (Normal is 20-80 for a female), and a 46 XY karyotype. Which of the following events is most likely to have caused the absence of in utero development of the internal reproductive organs?

A 32-year-old woman who is one week postpartum presents with dull pain in her left leg for the past three days. She denies any history of trauma, fever or chills. Her pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated, and her past medical history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a swollen, tender, and mildly erythematous left leg. Doppler ultrasonogram reveals a thrombus in the superficial femoral vein of the left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 47-year-old woman presents to your office with complaints of lower abdominal pain, nocturia, urinary urgency and frequency relieved with urination. She states the symptoms have been worsening this past month and she recently experienced dyspareunia. She is sexually active with her husband, but this is causing her a great amount of pain. She has four children and had uncomplicated pregnancies. She denies fevers or chills. On examination, she has diffuse lower abdominal pain with no rebound or guarding. Her external genitalia appear normal. On bimanual examination, palpation of the anterior vaginal wall elicits extreme pain. No cervical motion tenderness is present. No other abnormalities are noted. A urinalysis is negative. The most likely diagnosis is:

A previously healthy 50-year-old gravida 5, para 4, Caucasian woman comes to the physician complaining of passing small amounts of urine while sneezing or coughing for the past five months. She denies any episodes of weakness, numbness or fecal incontinence. There is no history of dysuria, increased frequency of urination, or hematuria. Her symptoms are progressively getting worse. Her other medical problems include diabetes mellitus-type 2 diagnosed 3 years ago, treated with glyburide 2.5mg/day. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and has no known drug allergies. She mentions that she is an avid jogger, but her problem causes her significant embarrassment. She now has to wear absorbent pads while jogging. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the abdomen is soft. Neurological examination is within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a cystocele. The patient's labs reveal: Urine Specific gravity: 1.020 Blood: negative Glucose: negative Leukocyte esterase: negative Nitrites: negative WBC: 5-10/hpf Bacteria: none Random blood sugar is 120 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A 34-year-old primigravida develops severe postpartum bleeding requiring aggressive volume resuscitation and transfusion of 5 units of packed red blood cells. Her pregnancy was complicated by mild hypertension and trace proteinuria that was treated with low-dose methyldopa. Her mother suffered from premature menopause and severe osteoporosis. Seven days after giving birth, she has failed to lactate. Her urinalysis is insignificant and her blood pressure has ranged from 95 to11 0 mmHg systolic and 69 to 75 mmHg diastolic. Fundoscopy shows no retinal changes. Which of the following is most likely deficient in this patient?

A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine annual visit. She has no complaints. She has no significant previous medical problems. She has been sexually active since the age of 19 with the same partner. They married 4 years ago. She has never had any sexually transmitted diseases. She had her last Pap smear 4 years ago and was within normal limits. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A repeat Pap smear now shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 26-year-old G1P0 patient at 34 weeks gestation is being evaluated with Doppler ultrasound studies of the fetal umbilical arteries. The patient is a healthy smoker. Her fetus has shown evidence of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) on previous ultrasound examinations. The Doppler studies currently show that the systolic to diastolic ratio (S/D) in the umbilical arteries is much higher than it was on her last ultrasound 3 weeks ago and there is now reverse diastolic flow. Which of the following is correct information to share with the patient?

A 17-year-old primipara at 41 weeks wants an immediate cesarean section. She is being followed with biophysical profile (BPP) testing. Which of the following is correct information to share with the patient?

A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet. She is very anxious to find out because she has a history of a previous ectopic pregnancy and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care. Which of the following actions is most appropriate at this time?

A patient presents for her first initial OB visit after performing a home pregnancy test and gives a last menstrual period of about 8 weeks ago. She says she is not entirely sure of her dates, however, because she has a long history of irregular menses. Which of the following is the most accurate way of dating the pregnancy?

A healthy 20-year-old G1P0 presents for her first OB visit at 10 weeks gestational age. She denies any significant medical history both personally and in her family. Which of the following tests is not part of the recommended first trimester blood testing for this patient?

Your patient is a healthy 28-year-old G2P1001 at 20 weeks gestational age. Two years ago, she vaginally delivered at term a healthy baby boy weighing 6 lb 8 oz. This pregnancy, she had a prepregnancy weight of 130 lb. She is 5ft 4 in tall. She now weighs 140 lb and is extremely nervous that she is gaining too much weight. She is worried that the baby will be too big and require her to have a cesarean section. What is the best counsel for this patient?

A 28-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital. She has regular uterine contractions. Her blood pressure is 120/70mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 18/min. Fetal heart monitoring is placed and shows a baseline rate of 130 beats/min, without any associated abnormalities. Pelvic examination shows the cervix is 50% effaced and 3 cm dilated. Amniotomy is performed. Immediately after the rupture of membranes, the baseline fetal heart rate increases to 160 beats/min and then drops to 70 beats/min with repetitive late decelerations. There is severe acute vaginal bleeding. Repeat vital signs of the patient shows a blood pressure of 130/70mmHg, pulse of 80/min and respirations of 18/min. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the current condition?

A 25-year-old woman delivered a baby boy at 38 weeks gestation. The newborn has a small body size with microcephaly, hypoplasia of the distal phalanges of the fingers and toes, excess hair and a cleft palate. He weighs 2.5kg (5.51b). Further history or evaluation of the mother would most likely reveal which of the following:

A 35-year-old African-American marathon runner presents to the gynecologist complaining of secondary amenorrhea that developed three months ago. Her cycles are normally 28 days long, and her menses last three to five days with moderate flow. One year ago, the woman adopted a vigorous exercise regimen that lasted between three and five hours every day. Since then, her BMI has declined from 23.4 to 16.5 Kg/m2. She has been winning many local races and is considering increasing the difficulty of her exercise regimen, but would like to address the issue of her amenorrhea first. Physical examination reveals a thin woman with well-defined musculature but is otherwise unremarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely etiology of her amenorrhea?

A 19-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and psychosis comes to the physician requesting a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. Her menses usually occur every 30 days. She is sexually active with one partner and occasionally uses condoms. She is concerned because she has gained 3 kg (6 lb) in the past 3 months. She also complains of breast tenderness and milky-white discharge from both nipples. She denies headaches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for this patient's symptoms?

A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman was found to have right adnexal enlargement on pelvic examination 2 weeks ago. Transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasounds revealed a 5 cm, unilocular, right ovarian mass with regular borders. There is no ascites. The patient went through menopause at age 52. She has had no postmenopausal spotting. There is no family history of ovarian or breast cancer. Her latest mammogram 2 months ago showed no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

A 26-year-old graduate student presents at her husband's urging, complaining of severe pain during sexual intercourse. She says that she was a virgin when she married her husband two years ago, and that she has been experiencing severe "genital pain" during sex since then. As a result, she avoids sexual intimacy with her husband, which is placing a strain upon their marriage. She also complains of intense pain with her menses and when passing stool. She admits to sporadic pelvic pain that waxes and wanes with no discernible trigger. What would be the most appropriate treatment given this woman's condition?

A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 10-month history of dysmenorrhea associated with a dull pelvic sensation. She has heavy periods but denies inter-menstrual bleeding. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use contraception because they have been trying to become pregnant for one year. She has no pain during intercourse. Physical examination shows normal external genitalia and an enlarged uterus, but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 38-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 10 weeks gestation comes to the physician's office for prenatal counseling of genetic disorders. She has a healthy 3-year-old child. Given her age, she is worried about the risk of Down syndrome, and if her baby test is positive for Down syndrome she would like to terminate the pregnancy. Ultrasonogram shows increased fetal nuchal fold lucency. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman is admitted for delivery. She began experiencing regular, painful uterine contractions three hours ago and her water broke en route to the hospital. The cervix is 5 cm dilated and 80% effaced. The fetal presentation is vertex and the baby's head is at -1 station. After placing a fetal heart monitor and external tocometer, repetitive decreases in fetal heart rate are noted which begin at the same time as the contractions and end before the contractions have ceased. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the fetal heart pattern?

A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has not felt her baby's movements for the past two weeks. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Ultrasonogram shows absence of fetal cardiac activity. Fetal demise is diagnosed. Laboratory studies show: Serum fibrinogen level: 250 mg/dl (normal is 150 - 450 mg/dl) Platelets: 130,000/mm3 Prothrombin time: 15 sec Partial thromboplastin time: 33sec There are no signs of active bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 37-year-old G4 P3 woman delivered a 4,100gram (9.02lbs) infant by spontaneous vaginal delivery one hour ago. This pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes for which she is being treated with insulin. The patient is currently on magnesium sulfate for elevated blood pressures and proteinuria. You are called to evaluate her because she began to have very heavy vaginal bleeding and is feeling lightheaded. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and pulse is 98/min. On physical examination you see heavy vaginal bleeding and numerous blood clots. Her cervix is closed and the uterus can be palpated 3cm above the umbilicus. The uterus feels boggy. The next best step in management is:

A seven-year-old girl is brought to the physician's office because of a sudden onset of growth spurt, pubic hair development, and breast enlargement. Her family history is not significant. She has no other medical problems. On examination, there is no hirsutism or acne. Her weight is 70th percentile and her height is 98th percentile. Examination showed a pelvic mass. Pelvic ultrasonogram showed a right ovarian mass. Initial evaluation showed elevated estrogen levels Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling of her hands and feet. Her previous prenatal check-up was normal. Blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg, and five minutes later following lateral rest her blood pressure is 140/95 mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema of the legs and a macular eruption on the cheekbones. Optic fundi show no abnormalities. Laboratory studies are as follows: Urinalysis: 4+ protein, RBC casts Urine protein: 8 g/24hr Uric acid: 5 mg/dl BUN: 28 mg/dl Serum creatinine: 2.1 mg/dl Serum electrolytes, liver function tests and coagulation studies are within normal limits. A serum antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is positive in high titers Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old nulliparous woman is being evaluated for infertility. She has no other medical problems. Pelvic examination reveals abundant mucous and a clear cervical secretion, which when lifted vertically extends in a long thread; pH is 6.5. This visit took place at which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle?

A 28-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit secondary to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp and occurring with movement and exercise. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits. She also denies any fever or chills. The application of a heating pad helps alleviate the discomfort. As her obstetrician, what should you tell this patient is the most likely etiology of this pain?

A 43-year-old G1P0 who conceived via in vitro fertilization comes into the office for her routine OB visit at 38 weeks. She denies any problems since she was seen the week before. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid per vagina, vaginal bleeding, or regular uterine contractions. She reports that sometimes she feels crampy at the end of the day when she gets home from work, but this discomfort is alleviated with getting off her feet. The fundal height measurement is 36 cm; it measured 37 cm the week before. Her cervical examination is 2 cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A pregnant woman who is 7 weeks from her LMP comes in to the office for her first prenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy ended in a missed abortion in the first trimester. The patient therefore is very anxious about the well-being of this pregnancy. Which of the following modalities will allow you to best document fetal heart action?

A 21-year-old nulligravid woman comes to her physician to discuss birth control options. She became sexually active for the first time 2 weeks ago. She is currently using condoms for contraception. Her past medical history is significant for asthma, which has been inactive for 2 years. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. She has no family history of cancer. Her examination is within normal limits. After a discussion with the physician, she chooses to take the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She stays on the pill for the next 6 years. She now has most significantly decreased her risk of developing which of the following malignancies?

A 33-year-old woman presents to the physician because of a malodorous vaginal discharge that has been present for the past 3 days. She has no vaginal or vulvar irritation, and has no urinary complaints. Pelvic examination demonstrates a copious, gray discharge with a pH of 5.0. When 1 drop of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is added to a sample of the discharge there is an intense amine odor. A normal saline wet preparation is performed that demonstrates epithelial cells whose borders and nuclei are obscured by the presence of bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of vaginal itch and pain with intercourse. She had her last menstrual period at age 52. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and is allergic to penicillin. Pelvic examination demonstrates pale vaginal mucosa with no rugae present. The vagina is dry with no discharge. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) and normal saline wet preparation is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A 32-year-old woman is brought to the operating room for diagnostic laparoscopy because of chronic pelvic pain and chronic right upper quadrant pain. She has had these pains for the past 2 years. Her bowel and bladder function are normal. Past medical history is significant for two episodes of gonorrhea. She drinks one beer per day. Laboratory studies show: Urine hCG: negative Haematocrit: 39% leukocyte count: 8,000/mm3 platelet count: 200,000/mm3 AST: 12U/L ALT: 14U/L Intraoperatively, the patient is noted to have dense adhesions involving her fallopian tubes, ovaries, and uterus. The fallopian tubes themselves appear clubbed and occluded. A survey of her upper abdomen is remarkable for perihepatic adhesions extending from the liver surface to the diaphragm. The liver otherwise appears unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for her right upper quadrant pain?

A 24-year-old female presents to you for the evaluation of acne. Further questioning, reveals that she also has had irregular periods for a long time. She is single and not sexually active. On examination, her BMI is 31 Kg/m2 and she has evidence of hirsutism. Further evaluation reveals increase in serum free testosterone and LH/FSH ratio of 2.4. Glucose tolerance testing reveals two-hour blood glucose of 155 mg/dl. Apart from prescribing oral contraceptive pills, which of the following is indicated in this patient?

A 14-year-old phenotypically female child is brought to your office by her mother who is concerned that her daughter has not had menstrual bleeding yet. Her past medical history is significant for an episode of severe bilateral pneumonia that required hospitalization when she was seven years old. Physical examination reveals Tanner stage 3 breast development, but very little pubic and axillary hair. Bilateral inguinal masses are palpated. A blind vaginal pouch is noted on pelvic exam. A karyotype analysis showed 46 XY. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 50-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of severe insomnia, hot flashes, and mood swings. She also states that her mother had a hip fracture at 65 years of age. She is afraid of developing osteoporosis and having a similar incident. Her last menstrual period was six months ago. Her past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism diagnosed seven years ago. She takes L-thyroxine and the dose of the hormone has been stable for the last several years. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg and her heart rate is 75/min. Serum TSH level is normal. You consider estrogen replacement therapy for this patient. Which of the following is most likely concerning estrogen replacement therapy in this patient?A 50-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of severe insomnia, hot flashes, and mood swings. She also states that her mother had a hip fracture at 65 years of age. She is afraid of developing osteoporosis and having a similar incident. Her last menstrual period was six months ago. Her past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism diagnosed seven years ago. She takes L-thyroxine and the dose of the hormone has been stable for the last several years. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg and her heart rate is 75/min. Serum TSH level is normal. You consider estrogen replacement therapy for this patient. Which of the following is most likely concerning estrogen replacement therapy in this patient?

A previously healthy 50-year-old gravida 5, para 4, Caucasian woman comes to the physician complaining of passing small amounts of urine while sneezing or coughing for the past five months. She denies any episodes of weakness, numbness or fecal incontinence. There is no history of dysuria, increased frequency of urination, or hematuria. Her symptoms are progressively getting worse. Her other medical problems include diabetes mellitus-type 2 diagnosed 3 years ago, treated with glyburide 2.5mg/day. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and has no known drug allergies. She mentions that she is an avid jogger, but her problem causes her significant embarrassment. She now has to wear absorbent pads while jogging. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the abdomen is soft. Neurological examination is within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a cystocele. The patient's labs reveal: Urine Specific gravity: 1.020 Blood: negative Glucose: negative Leukocyte esterase: negative Nitrites: negative WBC: 5-10/hpf Bacteria: none Random blood sugar is 120 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 6 weeks gestation. She has no complaints except mild nausea. She quit tobacco and alcohol use after she learned that she was pregnant. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The screening VDRL test returns positive, as does the confirmatory FTA-ABS test. The patient has a history of an allergic reaction to penicillin. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. She is working as an aerobics instructor and is concerned about the effect her exercise schedule might have on the pregnancy. She teaches 30 minutes daily in the morning and does not feel fatigued. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?