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Micro exam 2020

A visually engaging illustration featuring microscopic images of bacteria and viruses, with a background of laboratory equipment and books related to microbiology, in a colorful, educational-themed style.

Microbiology Mastery Quiz

Test your knowledge of microbiology and infectious diseases with our comprehensive quiz featuring 61 questions designed to challenge your understanding of clinical microbiology. Whether you're a student, a healthcare professional, or just a curious learner, this quiz will help you reinforce essential concepts and terminology.

Key Features:

Multiple-choice questions
Diverse topics including bacteriology, virology, and mycology
Perfect for self-assessment or study groups

61 Questions15 MinutesCreated by StudyingCell235

Measles incorrect sentence:

is a Coronaviridae

Highly contagious and spreads by droplets

SSPE as sequel is rare

Acquired immunity is lifelong

Immunoprophylaxis is live, attenuated vaccine

It its a paramyxoviridae

Oncogenic RNA virus

HTLV-1

CMV

EBV

Mumps

Rubella

Choose correct combination of virus and infection:

Herpangia - influenza virus

Hemorrhagic cystitis - JC virus

Stomatitis herpetica - HSV-1

Condylomata lata - HPV

E. Infection of the spinal cord anterior horn cells– rabies virus

Choose correct combination of toxin and disease associated with its

TSST -1– HUS

Panton Valentine Leucocidin – furunculosis

Streptolysin S - TSST

Exfoliative toxin – puerperal fever

Food poisoning - enterotoxin

Which organism is commonly associated with meningitis in a 1-week-old infants?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria meningitis

Salmonella enteritidis

Streptococcus agalactiae

Hemophilus influenzae

Choose correct combination of infections and recommended treatment:

Furunculosis – penicillin G

Yersinioses – in severe cases penicillin are used for treatment

Pertussis – tetracyclines shortens the duration of infectious period of the disease

Cholera – fluid and electrolytes replacement, in severe cases – azithromycin

disseminated meningococcal disease – colistin and cephazolin (

Choose correct combination of virus and its mode of spread: Select one:

Measles virus – fecal route

HBV – fecal-oral route

SARS CoV-2 – droplet route

Adenovirus– sexual transmission

HAV – blood transmission

The cause of tracheobronchitis and pneumonia mainly in school-age children (ages 5 to 15 years). Infection, transmitted via droplet route is more common during summer and fall. In treatment macrolides is used. The characteristic most probably indicates:

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Legionella pneumophila

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Chlamydia pneumoniae

Streptococcus pneumonia

Choose true statement/s concerning blood collection for bacterial culture: Select one:

Approximately 5 ml of blood should be collected from an adult for each blood culture

Blood sample is collected into transport-growth medium

Blood cultures should be incubated for a minimum 3 days

Blood is collected from indwelling intravascular catheter

Gram-stained smear is performed directly from all blood samples

C. Blood cultures should be incubated for a minimum 5 days

Antibiotic therapy is contraindicated for management of infections caused by: Select one:

Clostridium difficile

Shigella Sonnei

Helicobacter pylori

Campylobacter Jejuni

E. coli O157

Antopozoones include:

Lyme disease

Relapsing fever

Rabies

Typhoid fever

Anaplasmosis

Sexually active, 23-year-old men was admitted to a dermatologist to evaluate a small, painless ulcer on a penile shaft. This aroused a suspicion of syphilis. Which of the following tests should be approached to confirm the etiology of infection at this stage of infection? Select one:

Culture on artificial media

Gram-stained smear observation

VDRL test

FTA-ABS test

Darkfield microscopy

Choose correct statement/s concerning prions:

Causative treatment is possible in early stage of prion disease

During the prion disease inflammation is observed

Form aggregates of protease-sensitive, hydrophobic glycoproteins

Prion diseases can be only acquired

The infections may follow transplantation of contaminated tissue eg. cornea

Coagulase – negative Staphylococci play an essential role in etiology

Endocarditis of a prosthetic heart valve

Osteomyelitis (

Wound infection following skin injury

Intraabdominal abscesses

Brain abscesses

Treatment of Legionnaires’ disease include:

Cefuroxime

Tetracycline

Cephalothin

Ceftazidime

Penicillin G

16. Choose correct combination of infection and bacterium isolated from blood in secondary blood infection onset:

erysipelas – Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Epiglottitis – Haemophilus influenzae

Swimmer ear – Serratia marcescens

Ostitis – E.coli

intra-abdominal abscesses –Corynebacterium sp.

Erysipelas - S. pyogenes

Swimmer ear - P. aeruginosa

Ostitis - S. aureus

Intra-abdominal abscesses - E. coli

The diagnosis of early, localized Lyme disease is most commonly made by:

Detection of Borrelia burgdorferi in Giemsa-stained blood smear

Detection of anti-Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies in the blood or CSF

History of tick exposure in endemic areas

Culturing of Borrelia burgdorferi

Clinical diagnosis of erythema migrans

Purulent conjunctivitis is caused by the all etiological agents listed below, except: Select one: *

Adenovirus

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Streotococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pneumoniashemophilius influenza

Hospital acquired pneumonia in intensive care units are most commonly caused by:

MRSA

Enterococcus sp. HLAR

Klebisella pneumonia ESBL positive

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Fluconazole resistant Candida albicans

Choose true statement/s concerning Influenza virus: Select one:

Major antigenic change resulting from mutation of HA and NA genes are called antigenic drift

Antigenic shift occur only with Influenza A virus

Influenza B is predominantly an animal virus

Viral hemagglutinin has enzyme activity

Antigenic drifts are often associated with the occurrence of pandemics

Choose the drug of choice used to treat purulent pharyngitis and tonsillitis considering the most common etiology:

Cloxacillin

Gentamicin

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Piperacillin

Eryhromycin

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis include: Select one:

Eryhromycin

Clavulinic acid

Metronidazole

Amikacin

Sulbactam

Choose correct combination/s of specimen collected and virus detected: Select one:

Stoouol - norovirus

Sputum - rabies virus

Urine - HIV

CSF - BK virus

Skin - mumps virus

68-year old female patient was admitted to hospital with fever, chills, productive cough and chest pain. 2 week earlier influenza was diagnosed. X-ray of the chest revealed lobar pneumonia. What is the most probable cause of described case:

Neisseria meningitides

Streptococcus pyogenes

Staphylococcus aureus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Klebiella pnumoniae

Anatoxins are available for vaccination against:

Salmonellosis

Borreliosis

Diphtheria

Pertussis

Thypoid fever

C. tentani

Choose a drug of choice used to treat vaginitis considering the most common etiology: Select one:

Erythromycin

Doxycycline

Metronidazole

Fluconazole

Acyclovir

Which specimen is appropriate to confirm the indicated condition: Select one:

Otitis media: ear swab

Sinusitis: nasopharyngeal washings

Urethritis: midstream urine

Pneumonia: swab from throat

Epiglottitis: blood culture

Sterilization methods include all listed below, EXCEPT:

Hydrogen peroxide vapor

Filtration

Formaldehyde vapor

Pateurization

Stream under pressure

Lipid A is a cell wall component of:

Streptococcus pyogenes

Cryptococcys neoformans

Candida glabrata

Psuedomonas aeruginosa

Staphylococcus aureus

Acid fast bacteria, cultured on selective and special media, do not cultured on artificial media used in routine diagnostic, facultatively intracellular, the etiological agents of multiorgan infections that cause immune response mostly due to macrophages activation – the characteristic most probably indicates:

Campylobacter jejuni

Nocardia asteroids

Actinomyces Israeli

Shigella sp.

Myocbacterium tuberculosis

Choose correct statement/s:

Transposons (jumping genes) are mobile genetic elements

Transduction is an active incorporation of foreign DNA

Transformation leads to acquisition of new genetic features due gene mutations

Plasmids are small genetic elements that replicate dependently of the bacterial chromosome

Pathogenic bacteria don’t use a transpozon –like mechanism to coordinate expression of a system of virulence factors

Choose correct statement/s concerning Bacillus cereus: Select one:

ASulfonamides are used to treat gastroenterocolitis caused by this bacterium

Belong to obligates anaerobic bacteria (

Inhalational form of the disease is associated with high mortality (

Is an etiological agent of anthrax

Is involved in food poisoning

Choose incorrect combination of antimicrobial agent and its mode of action: Select one:

flucytosine – ergosterol synthesis inhibition

Oseltamivir – neuraminidase inhibition

Vancomycin – peptidoglycan synthesis inhibition

clindamycin– protein synthesis inhibition

Tigecycline – protein synthesis inhibition at 30s ribosome

Oncogenic viruses include all listed below, except:

HPV

HEV

HTLV

HBV

EBV

35. Which of the following prevents initiation of protein synthesis at 50S ribosome: Select one:

Fosfomycinte

Linezolid

Tracycline

Gentamicin

Tigecycline

Mother-child transmission indicates:

HIV

HSV

Rotavirus

Varicella zoster virus

Parvovirus B19

8-year old boy was admitted to hospital with watery diarrhea progressing into bloody diarrhea and demonstrated acute abdominal pain. The hemorrhagic colitis was recognized and child was transferred to ICU. Symptoms occurred after ingestion of spinach. Which of the toxin is responsible for the disease symptoms? Select one:

Cytotoxin of clostridium difficile

Verotoxin of E. coli

Enterotoxin of bacillus cereus

Toxin of vibrio cholera

Enterotoxin of S. aureus

Choose fungal indicator diseases of AIDS:

Kaposi sarcoma

Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Mycobacterioses

Toxoplasma encephalitis

Choose correct statement/s concerning laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection: Select one

HIV antibody may develop fast, 2-3 weeks in most patients

ELISA is used as confirmation assay

Serologic tests can identify recently infected people

Ratio of CD4 to CD8 does not correlate with the status of HIV infection

RNA RT-PCR is used to determine the presence of viral genome in patients blood

Which of the following virulence factors predisposes to kidney stone formation and pyelonephritis:

LPS

Urease

Presence of fimbriae

Resistance to antibiotics

Avoidance of phagocytosis

Herpesviridae are the etiological agents of all infections listed below, except: Select one:

Burkitt lymphoma

Infectious mononucleosis

Stomatitis herpetica

Herpes zoster

Condylomata acuminata

** Patients with C5, C6, C7, C8 complement components deficiencies are at risk of developing the infections caused by: Select one:

HIV

Streptococcus pneumonia

Legionella pneumophilia

Adenovirus

Blastomyces dermatidis

Choose correct statement/s:

Adenoviruses cause "pink eye"

Rotaviruses rare cause foodborne disease

Measles – host range is limited to animals

Smallpox is one of classic childhood exanthems

CMV establishes latency in memory B cells and is reactivated when B cell is activated (

Choose correct combination of pathogen and active drug: Select one:

Staphylococcus aureus –colistin

Haemophilus influenzae – cefazolin

Mycobacterium tuberculosis – ampicillin

Candida glabrata – caspofungin

Prevotella melaninogenica – ceftriaxone

45. Choose etiological agent/s of bite-wound infections (by human, dog, cat)

Staphylococcus aureus

Pasteurella multocida

Eikenella corrodens

Mycobacterium avium

Ehrlichia

Choose correct combination/s of toxin and its mode of action:

Pertussis toxin – inactivates G1 alpha surface protein activity

Shiga toxin – activation of protein synthesis

Tetanospasmin– spastic paralysis

cholera toxin– diarrhea

Botulin toxin – flaccid paralysis

Choose correct statement/s:

Ceftaroline cannot be used to treat MRSA infections

Streptococci are catalase-positive bacteria

ASO titer is used in streptococcal pharyngitis diagnostic

Streptococci are responsible for suppurative diseases – ex. Glomerulonephritis

Penicillin is a drug of choice for treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis

Choose the drugs of choice used to treat meningitis in adults (age 18-50 years): Select one:

Penicillin G + erythromycin

ceftriaxone + vancomycin

erythromycin + cefotaxime

gentamicin + colistin

Cefuroxime + gentamicin

*Bacterial resistance to beta lactams results from all mentioned below, EXCEPT: Select one:

Altered target PBPs

Prevention of the interaction between the antibiotic and the target PBPs

Synthesis of new PBPs

hydrolysis of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes

Efflux pump

Choose true statement/s:

Bartonella Henselae causes chronic, regional lymphadenopathy associated with cat scratch

Dental caries is caused mostly by S. Salivarius

Cardiobacterium hominis is the Gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium responsible for endocarditis

Francisella Tularensis is typical, extracellular bacterium responsible for anthropozoonosis

Aggregatibacter belong to fast growly in blood cultures

Choose correct statement/s concerning tuberculosis:

First line anti-TB agents include rifampin and isoniazid

Extrapulmonary tuberculosis rarely follows hematogenous spread of the bacteria

Is caused by Mycobacterium avium – intracellular

Is caused by obligatory intracellular pathogens

To prevent vaccine with attenuated M. Tuberculosis is useful (

52. Individuals with B-cell deficiencies are at high risk of developing the infections caused by:

Molds

Intracellular bacteria

Yeasts

Envolped viruses

Extracellular bacteria

Choose correct combination of bacterium & clinical picture of disease:

S. aureus – SSSS

S. epidermidis – impetigo contagiosa (

S. aureus - impetigo contagiosa

C. S. agalactiae – meningitis in elderly individuals

C. S. agalactiae – meningitis in newborns

D. S. pyogenes – Erysipeloid

E. S. pneumoniae – aseptic meningitis

E. S. pneumoniae – septic meningitis

Which property is responsible for the survival and replication of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in an infected patient?

Production of proteases that degrade IgM and IgG

Production of phospholipase C that degrades cellular membranes

Phagocytized bacteria inactivate lysosomal enzyme

Phagocytized bacteria inhibit phagosome lysosome fusion

Presence of a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis

Choose correct combination of virus / active antiviral agent:

Influenza B – amantadine

CMV – gancyclovir

HSV-1 – ribavirin

HIV – oseltamivir

HCV – zidovudine

Streptococcus pneumoniae produces:

Capsule

Protein A

Leykocidin

IgA protease

Alpha-hemolysin

Echinocandins:

Inhibit synthesis of DNA

Act fungistatic

Inhibit 1,3 – beta glucan synthesis in fungal cell wall

High toxicity is reported in patients

Inhibit 1,3 beta – glucan synthesis in fungal cell membrane

Choose facultative anaerobic skin microbiota representatives: Select one:

E.coli, Citrobacter freundii

Corynebacterium sp., Staphylococcus epidermidis

Bifidobacterium sp., Eubacterium sp

Propionibacterium sp., Clostridium difficile,

Proteus mirabilis, S. aureus

Which one of the metabolites is directly detected in patients’ serum in diagnosis of Aspergillus fumigatus invasive infection?

Capsular polysaccharide

galactomannan – cell wall component

Mannan – cell wall component

Mannan – cytoplasm component

Galactomannan – cell membrane component

Choose correct statement/s concerning dimorphic fungi: Select one:

Fungi are responsible only for superficial infections

Coccidioides immitis is one of its representatives

Laboratory diagnostic is based on biochemical assay

Filamentous forms occur in infected tissue

Fungi are responsible only for secondary infections

Listeria monocytogenes infections may follow the consumption of: Select one:

Sea food

Oysters

Chicken eggs

Unpasteurized milk

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