Micro exam 2020
Microbiology Mastery Quiz
Test your knowledge of microbiology and infectious diseases with our comprehensive quiz featuring 61 questions designed to challenge your understanding of clinical microbiology. Whether you're a student, a healthcare professional, or just a curious learner, this quiz will help you reinforce essential concepts and terminology.
Key Features:
- Multiple-choice questions
- Diverse topics including bacteriology, virology, and mycology
- Perfect for self-assessment or study groups
Measles incorrect sentence:
is a Coronaviridae
Highly contagious and spreads by droplets
SSPE as sequel is rare
Acquired immunity is lifelong
Immunoprophylaxis is live, attenuated vaccine
It its a paramyxoviridae
Choose correct combination of virus and infection:
Herpangia - influenza virus
Hemorrhagic cystitis - JC virus
Stomatitis herpetica - HSV-1
Condylomata lata - HPV
E. Infection of the spinal cord anterior horn cells– rabies virus
Choose correct combination of toxin and disease associated with its
TSST -1– HUS
Panton Valentine Leucocidin – furunculosis
Streptolysin S - TSST
Exfoliative toxin – puerperal fever
Food poisoning - enterotoxin
Which organism is commonly associated with meningitis in a 1-week-old infants?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitis
Salmonella enteritidis
Streptococcus agalactiae
Hemophilus influenzae
Choose correct combination of infections and recommended treatment:
Furunculosis – penicillin G
Yersinioses – in severe cases penicillin are used for treatment
Pertussis – tetracyclines shortens the duration of infectious period of the disease
Cholera – fluid and electrolytes replacement, in severe cases – azithromycin
disseminated meningococcal disease – colistin and cephazolin (
Choose correct combination of virus and its mode of spread: Select one:
Measles virus – fecal route
HBV – fecal-oral route
SARS CoV-2 – droplet route
Adenovirus– sexual transmission
HAV – blood transmission
The cause of tracheobronchitis and pneumonia mainly in school-age children (ages 5 to 15 years). Infection, transmitted via droplet route is more common during summer and fall. In treatment macrolides is used. The characteristic most probably indicates:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumonia
Choose true statement/s concerning blood collection for bacterial culture: Select one:
Approximately 5 ml of blood should be collected from an adult for each blood culture
Blood sample is collected into transport-growth medium
Blood cultures should be incubated for a minimum 3 days
Blood is collected from indwelling intravascular catheter
Gram-stained smear is performed directly from all blood samples
C. Blood cultures should be incubated for a minimum 5 days
Antibiotic therapy is contraindicated for management of infections caused by: Select one:
Clostridium difficile
Shigella Sonnei
Helicobacter pylori
Campylobacter Jejuni
E. coli O157
Sexually active, 23-year-old men was admitted to a dermatologist to evaluate a small, painless ulcer on a penile shaft. This aroused a suspicion of syphilis. Which of the following tests should be approached to confirm the etiology of infection at this stage of infection? Select one:
Culture on artificial media
Gram-stained smear observation
VDRL test
FTA-ABS test
Darkfield microscopy
Choose correct statement/s concerning prions:
Causative treatment is possible in early stage of prion disease
During the prion disease inflammation is observed
Form aggregates of protease-sensitive, hydrophobic glycoproteins
Prion diseases can be only acquired
The infections may follow transplantation of contaminated tissue eg. cornea
Coagulase – negative Staphylococci play an essential role in etiology
Endocarditis of a prosthetic heart valve
Osteomyelitis (
Wound infection following skin injury
Intraabdominal abscesses
Brain abscesses
Treatment of Legionnaires’ disease include:
Cefuroxime
Tetracycline
Cephalothin
Ceftazidime
Penicillin G
16. Choose correct combination of infection and bacterium isolated from blood in secondary blood infection onset:
erysipelas – Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Epiglottitis – Haemophilus influenzae
Swimmer ear – Serratia marcescens
Ostitis – E.coli
intra-abdominal abscesses –Corynebacterium sp.
Erysipelas - S. pyogenes
Swimmer ear - P. aeruginosa
Ostitis - S. aureus
Intra-abdominal abscesses - E. coli
The diagnosis of early, localized Lyme disease is most commonly made by:
Detection of Borrelia burgdorferi in Giemsa-stained blood smear
Detection of anti-Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies in the blood or CSF
History of tick exposure in endemic areas
Culturing of Borrelia burgdorferi
Clinical diagnosis of erythema migrans
Purulent conjunctivitis is caused by the all etiological agents listed below, except: Select one: *
Adenovirus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Streotococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniashemophilius influenza
Hospital acquired pneumonia in intensive care units are most commonly caused by:
MRSA
Enterococcus sp. HLAR
Klebisella pneumonia ESBL positive
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Fluconazole resistant Candida albicans
Fluconazole resistant Candida albicans
Choose true statement/s concerning Influenza virus: Select one:
Major antigenic change resulting from mutation of HA and NA genes are called antigenic drift
Antigenic shift occur only with Influenza A virus
Influenza B is predominantly an animal virus
Viral hemagglutinin has enzyme activity
Antigenic drifts are often associated with the occurrence of pandemics
Choose the drug of choice used to treat purulent pharyngitis and tonsillitis considering the most common etiology:
Cloxacillin
Gentamicin
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Piperacillin
Eryhromycin
Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis include: Select one:
Eryhromycin
Clavulinic acid
Metronidazole
Amikacin
Sulbactam
Choose correct combination/s of specimen collected and virus detected: Select one:
Stoouol - norovirus
Sputum - rabies virus
Urine - HIV
CSF - BK virus
Skin - mumps virus
68-year old female patient was admitted to hospital with fever, chills, productive cough and chest pain. 2 week earlier influenza was diagnosed. X-ray of the chest revealed lobar pneumonia. What is the most probable cause of described case:
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebiella pnumoniae
Anatoxins are available for vaccination against:
Salmonellosis
Borreliosis
Diphtheria
Pertussis
Thypoid fever
C. tentani
Choose a drug of choice used to treat vaginitis considering the most common etiology: Select one:
Erythromycin
Doxycycline
Metronidazole
Fluconazole
Acyclovir
Which specimen is appropriate to confirm the indicated condition: Select one:
Otitis media: ear swab
Sinusitis: nasopharyngeal washings
Urethritis: midstream urine
Pneumonia: swab from throat
Epiglottitis: blood culture
Sterilization methods include all listed below, EXCEPT:
Hydrogen peroxide vapor
Filtration
Formaldehyde vapor
Pateurization
Stream under pressure
Lipid A is a cell wall component of:
Streptococcus pyogenes
Cryptococcys neoformans
Candida glabrata
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
Acid fast bacteria, cultured on selective and special media, do not cultured on artificial media used in routine diagnostic, facultatively intracellular, the etiological agents of multiorgan infections that cause immune response mostly due to macrophages activation – the characteristic most probably indicates:
Campylobacter jejuni
Nocardia asteroids
Actinomyces Israeli
Shigella sp.
Myocbacterium tuberculosis
Choose correct statement/s:
Transposons (jumping genes) are mobile genetic elements
Transduction is an active incorporation of foreign DNA
Transformation leads to acquisition of new genetic features due gene mutations
Plasmids are small genetic elements that replicate dependently of the bacterial chromosome
Pathogenic bacteria don’t use a transpozon –like mechanism to coordinate expression of a system of virulence factors
Choose correct statement/s concerning Bacillus cereus: Select one:
ASulfonamides are used to treat gastroenterocolitis caused by this bacterium
Belong to obligates anaerobic bacteria (
Inhalational form of the disease is associated with high mortality (
Is an etiological agent of anthrax
Is involved in food poisoning
Choose incorrect combination of antimicrobial agent and its mode of action: Select one:
flucytosine – ergosterol synthesis inhibition
Oseltamivir – neuraminidase inhibition
Vancomycin – peptidoglycan synthesis inhibition
clindamycin– protein synthesis inhibition
Tigecycline – protein synthesis inhibition at 30s ribosome
35. Which of the following prevents initiation of protein synthesis at 50S ribosome: Select one:
Fosfomycinte
Linezolid
Tracycline
Gentamicin
Tigecycline
8-year old boy was admitted to hospital with watery diarrhea progressing into bloody diarrhea and demonstrated acute abdominal pain. The hemorrhagic colitis was recognized and child was transferred to ICU. Symptoms occurred after ingestion of spinach. Which of the toxin is responsible for the disease symptoms? Select one:
Cytotoxin of clostridium difficile
Verotoxin of E. coli
Enterotoxin of bacillus cereus
Toxin of vibrio cholera
Enterotoxin of S. aureus
Choose fungal indicator diseases of AIDS:
Kaposi sarcoma
Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis
Burkitt’s lymphoma
Mycobacterioses
Toxoplasma encephalitis
Choose correct statement/s concerning laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection: Select one
HIV antibody may develop fast, 2-3 weeks in most patients
ELISA is used as confirmation assay
Serologic tests can identify recently infected people
Ratio of CD4 to CD8 does not correlate with the status of HIV infection
RNA RT-PCR is used to determine the presence of viral genome in patients blood
Which of the following virulence factors predisposes to kidney stone formation and pyelonephritis:
LPS
Urease
Presence of fimbriae
Resistance to antibiotics
Avoidance of phagocytosis
Herpesviridae are the etiological agents of all infections listed below, except: Select one:
Burkitt lymphoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Stomatitis herpetica
Herpes zoster
Condylomata acuminata
** Patients with C5, C6, C7, C8 complement components deficiencies are at risk of developing the infections caused by: Select one:
HIV
Streptococcus pneumonia
Legionella pneumophilia
Adenovirus
Blastomyces dermatidis
Choose correct statement/s:
Adenoviruses cause "pink eye"
Rotaviruses rare cause foodborne disease
Measles – host range is limited to animals
Smallpox is one of classic childhood exanthems
CMV establishes latency in memory B cells and is reactivated when B cell is activated (
Choose correct combination of pathogen and active drug: Select one:
Staphylococcus aureus –colistin
Haemophilus influenzae – cefazolin
Mycobacterium tuberculosis – ampicillin
Candida glabrata – caspofungin
Prevotella melaninogenica – ceftriaxone
45. Choose etiological agent/s of bite-wound infections (by human, dog, cat)
Staphylococcus aureus
Pasteurella multocida
Eikenella corrodens
Mycobacterium avium
Ehrlichia
Choose correct combination/s of toxin and its mode of action:
Pertussis toxin – inactivates G1 alpha surface protein activity
Shiga toxin – activation of protein synthesis
Tetanospasmin– spastic paralysis
cholera toxin– diarrhea
Botulin toxin – flaccid paralysis
Choose correct statement/s:
Ceftaroline cannot be used to treat MRSA infections
Streptococci are catalase-positive bacteria
ASO titer is used in streptococcal pharyngitis diagnostic
Streptococci are responsible for suppurative diseases – ex. Glomerulonephritis
Penicillin is a drug of choice for treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis
Choose the drugs of choice used to treat meningitis in adults (age 18-50 years): Select one:
Penicillin G + erythromycin
ceftriaxone + vancomycin
erythromycin + cefotaxime
gentamicin + colistin
Cefuroxime + gentamicin
*Bacterial resistance to beta lactams results from all mentioned below, EXCEPT: Select one:
Altered target PBPs
Prevention of the interaction between the antibiotic and the target PBPs
Synthesis of new PBPs
hydrolysis of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes
Efflux pump
Choose true statement/s:
Bartonella Henselae causes chronic, regional lymphadenopathy associated with cat scratch
Dental caries is caused mostly by S. Salivarius
Cardiobacterium hominis is the Gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium responsible for endocarditis
Francisella Tularensis is typical, extracellular bacterium responsible for anthropozoonosis
Aggregatibacter belong to fast growly in blood cultures
Choose correct statement/s concerning tuberculosis:
First line anti-TB agents include rifampin and isoniazid
Extrapulmonary tuberculosis rarely follows hematogenous spread of the bacteria
Is caused by Mycobacterium avium – intracellular
Is caused by obligatory intracellular pathogens
To prevent vaccine with attenuated M. Tuberculosis is useful (
52. Individuals with B-cell deficiencies are at high risk of developing the infections caused by:
Molds
Intracellular bacteria
Yeasts
Envolped viruses
Extracellular bacteria
Choose correct combination of bacterium & clinical picture of disease:
S. aureus – SSSS
S. epidermidis – impetigo contagiosa (
S. aureus - impetigo contagiosa
C. S. agalactiae – meningitis in elderly individuals
C. S. agalactiae – meningitis in newborns
D. S. pyogenes – Erysipeloid
E. S. pneumoniae – aseptic meningitis
E. S. pneumoniae – septic meningitis
Which property is responsible for the survival and replication of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in an infected patient?
Production of proteases that degrade IgM and IgG
Production of phospholipase C that degrades cellular membranes
Phagocytized bacteria inactivate lysosomal enzyme
Phagocytized bacteria inhibit phagosome lysosome fusion
Presence of a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis
Choose correct combination of virus / active antiviral agent:
Influenza B – amantadine
CMV – gancyclovir
HSV-1 – ribavirin
HIV – oseltamivir
HCV – zidovudine
Echinocandins:
Inhibit synthesis of DNA
Act fungistatic
Inhibit 1,3 – beta glucan synthesis in fungal cell wall
High toxicity is reported in patients
Inhibit 1,3 beta – glucan synthesis in fungal cell membrane
Choose facultative anaerobic skin microbiota representatives: Select one:
E.coli, Citrobacter freundii
Corynebacterium sp., Staphylococcus epidermidis
Bifidobacterium sp., Eubacterium sp
Propionibacterium sp., Clostridium difficile,
Proteus mirabilis, S. aureus
Which one of the metabolites is directly detected in patients’ serum in diagnosis of Aspergillus fumigatus invasive infection?
Capsular polysaccharide
galactomannan – cell wall component
Mannan – cell wall component
Mannan – cytoplasm component
Galactomannan – cell membrane component
Choose correct statement/s concerning dimorphic fungi: Select one:
Fungi are responsible only for superficial infections
Coccidioides immitis is one of its representatives
Laboratory diagnostic is based on biochemical assay
Filamentous forms occur in infected tissue
Fungi are responsible only for secondary infections
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