Génico page 1424_1459
82) A 59-year-old woman who had been diagnosed with infiltrating ductal carcinoma 2years prior presents with pain of her right breast. The breast is swollen, tender on palpation, and is diffusely indurated with a “peau d’orange” appearance. Multiple axillary lymph nodes are palpable in the lower axilla. A skin biopsy from her breast reveals extensive invasion of dermal lymphatics. What is the best diagnosis?
. Angiosarcoma
. Comedocarcinoma
Duct ectasia
Inflammatory carcinoma
Sclerosing adenosis
83) A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician's office for evaluation of a vulvar ulcer that she noticed two days ago. Initially she had a small painless papule that later became ulcerated. Upon further questioning she reluctantly admits to using sex to obtain drugs. She also reports using oral contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. On vulvar examination there is a 2-cm ulcer with a non-exudative base and a raised, indurated margin. Painless bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Syphilis
Chancroid
. Herpes genitalis
Granuloma inguinale
. Basal cell carcinoma
84) A 23-year-old woman who is 26 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with sudden onset severe shortness of breath and inability to lie flat. She recently emigrated from Eastern Europe. Her medical history is significant for recurrent sore throats requiring tonsillectomy as a child. Presently, her blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg and her heart rate is 120/min. An EKG rhythm strip suggests atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Constrictive pericarditis
Mitral stenosis
Myocardial infarction
Aortic insufficiency
85) A 47-year-old woman presents to your office with complaints of lower abdominal pain, nocturia, urinary urgency and frequency relieved with urination. She states the symptoms have been worsening this past month and she recently experienced dyspareunia. She is sexually active with her husband, but this is causing her a great amount of pain. She has four children and had uncomplicated pregnancies. She denies fevers or chills. On examination, she has diffuse lower abdominal pain with no rebound or guarding. Her external genitalia appear normal. On bimanual examination, palpation of the anterior vaginal wall elicits extreme pain. No cervical motion tenderness is present. No other abnormalities are noted. A urinalysis is negative. The most likely diagnosis is:
Urinary tract infection
. Stress incontinence
. Cystocele
Interstitial cystitis
. Pelvic inflammatory disease
86) A 22-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital for delivery. She has had regular and painful uterine contractions occurring every 3 minutes for the past 10 hours. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She had a normal vaginal delivery for her first pregnancy and required an episiotomy. A recent ultrasound at 37 weeks gestation showed a fetus in a cephalic presentation with an estimated fetal weight of 3,400 g (7.5 lb). Examination shows the cervix is soft, 50% effaced and 2 cm dilated. She is given epidural anesthesia per her request. Eight hours later, her cervix has not significantly changed, and uterine contractions are occurring every 5 minutes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her current condition?
Cephalopelvic disproportion
. Early anesthesia
Cervical dysfunction
Perineal scar
False labor
87) A 24-year-old gravida 2, para 1, African American woman at 12 weeks gestation comes for her first prenatal visit. Except for early morning mild headaches and nausea she has no other symptoms. Physical examination shows mild bilateral ankle edema. Blood pressure is measured twice 15 minutes apart and is 150/96 mmHg on both occasions. Blood is drawn for laboratory tests and the patient is sent home with a follow-up appointment 3 days later. She returns 3 days later and repeat blood pressure is the same. Laboratory studies show: Urinalysis: Protein: negative, Blood: negative, Glucose: trace, Ketones: negative, Leukocyte esterase: negative, Nitrites: negative, WBC: 1-2/hpf, RBC: 1-2/hpf. Chemistry panel: Serum sodium: 150 mEq/L, Serum potassium: 2.5 mEq/L, Chloride: 100 mEq/L, Bicarbonate: 23 mEq/L, Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 14 mg/dL, Serum creatinine: 0.8 mg/dL. Ultrasonogram reveals intrauterine gestation consistent with dates; no abnormalities noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Preeclampsia
. Chronic hypertension
. Molar pregnancy
Transient hypertension of pregnancy
Normal pregnancy
88) A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 30 weeks’ gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Earlier in the day she began to experience severe epigastric and later right upper quadrant pain. Until now her pregnancy has been uneventful and she has had regular prenatal care. Her past medical history and review of symptoms are unremarkable. On examination she is a pregnant woman in moderate distress, lying still on the hospital bed. Vital signs are: temperature 38.9 C (102.0 F), blood pressure 105/68 mm Hg, and pulse 108/min. Her abdomen is extremely tender to palpation in the right upper quadrant with guarding. There is no vaginal bleeding or discharge. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 36%, Leukocytes: 15,000/mm3 (88% neutrophils), Platelets: 158,000/mm3. Liver function tests, including transaminases, are normal. Prothrombin time is within normal limits. Urinalysis is unremarkable except for a few red blood cells on microscopy. X-ray is deferred out of concern for the fetus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
Acute fatty infiltration of the liver
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Luminal obstruction of the appendix from lymphoid hyperplasia or fecalith
Pregnancy outside the uterine endometrium
. Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta
89) A 29-year-old woman comes to your office because she has been feeling depressed. She states that at times over the past several years she has regular occurrences of depression, anxiety, tearfulness, anger, and difficulty with work and social relationships. These occurrences have been increasing over the past several months. She doesn’t remember when her symptoms start or end. “It’s all a blur,” she says. She has had several urinary tract infections in her life, but otherwise has no medical problems. She takes no medications and has no drug allergies. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in caring for this patient?
. Have her keep a symptom calendar
Schedule an MRI of the brain
Schedule a pelvic ultrasound
Start the patient on a benzodiazepine
. Start the patient on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
90) You examine a 28-year-old woman who is 2 days status post-cesarean delivery for a nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing in labor. Her prenatal course was complicated by her developing acute tuberculosis in the days immediately before her delivery. When you diagnosed her with tuberculosis, she decided to hold off on therapy until after the baby was born. She was also found to be Group B Streptococcus–positive on a 36-week vaginal culture. She has a past medical history significant for chronic hepatitis B. Her past surgical history is significant for a breast reduction 4 years ago. Postpartum she is doing well, with no complaints, normal vital signs, and a normal postpartum physical examination. She wants to know if she is able to breast feed her infant. Which of the following conditions precludes this patient from breastfeeding?
. Chronic hepatitis B
Group B Streptococcus colonization
Status-post breast reduction
Status-post cesarean delivery
. Untreated tuberculosis
91) A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 33 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has some fatigue but no other complaints. Her current pregnancy has been complicated by a Group B Streptococcus urine infection at 16 weeks. Her past obstetric history is significant for a primary, classic cesarean delivery 5 years ago for a non-reassuring fetal tracing. Two years ago, she had a repeat cesarean delivery. Past surgical history is significant for an appendectomy 10 years ago. Which of the following is the major contraindication to a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC) in this patient?
Classic uterine scar
Group B Streptococcus urine infection
. Previous appendectomy
. Prior cesarean delivery for non-reassuring fetal tracing
Two prior cesarean deliveries
92) A 59-year-old G4P4 presents to your office complaining of losing urine when she coughs, sneezes, or engages in certain types of strenuous physical activity. The problem has gotten increasingly worse over the past few years, to the point where the patient finds her activities of daily living compromised secondary to fear of embarrassment. She denies any other urinary symptoms such as urgency, frequency, or hematuria. In addition, she denies any problems with her bowel movements. Her prior surgeries include tonsillectomy and appendectomy. She has adult-onset diabetes and her blood sugars are well controlled with oral Metformin. The patient has no history of any gynecologic problems in the past. She has four children who were all delivered vaginally. Their weights ranged from 8 to 9 lb. Her last delivery was forceps assisted. She had a third-degree laceration with that birth. She is currently sexually active with her partner of 25 years. She has been menopausal for 4 years and has never taken any hormone replacement therapy. Her height is 5 ft 6 in, and she weighs 190 lb. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Based on the patient’s history, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Overflow incontinence
Stress incontinence
Urinary tract infection
Detrusor instability
Vesicovaginal fistula
93) A 49-year-old G4P4 presents to your office complaining of a 2-month history of leakage of urine every time she exercises. She has had to limit her physical activities because of the loss of urine. She has had burning with urination and some blood in her urine for the past few days. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation and management of this patient?
Physical examination
Placement of a pessary
Urinalysis with urine culture
Cystoscopy
Office cystometrics
94) An obese 46-year-old G6P1051 with type 1 diabetes since age 12 presents to your office complaining of urinary incontinence. She has been menopausal since age 44. Her diabetes has been poorly controlled for years because of her noncompliance with insulin therapy. She often cannot tell when her bladder is full, and she will urinate on herself without warning. Which of the following factors in this patient’s history has contributed the most to the development of her urinary incontinence?
Menopause
Obesity
Obstetric history
Age . Diabetic
. Diabetic status
95) A 76-year-old woman presents for evaluation of urinary incontinence. She had a hysterectomy for fibroid tumors of the uterus at age 48. After complete evaluation, you determine that the patient has genuine stress urinary incontinence. On physical examination, she has a hypermobile urethra, but there is no cystocele or rectocele. There is no vaginal vault prolapse. Office cystometrics confirms genuine stress urinary incontinence. Which of the following surgical procedures should you recommend to this patient?
Kelly plication
Anterior and posterior colporrhaphy
Burch procedure
Abdominal sacral colpopexy
. Le Fort colpocleisis
96) A patient presents to your office approximately 2 weeks after having a total vaginal hysterectomy with anterior colporrhaphy and Burch procedure for uterine prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. She complains of a constant loss of urine throughout the day. She denies any urgency or dysuria. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this complaint?
Failure of the procedure
Urinary tract infection
Vesicovaginal fistula
Detrusor instability
Diabetic neuropathy
97) A 90-year-old G5P5 with multiple medical problems is brought into your gynecology clinic accompanied by her granddaughter. The patient has hypertension, chronic anemia, coronary artery disease, and osteoporosis. She is mentally alert and oriented and lives in an assisted living facility. She takes numerous medications, but is very functional at the current time. She is a widow and not sexually active. Her chief complaint is a sensation of heaviness and pressure in the vagina. She denies any significant urinary or bowel problems. On performance of a physical examination, you note that the cervix is just inside the level of the introitus. Based on the physical examination, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Normal examination
First-degree uterine prolapse
Second-degree uterine prolapse
Third-degree uterine prolapse
. Complete procidentia
98) A 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of hot flashes. Her last menstrual period was 1 year ago. Over the past year, she has noted a persistence of her hot flashes, which come several times each day and are associated with a feeling of heat and flushing. They also awaken her at night and interfere with her sleep. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and has no known drug allergies. She has a family history of cardiovascular disease and she does not smoke. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is started on estrogen and medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). The addition of a progestin is most likely to decrease her risk of which of the following?
Breast cancer
Breast pain
Endometrial cancer
Mood changes
Weight gain
99) A previously healthy 21-year-old woman has a profuse, malodorous vaginal discharge. Examination shows a greenish gray "frothy" discharge with a "fishy" odor and petechial lesions on the cervix. There is no cervical motion tenderness. Her temperature is 37.5 C (99.4 F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 60/min, and respirations are 16/min. Microscopic evaluation of the discharge is most likely to show which of the following?
. "Clue cells"
. Gram-negative diplococci
Gram-positive diplococci
Motile, flagellated organisms
Pseudohyphae or hyphae
100) A 26-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the emergency department because of severe right lower quadrant pain. She states that the pain started last night. This morning she was awakened from sleep with severe pain in the same area. During the episode of pain, she also had nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. On admission to the emergency department she required 5 mg of morphine to control her pain. Examination is significant for right lower quadrant tenderness and a tender right adnexal mass on pelvic examination. Urine hCG is negative. Urinalysis is negative. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals an 8 cm right ovarian mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Appendicitis
Ectopic pregnancy
. Nephrolithiasis
Ovarian torsion
. Pelvic inflammatory disease
101) A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of abdominal pain. She states that the pain is in her right lower quadrant and has been getting worse over the past 3 months. She has no other symptoms and a normal appetite. Examination demonstrates mild right lower quadrant abdominal tenderness. Pelvic examination reveals mild right adnexal enlargement and tenderness. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. A pelvic ultrasound is obtained that shows a 4-centimeter, heterogeneous hyperechoic lesion in the right adnexa with cystic areas. On transvaginal ultrasound, hair and calcifications are demonstrated within the cystic areas. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Appendicitis
Benign cystic teratoma (dermoid)
Corpus luteum cyst
Ectopic pregnancy
Tubo-ovarian abscess
102) A 27-year-old has just had an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following events would be most likely to predispose to ectopic pregnancy?
Previous cervical conization
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Use of a contraceptive uterine device (IUD)
. Induction of ovulation
Exposure in utero to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
103) A healthy 42-year-old G2P1001 presents to labor and delivery at 30 weeks gestation complaining of a small amount of bright red blood per vagina which occurred shortly after intercourse. It started off as spotting and then progressed to a light bleeding. By the time the patient arrived at labor and delivery, the bleeding had completely resolved. The patient denies any regular uterine contractions, but admits to occasional abdominal cramping. She reports no pregnancy complications and a normal ultrasound done at 14 weeks of gestation. Her obstetrical history is significant for a previous low transverse cesarean section at term. Which of the following can be ruled out as a cause for her vaginal bleeding?
. Cervicitis
Preterm labor
. Placental abruption
. Placenta previa
Subserous pedunculated uterine fibroid
104) A 23-year-old G3P1011 at 6 weeks presents for routine prenatal care. She had a cesarean delivery 3 years ago for breech presentation after a failed external cephalic version. Her daughter is Rh-negative. She also had an elective termination of pregnancy 1 year ago. She is Rh-negative and is found to have a positive anti-D titer of 1:8 on routine prenatal labs. Failure to administer RhoGAM at which time is the most likely cause of her sensitization?
After elective termination
At the time of cesarean delivery
. At the time of external cephalic version
Within 3 days of delivering a Rh-negative fetus
At 28 weeks in the pregnancy for which she had a cesarean delivery
105) A 39-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestational age is sent to labor and delivery from her obstetrician’s office because of a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg obtained during a routine OB visit. Her baseline blood pressures during the pregnancy were 100 to 120/60 to 70. On arrival to labor and delivery, the patient denies any headache, visual changes, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. The heart rate strip is reactive and the tocodynamometer indicates irregular uterine contractions. The patient’s cervix is 3 cm dilated. Her repeat blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. Hematocrit is 34.0, platelets are 160,000, SGOT is 22, SGPT is 15, and urinalysis is negative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Preeclampsia
. Chronic hypertension
. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia
Eclampsia
. Gestational hypertension
106) A 21-year-old woman presents to the clinic in tears. She states that she recently found out she was pregnant at 10 weeks’ gestation. She is a recovering alcoholic but recently relapsed, consuming several drinks a day. She is nervous about the effects of her drinking on her fetus. For which of the following is the patient at greatest risk?
Eclampsia
Hypoplastic lung
Macrosomia
Microcephaly
Polyhydramnios
107) A 24-year-old G2P2 woman presents to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping. She is sexually active in a monogamous relationship with her husband. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. The patient is afebrile, and vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination is notable for a dilated cervix, fetal tissue in the vaginal vault, and no cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s abortion?
Acute maternal infection
Chromosomal abnormality
Maternal exposure to environmental chemicals
Maternal smoking
Trauma
108) A 31-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus who is 4 weeks pregnant presents to her obstetrician for her first prenatal visit. She is very concerned that the lupus will affect her baby. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 5 years ago and her symptoms have been well controlled with low-dose prednisone. She has baseline renal insufficiency, with a creatinine level of 1.3 mg/dL that has been stable for the past 6 months. This is her first pregnancy. For which of the following is the baby at increased risk?
Acute renal failure
Chorioretinitis
Complete heart block
Ebstein’s anomaly
Rash
109) A 30-year-old G0 woman with a past medical history of dysmenorrhea presents to an infertility clinic with her husband for a follow-up visit. The couple has been trying to get pregnant for the past 3 years with no success. Their infertility work-up thus far has included a semen analysis, hysterosalpingogram, and estrogen, progesterone, and follicle-stimulating hormone blood levels, all of which were normal. Currently the woman feels well; her only complaint is frustration regarding her inability to conceive. A pelvic ultrasound done last week demonstrated a 3-cm well-circumscribed mass on the patient’s left ovary. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. The ovarian mass most likely represents which of the following?
Corpus luteum cyst
Ectopic pregnancy
Endometrioma
Leiomyoma
Tubo-ovarian abscess
110) At 38 weeks’ gestation, a 4030-g (8.9-lb) boy is delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery. During the first minute of life he is limp, cyanotic, lacks respiratory effort, has a heart rate of 95/min, flexes his extremities, and grimaces to nasal suctioning. By 5 minutes, he continues to grimace to nasal suctioning, has a weak cry, is well perfused with a heart rate of 160/min, and is kicking both legs. Based on his Apgar scores, when will the child need to be resuscitated?
Indicated at 1 and 5 minutes
Indicated at 1 minute and not at 5 minutes
Indicated at 5 minutes and not at 1 minute
Not enough information to determine
Not indicated at 1 or 5 minutes
111) A 23-year-old G1P0 woman at 28 weeks’ gestation presents to her obstetrician for a prenatal examination. She has received poor prenatal care up to this point, but is confident about dating the pregnancy. She denies use of alcohol and illicit drugs but has continued to smoke during the pregnancy. The mother has gained only 9 kg (20 lb) during the course of the pregnancy. The mother’s temperature is 36.8C (98.2F), pulse is 94/min, blood pressure is 138/84 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 12/min. The fundal height is 23 cm above the pubic symphysis. Further examination with ultrasound reveals the fetus is <10% of the expected weight for the gestational age with symmetric growth anomalies. What is the most likely cause for the intrauterine growth restriction of this fetus?
In utero infection
Inadequate maternal weight gain during pregnancy
Maternal hypertension
Maternal smoking
Singleton pregnancy
112) A 22-year-old obese woman presents to the obstetrics-gynecology clinic complaining of mild abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The patient states that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and uses condoms “basically all the time.” She states that her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and insists that her periods have always been irregular, occurring every 3 to 4 months. She denies any past medical history but states that she used to have a problem with excess facial hair prior to starting low-dose oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is the best next step in diagnosis?
Endometrial biopsy
Measure prothrombin time/partial thromboplastin time
Measure thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Measure urine β-human chorionic gonadotropin levelMeasure urine β-human chorionic gonadotropin level
Progesterone challenge
113) A full-term 2200-g (4.9-lb) boy was born to a 30-year-old G4P3 woman whose pregnancy was complicated by a seizure disorder for which she inconsistently took carbamazepine. The pregnancy was also notable for an abnormal triple screen for which an amniocentesis was declined. His Apgar scores are 7 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. His temperature is 37.0C (98.6F), blood pressure is 65/45 mm Hg, heart rate is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 30/min. His head circumference is <5th percentile. There is a small fleshy sac protruding from the sacral spine. His reflexes are 2+ throughout, and his strength is 5/5 in all extremities. His fingernails are very small. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Anoxia due to maternal seizing
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Perinatal exposure to carbamazepine
Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
114) A 28-year-old woman and her husband present to her obstetrician. They have been married for 7 years and have been trying to become pregnant for the past 2 years. Prior to this the woman used an intrauterine device for contraception, which she had in place for 5 years. Both are healthy without any medical problems, and both deny a history of sexually transmitted diseases. The woman states that her menstrual cycles have always been regular (every 28 days, lasting for 5 days) since she was 14 years old. She also denies menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this couple’s infertility?
Endometriosis
Low sperm concentration
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Premature ovarian failure
Prior placement of an intrauterine device
115) A 28-year-old teacher presents to the clinic complaining of 5 months of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Additionally, her menses, which have always been irregular, have stopped altogether. She is concerned because both her mother and maternal aunt suffer from noninsulin-dependent diabetes, and they told her they had similar symptoms before they were diagnosed. Upon questioning she reveals that she is in a committed relationship and has no desire to have children, so she uses barrier protection during intercourse. Physical examination reveals an obese woman with hirsutism currently in no acute distress. Testing for β-human chorionic gonadotropin level, random blood sugar level, cholesterol panel, and a luteinizing hormone/follicle-stimulating hormone ratio suggests the patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Although no one in her family has had cancer, she is concerned that her symptoms are a harbinger of cancer or that she might be likely to suffer from cancer in the future. This diagnosis would most raise her risk for which kind of cancer?
Cervical cancer
Cervical cancer
Endometrial cancer
Lung cancer
Ovarian cancer
116) A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling of her hands and feet. Her previous prenatal check-up was normal. Blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg, and five minutes later following lateral rest her blood pressure is 140/95 mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema of the legs and a macular eruption on the cheekbones. Optic fundi show no abnormalities. Laboratory studies are as follows: Urinalysis: 4+ protein, RBC casts, Urine protein: 8 g/24hr, Uric acid: 5 mg/dl, BUN: 28 mg/dl, Serum creatinine: 2.1 mg/dl, Serum electrolytes, liver function tests and coagulation studies are within normal limits. A serum antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is positive in high titers. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Pregnancy induced hypertension
. Chronic hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia
Glomerulonephritis
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
HELLP syndrome
117) A 23-year-old woman complains of breast pain two days after delivering her first child. The delivery was complicated by mild postpartum bleeding. On exam, both breasts are tense, warm, and tender to touch. Her blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, heart rate is 100/min, and temperature is 99.4 F (37.4 C). What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Mastitis
Breast abscess
Breast engorgement
Plugged ducts
. Superficial vein thrombosis
118) A 32-year-old woman comes to your office for re-evaluation of her birth control method. She wants her intrauterine device (IUD) removed because it is causing her pelvic pain. She wants to be placed on oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). She has had hypertension for the past five years controlled with hydrochlorothiazide and atenolol. She has a family history of diabetes mellitus and ovarian carcinoma. Her body mass index (BMI) is 34 kg/m2. Physical examination is unremarkable. If she starts taking oral contraceptive pills, which of the following statement is most correct?
She is at risk of endometrial cancer
Her hypertension may worsen
She will develop benign breast disease
. She will become diabetic
She is at risk of ovarian cancer
119) A 28-year-old G1A1 woman presents to a gynecology clinic with a chief complaint of reduced menstrual flow for the past 6 months, especially last month. She denies any pain with menstruation or irregularity in her cycle. She says that she had an elective termination by dilation and curettage approximately 9 months ago. She is sexually active with one partner and always uses condoms. Review of her records indicates a past history of abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smears, but she has not been followed recently. She denies any history of irregular menses, and says that age of menarche was 13 years. She takes no medications. Physical examination reveals a normally developed 68-kg (150lb) woman who is 183 cm (6') tall. She is in no acute distress. A β-human chorionic gonadotropin test from her original visit 1 week ago is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Asherman’s syndrome
Cervical stenosis
Endometrial cancer
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Kallmann’s syndrome
120) An 18-year-old female college student presents to student health services with a complaint of a burning sensation while urinating and abdominal pain. She denies urinary urgency or increased frequency. She has no significant past medical history. She is currently sexually active with a new partner. She does not use barrier contraception. She denies any previous history of sexually transmitted diseases. On examination she is afebrile, heart rate is 70/min, and blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg. Examination reveals no peritoneal signs but there is tenderness to palpation over the suprapubic region. On pelvic examination the cervix appears edematous and friable with a small amount of discharge from the os. A urine sample reveals numerous WBCs but no organisms on Gram stain. A cervical swab is sent for Gram stain and culture. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Infection with Chlamydia trachomatis
Infection with Escherichia coli
Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Nfection with Proteus mirabilis
Interstitial cystitis
121) A 13-year-old girl had growth of breast buds at 11 years, followed by the appearance of pubic hair between the ages of 11.5 and 12 years. Which pubertal event is most likely to occur next?
Eginning of accelerated growth
Menarche
Tanner stage 5 breast development
Maximal growth rate
Tanner stage 5 pubic hair
122) A 17-year-old G1P1001 is now 5 weeks postpartum after a routine vaginal delivery. She calls your office to report a 3-week history of difficulty sleeping and “feeling blue.” On further questioning, she reports difficulty concentrating, very poor appetite, occasional wishes that she had never become pregnant, and feelings of guilt about those wishes. She has not left her home in more than a week because she “just can’t find the energy to go anywhere.” This patient’s symptoms are most consistent with:
Postpartum blues
Normal adolescent adjustment to motherhood
Postpartum depression
Hypothyroidism
Postpartum psychosis
123) A 48-year-old woman with five children complains of urinary incontinence with coughing and stair climbing. She likely has genuine stress urinary incontinence if which of the following is true?
Oss of urine is secondary to involuntary bladder contractions.
Loss of urine is associated with a strong desire to void immediately.
Loss of urine occurs in relation to anxiety or depression.
Loss of urine occurs when intravesical pressure exceeds maximal urethral pressure.
Loss of urine is due to increased intravesical pressure associated with bladder distention.
124) An 18-year-old nullipara has suddenly stopped menstruating. She recently lost 8.6 kg when she started long-distance running. The laboratory test most consistent with her cause of secondary amenorrhea is which of the following?
A serum prolactin level of 86 ng/mL (normal <20)
A serum LH level of 48 mIU/mL (normal 6–35)
A serum estradiol level of 128 pg/mL (normal 40–300)
A serum FSH level of 3 mIU/mL (normal 5–18)
A serum testosterone level of 156 ng/dL (normal 40–110)
125) On the first pelvic examination of an 18-yearold nulligravida, a soft, fluctuant mass is found in the superior aspect of the right labia majora. This is asymptomatic. She tells you it has been present for several years and seems to be enlarging slightly. There is no defect in the inguinal ring. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Vulvar varicosities
Inguinal hernia
Femoral hernia
Cyst of the canal of Nuck
Granuloma inguinale
126) Your patient has just had twins and wonders if there is any way to determine whether the twins are identical. You correctly tell her which of the following?
Close examination of the placenta can often provide this answer
Here is no way to tell unless one is a girl and one a boy
Only matching of human lymphocyte antigens could determine this with certainty
Identical twins occur only once in about 80 births of twins
It is unlikely because the birth weights differed by more than 200 g
127) A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of vaginal itch and discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. These symptoms have been steadily worsening over the past 3 days. Pelvic examination reveals an erythematous vagina and a thin, green, frothy vaginal discharge with a pH of 6. Microscopic examination of the discharge demonstrates the presence of a pear-shaped, motile organism. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
Candida albicans
Gardnerella vaginalis
Herpes simplex virus
Treponema pallidum
Trichomonas vaginalis
128) A 22-year-old professional tennis player presents to your office with a 5-month history of amenorrhea. She describes an intense schedule of regular exercise, and says that she eats a balanced diet but avoids fatty foods. She does not smoke or consume alcohol. Her mother suffers from long-standing hypertension. The patient's BMI is 22.5 kg/mm2. Pregnancy test is negative. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
. Decreased thyroid function
Decreased bone mineral density
. Atypical endometrial hyperplasia
. Poor glucose tolerance
Cholesterol precipitation in the gallbladder
129) A 24-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby by vaginal delivery at 36 weeks gestation. She had a prolonged premature rupture of the membranes, and mid forceps application was required during delivery. On the second postpartum day she complained of fever and chills. She cannot breast-feed because her "nipples are tender''. Her temperature is 38.5 C (101.3 F), blood pressure is 120/55 mmHg and pulse is 92/min. Bimanual examination shows tender uterus and foul-smelling lochia. Her nipples are cracked but without surrounding erythema or warmth. Physical examination otherwise shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Normal postpartum
Puerperal mastitis
. Endometritis
Deep venous thrombosis
Aspiration pneumonia
130) A seven-year-old girl is brought to the physician's office because of a sudden onset of growth spurt, pubic hair development, and breast enlargement. Her family history is not significant. She has no other medical problems. On examination, there is no hirsutism or acne. Her weight is 70th percentile and her height is 98th percentile. Examination showed a pelvic mass. Pelvic ultrasonogram showed a right ovarian mass. Initial evaluation showed elevated estrogen levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Dysgerminoma
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
Granulosa cell tumor
Mature teratoma
. Serous cystadenoma
131) A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, comes to the physician for a prenatal checkup. According to her last menstrual period and an ultrasonography performed at 16 weeks gestation, she is at 30 weeks gestation. She missed two antenatal appointments. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Examination shows a fundal height of 26 cm (9.8 in). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Repeat ultrasound shows a fetal biparietal diameter consistent with 30 weeks and an abdominal circumference below the 10th percentile. Which of the following could most likely be responsible for the observed fetal findings?
. Chromosomal abnormalities
Intrauterine infection
. Hypertension
. Fetal anomalies
. Inaccurate dates
132) A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of diffuse headache, right upper quadrant pain and visual disturbances. During her last visit two weeks ago she was found to have an elevated blood pressure and 1+ proteinuria. She was advised to follow-up closely and sent home on bed rest. Her blood pressure today is 176/120 mm Hg and pulse is 86/min. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema in both legs and right upper quadrant tenderness. Fetal heart tones are audible by Doppler. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is 88 U/L and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is 80 U/L. Serum creatinine now is 1.4 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her right upper quadrant pain?
. Common bile duct obstruction
Cystic duct obstruction
Peptic ulcer disease
Rupture of hepatic adenoma
. Distention of liver capsule
133) A 26-year-old woman presents to her physician because of pain in her breast. She gave birth 3 months ago and is breast-feeding. Soon after she began lactating she developed cracks in the nipples, and for the past 5 days her left breast has become progressively more tender. On physical examination, her affected breast is red, hot, swollen, and painful to palpation. Her temperature is 38.3 C (101 F), and her white cell count is 13,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Breast abscess
Breast cancer
Intraductal papilloma
Mastalgia
Traumatic hematoma
34) A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital for labor pains. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests, and fetal growth have been normal. Ultrasound at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. In her second pregnancy, she underwent a cesarean section. The woman is admitted to the delivery room and fetal heart and uterine contraction monitoring is started. Her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 26/min. Pelvic examination shows that the cervix is 60% effaced and 6 cm dilated. Uterine contractions are regular and occur every 4 minutes. Fetal heart tracing shows no abnormalities. The patient suddenly complains of intense lower abdominal pain. She is restless and vaginal bleeding is noted. Fetal heart monitoring shows repetitive variable decelerations, and the fetus has shifted from 0 to -2 station. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Placental abruption
. Vasa previa
Uterine rupture
Endometritis
Normal delivery
135) A 16-year-old female presents to the ER complaining of left lower quadrant abdominal pain that started suddenly 24 hours ago. The pain does not radiate and is 5/10 in severity. She denies having fevers, vomiting, dysuria, diarrhea or vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She takes no medications. On physical examination, her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 14/min. There is mild left lower quadrant tenderness without rebound or rigidity, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Ectopic pregnancy
. Leiomyoma
Midcycle pain
. Ovarian torsion
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
136) A 53-year-old obese, menopausal woman comes to the physician for a routine annual examination. Her last menstrual period was one year ago. Upon further questioning, she says that she sometimes experiences hot flashes of mild intensity. She is sexually active and denies vaginal dryness or dyspareunia. Her medical problems include mild hypertension managed with hydrochlorothiazide and a salt-reduced diet. Her obstetrical history is significant for an elective termination of pregnancy at 35 years of age because of an abnormal maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following is a possible cause of the comparatively milder nature of the symptoms the patient is having compared to many other menopausal women with more severe symptoms?
Peripheral adipose tissue production of estrogens
Compensatory adrenal production of estrogens
Conversion of adrenal androgens to estrogens by adipose tissue
Conversion of adrenal androgens to estrogens by the liver
Ncreased levels of FSH
137) A 39-year-old G5P5 woman delivered a 4.1-kg (9-lb) healthy male infant 20 minutes ago. She is now experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, with the passage of large blood clots. She had an uncomplicated pregnancy, with a 15.9-kg (35-lb) weight gain. The patient had spontaneous onset of labor and spontaneous rupture of the membranes at 5 cm dilation. Labor lasted 3 hours, including 10 minutes of pushing. She did not have an episiotomy. The placenta delivered spontaneously 5 minutes after the infant, was normal in appearance, and was intact with a 3-vessel cord. The patient's previous 4 pregnancies and deliveries were normal. Her blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 20/min. The uterine fundus is soft and at the level of the umbilicus. The patient's peri-pad is saturated with blood, and there are clots extruding from the vagina. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Cervical/vaginal laceration
Clotting disorder
Inverted uterus
Retained placental tissue
Uterine atony
138) A 28-year-old woman is admitted for delivery. She began experiencing regular, painful uterine contractions three hours ago and her water broke en route to the hospital. The cervix is 5 cm dilated and 80% effaced. The fetal presentation is vertex and the baby's head is at -1 station. After placing a fetal heart monitor and external tocometer, repetitive decreases in fetal heart rate are noted which begin at the same time as the contractions and end before the contractions have ceased. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the fetal heart pattern?
Periods of fetal sleep
Umbilical cord compression
Fetal head compression
Fetal head compression
Ntrauterine infection
139) A 37-year-old woman presents for evaluation of infertility. She and her 39-year-old husband have not been able to conceive after 9 months of unprotected and frequent intercourse. She had one pregnancy with her husband when she was 31. She has 28-day regular menstrual cycles and enjoys frequent sexual intercourse. She has no other complaints. She denies any previous history of sexually transmitted diseases or abdominal surgery. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has been working as an aerobic teacher and teaches two 30 minute classes every day. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and her pulse is 84/min. Her BMI is 23 Kg/m2. Complete physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is most likely cause of her condition?
Intense exercise
Hypothyroidism
Premature ovarian failure
Adrenal hyperplasia
Oocyte aging
140) A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1, is in active labor. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is being used for pain control. She is having contractions every two to three minutes. The cervix is 4cm dilated. Fetal heart rate is reassuring. Her blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg and heart rate is 120/min. What is the most probable cause of her hypotension?
Depressed myocardial contractility
Intravascular fluid loss
Blood venous pooling
Blood redistribution to the upper trunk
CNS involvement
141) A 23-year-old woman complains of breast pain two days after delivering her first child. The delivery was complicated by mild postpartum bleeding. On exam, both breasts are tense, warm, and tender to touch. Her blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, heart rate is 100/min, and temperature is 994 0F (37,4 0C). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Mastitis
Breast abscess
Breast engorgement
Plugged ducts
Uperficial vein thrombosis
142) An 18-year-old woman arrives in your clinic with primary amenorrhea, sexual infantilism, and clitoromegaly. She has a history of ambiguous external genitalia noted at birth. Reviewing her records, you see that laparotomy performed at 17 months of age revealed normal internal female genitalia and ovarian biopsy performed at that time revealed normal-appearing primordial follicles. Laboratory studies today reveal a normal female karyotype and high serum testosterone and androstenedione concentrations. Estradiol and estrone are undetectable in the serum. Serum FSH and LH concentrations are high. Pelvic imaging shows multiple ovarian cysts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Aromatase deficiency
McCune-Albright syndrome
Kallmann's syndrome
Galactosemia
143) A 26-year-old G0P0 comes to your office with a chief complaint of being too hairy. She reports that her menses started at age 13 and have always been very irregular. She has menses every 2 to 6 months. She also complains of acne and is currently seeing a dermatologist for the skin condition. She denies any medical problems. Her only surgery was an appendectomy at age 8. Her height is 5ft 5 in., her weight is 180 lb, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. On physical examination, there is sparse hair around the nipples, chin, and upper lip. No galactorrhea, thyromegaly, or temporal balding is noted. Pelvic examination is normal and there is no evidence of clitoromegaly. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s problem?
Idiopathic hirsutism
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Late-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor of the ovary
Adrenal tumor
144) A 29-year-old woman comes to the office for a periodic health maintenance examination. She has no complaints. Her past medical history is significant for irritable bowel syndrome. She has never had any surgery. She has been taking the oral contraceptive pill for the past 12 years, ever since she became sexually active. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination, including pelvic examination, is unremarkable. By taking the oral contraceptive pill, this patient is decreasing her risk most significantly for which of the following?
Breast cancer
Cerebrovascular disease
Cervical cancer
Liver cancer
Ovarian cancer
145) A 36-year-old woman comes to your office because of back pain. She states that the pain started around the time of her cesarean delivery 8 weeks ago. The pain is located in the lower back and does not radiate. It improves with rest and worsens with prolonged standing. She cannot stand for more than 30 minutes without what she describes as debilitating pain. She has no significant past medical history. She had a cesarean delivery 8 weeks ago for arrest of dilation during labor. She had epidural anesthesia for labor and surgery. Otherwise she has never had surgery. She takes ibuprofen for the pain. She is allergic to sulfa drugs. Physical examination is within normal limits, including a normal neurologic examination. The patient is most interested in knowing what caused her to start having this back pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Epidurals have not been shown to be associated with back pain.”
Your back pain is most likely caused by breastfeeding.”
Your back pain was likely caused by the arrest of dilation.”
Your back pain was likely caused by the cesarean delivery.”
Your back pain is normal in the postpartum period.”
146) A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that her last menstrual period was at age 50 and that she has had no bleeding since. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She is not sexually active. Examination is unremarkable, including a normal pelvic examination. After informed consent is obtained, an endometrial biopsy is performed. The patient complains of discomfort during and after the procedure but feels well enough to go home. Later that night, with her abdominal pain worsening, the patient comes to the emergency department. An ultrasound is performed that shows a normal uterus and adnexae but a complex fluid collection posterior to the uterus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Bowel perforation
Endometritis
Endometrial cancer
Tubo-ovarian abscess
Uterine perforation
147) A 23-year-old female comes to the physician because of a swelling in her vagina. She states that the swelling started about 3 days ago and has been growing larger since. The swelling is not painful, but it is uncomfortable when she jogs. She has asthma for which she uses an albuterol inhaler, but no other medical problems. Examination shows a cystic mass 4 cm in diameter near the hymen by the patient's left labia minora. The mass is nontender and there is no associated erythema. The mass is freely mobile. The rest of the pelvic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Bartholin's cyst
Condyloma lata
Granuloma inguinale
Hematocolpos
Vulvar cancer
148) A 32-year-old morbidly obese diabetic woman presents to your office complaining of prolonged vaginal bleeding. She has never been pregnant. Her periods were regular, monthly, and light until 2 years ago. At that time, she started having periods every 3 to 6 months. Her last normal period was 5 months ago. She started having vaginal bleeding again 3 weeks ago, light at first. For the past week she has been bleeding heavily and passing large clots. On pelvic examination, the external genitalia is normal. The vagina is filled with large clots. A large clot is seen protruding through the cervix. The uterus is in the upper limit of normal size. The ovaries are normal to palpation. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Uterine fibroids
Cervical polyp
Incomplete abortion
Chronic anovulation
Coagulation defect
149) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2 is 4days status post cesarean section and develops a temperature to 100.7 F (38.2 C). She had her cesarean section when she went into unstoppable preterm labor with a breech fetus. She had an uncomplicated postoperative course until this temperature elevation. Her pulse is 100/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and respirations are 16/min. There is discoloration and cyanosis around the incision. The area around the incision is completely numb. There is no uterine tenderness on bimanual exam. Which of the following is of the most concern in this patient?
Endometritis
Mastitis
Necrotizing fasciitis
Preeclampsia
Wound infection
150) A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician to have her staples removed after an elective repeat cesarean delivery. Her pregnancy course was uncomplicated. She states that she is doing well except that since the delivery she has noticed some episodes of sadness and tearfulness. She is eating and sleeping normally and has no strange thoughts or thoughts of hurting herself or others. Physical examination is within normal limits for a patient who is status post cesarean delivery. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Maternity blues
Postpartum depression
Postpartum mania
Postpartum psychosis
Poststerilization depression
151) A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. The prenatal course was significant for a positive group B Streptococcus culture performed at 35 weeks. Antenatal testing over the past 2 weeks has been unremarkable. The patient is started on lactated Ringer's IV solution. Sterile vaginal examination shows that the patient's cervix is long, thick, and closed. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed into the vagina, and electronic fetal heart rate monitoring is continued. In approximately 60 minutes, the fetal heart rate falls to the 90s, as the tocodynamometer shows the uterus to be contracting every 1 minute with essentially no rest in between contractions. Which of the following was most likely the cause of the uterine hyperstimulation?
Infection
IV fluids
Postdates pregnancy
Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel
Vaginal examination
152) A 16-year-old female comes to the physician because of an increased vaginal discharge. She developed this symptom 2 days ago. She also complains of dysuria. She is sexually active with one partner and uses condoms intermittently. Examination reveals some erythema of the cervix but is otherwise unremarkable. A urine culture is sent which comes back negative. Sexually transmitted disease testing is performed and the patient is found to have gonorrhea. While treating this patient's gonorrhea infection, treatment must also be given for which of the following?
Bacterial vaginosis
Chlamydia
Herpes
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis
153) A 12-year-old female comes to the physician because of a vaginal discharge. The discharge started about 2 months ago and is whitish in color. There is no odor. The patient has no complaints of itching, burning, or pain. The patient started breast development at 9 years of age and her pubertal development has proceeded normally to this point. She has not had her first menses and she is not sexually active. She has no medical problems. Examination is normal for a 12-year-old female. Microscopic examination of the discharge shows no evidence of pseudohyphae, clue cells, or trichomonads. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Bacterial vaginosis
Candida vulvovaginitis
Physiologic leukorrhea
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis
154) A 50-year-old woman complains of leakage of urine. After genuine stress urinary incontinence, which of the following is the most common cause of urinary leakage?
Detrusor dyssynergia
Unstable bladder
Unstable urethra
Urethral diverticulum
Overflow incontinence
155) A 65-year-old woman complains of leakage of urine. Which of the following is the most common cause of this condition in such patients?
Anatomic stress urinary incontinence
Urethral diverticulum
Overflow incontinence
Unstable bladder
Fistula
156) A healthy 59-year-old woman with no history of urinary incontinence undergoes vaginal hysterectomy and anteroposterior repair for uterine prolapse, large cystocele, and rectocele. Two weeks postoperatively, she presents to your office with a new complaint of intermittent leakage of urine. What is the most likely cause of this complaint following her surgery?
Detrusor instability
Detrusor instability
Rectovaginal fistula
. Stress urinary incontinence
Vesicovaginal fistula
157) A postmenopausal woman is undergoing evaluation for fecal incontinence. She has no other diagnosed medical problems. She lives by herself and is self-sufficient, oriented, and an excellent historian. Physical examination is completely normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
Rectal prolapse
Diabetes
Obstetric trauma
Senility
. Excessive caffeine intake
158) A 30-year-old G3P3 is being evaluated for urinary urgency, urinary frequency, and dysuria. She also complains of pain with insertion when attempting intercourse. She frequently dribbles a few drops of urine after she finishes voiding. She has had three full-term spontaneous vaginal deliveries. Her last baby weighed more than 9 lb. She had multiple sutures placed in the vaginal area after delivery of that child. She also has a history of multiple urinary tract infections since she was a teenager. On pelvic examination, she has a 1-cm tender suburethral mass. With palpation of the mass, a small amount of blood-tinged pus is expressed from the urethra. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s problem?
Urethral polyp
Urethral fistula
Urethral stricture
Urethral eversion
Urethral diverticulum
159) A 22-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with a gush of fluid. Sterile speculum examination reveals a pool of fluid that is nitrazine positive and forms ferns when viewed under the microscope. The fetal heart rate is in the 150s and reactive. An ultrasound demonstrates that the fetus is in the breech position. A cesarean delivery is performed. During the operation, the physician, who has received no recent immunizations, is stuck with a needle that had been used on the patient. Which of the following is this physician at greatest risk of contracting?
HIV
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Scabies
Syphilis
160) A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pain with urination and frequent urination. She has hypertension for which she takes a beta-blocker, but no other medical problems. She states that she is not sexually active. She does not smoke and drinks cranberry juice daily. Examination shows mild suprapubic tenderness and genital atrophy but is otherwise unremarkable. Urinalysis shows 50 to 100 leukocytes/high powered field (hpf) and 5 to 10 erythrocytes/hpf. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the infection?
Cardiac disease
Cranberry juice ingestion
Hypoestrogenism
Nephrolithiasis
Sexual intercourse
161) A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 30-weeks gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. The patient's due date was determined by a 7-week ultrasound. Her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no complaints of contractions, loss of fluid, or bleeding from the vagina, and her baby is moving well. Examination demonstrates a fetal heart rate of 150 and a fundal height of 27 centimeters, which is the same measurement as that determined 4 weeks ago. This patient's fundal height measurement is most suggestive of which of the following?
Inaccurate estimated date of delivery (due date)
Intrauterine growth restriction
Premature labo
Twin gestation
Uterine cancer
162) A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period. She experienced normal breast development through puberty but has yet to have a period. She has no other complaints. She has no medical problems. Examination shows the patient to be tall with long arms and big hands. The breasts are normal-appearing except that the nipples are immature and the areolae are pale. Pelvic examination shows scant pubic hair with a blind-ended vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Asherman syndrome
Kallmann syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Testicular feminization syndrome
Turner syndrome
163) A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of concerns regarding menopause. She has a period almost every month, but her cycle is lengthening. She is worried because her mother, her two older sisters, and practically all her aunts have osteoporosis. She does not want to be on estrogen because she is concerned about cancer and thrombosis. Physical examination is within normal limits. The patient is started on raloxifene. On this medication, which of the following is this patient most likely to develop?
. Breast cancer
Elevated cholesterol
. Endometrial hyperplasia
Hot flashes
Osteoporosis
164) A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician for an initial prenatal visit. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and a home urine pregnancy test was positive. She has had no bleeding or abdominal pain. She does complain of increased fatigue lately and some mild nausea and vomiting. Examination is significant for both a systolic and a diastolic cardiac murmur. The uterus is 8 weeks' sized and nontender. Which of the following findings is most suggestive of structural heart disease in this woman?
. Diastolic murmur
. Enlarged uterus
. Fatigue
Nausea and vomiting
Systolic murmur
165) A 75-year-old woman comes to the physician because of abdominal distension. She states that she always feels bloated and that she gets full quickly when eating. She has hypertension, for which she takes an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, and no other medical problems. Examination shows abdominal distension and a positive fluid wave. Pelvic examination reveals a large, nontender right adnexal mass. Abdominal CT scan demonstrates masses on both ovaries, ascites, and omental caking. CA-125 level is significantly elevated. Serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Choriocarcinoma
. Cystic teratoma (dermoid)
. Embryonal carcinoma
. Epithelial ovarian cancer
. Sertoli stromal cell tumor
166) A 20-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist complaining of several days of vaginal itching and increased vaginal secretions that have an unpleasant odor. She denies any recent fever, back pain, hematuria, or vaginal bleeding. She has been sexually active with multiple sexual partners and rarely uses protection. On examination she has a moderate amount of frothy green discharge. Amine “whiff” test of the discharge is negative, and the pH of the discharge is 6. Multiflagellated organisms are seen on microscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Bacterial vaginosis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis
Vaginal candidiasis
167) A 20-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling in her hands and ankles. She has no headache, visual disturbances or epigastric pain. She has no previous medical problems. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her previous prenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation was normal. Her medical records show no preexisting hypertension or proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 156/100 mmHg, and after 15 minutes of lateral rest, a repeat reading is 154/98 mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema in both legs and hands. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. Fetal heart tones are audible by Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 13.0 g/dl, Hct: 50%, Platelets: 300,000/mm3, Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl. 24-hours urine protein excretion is 1gm, which is new. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Mild preeclampsia
. Severe preeclampsi
. Chronic hypertension
Transient hypertension of pregnancy
. Eclampsia
168) A 29-year-old G3P2 black woman in the thirty-third week of gestation is admitted to the emergency room because of acute abdominal pain that has been increasing during the past 24 hours. The pain is severe and is radiating from the epigastrium to the back. The patient has vomited a few times and has not eaten or had a bowel movement since the pain started. On examination, you observe an acutely ill patient lying on the bed with her knees drawn up. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 110 beats per minute, and her temperature is 38.8C (101.8F). On palpation, the abdomen is somewhat distended and tender, mainly in the epigastric area, and the uterine fundus reaches 31 cm above the symphysis. Hypotonic bowel sounds are noted. Fetal monitoring reveals a normal pattern of fetal heart rate (FHR) without uterine contractions. On ultrasonography, the fetus is in vertex presentation and appropriate in size for gestational age; fetal breathing and trunk movements are noted, and the volume of amniotic fluid is normal. The placenta is located on the anterior uterine wall and no previa is seen. Laboratory values show mild leukocytosis (12,000 cells per mL); a hematocrit of 43; mildly elevated serum glutamicoxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT), serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase (SGPT), and bilirubin; and serum amylase of 180 U/dL. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute degeneration of uterine leiomyoma
Acute cholecystitis
. Acute pancreatitis
Acute appendicitis
Severe preeclamptic toxemia
169) A 38-year-old G1P0 presents to the obstetrician’s office at 37 weeks gestational age complaining of a rash on her abdomen that is becoming increasingly pruritic. The rash started on her abdomen, and the patient notes that it is starting to spread downward to her thighs. The patient reports no previous history of any skin disorders or problems. She denies any malaise or fever. On physical examination, she is afebrile and her physician notes that her abdomen, and most notably her stretch marks, is covered with red papules and plaques. No excoriations or bullae are present. The patient’s face, arms, and legs are unaffected by the rash. Which of the following is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Herpes gestationis
Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy
. Prurigo gravidarum
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
. Impetigo herpetiformis
170) A 28-year-old G1 presents to your office at 8 weeks gestation. She has a history of diabetes since the age of 14. She uses insulin and denies any complications related to her diabetes. Which of the following is the most common birth defect associated with diabetes?
. Anencephaly
. Encephalocele
Meningomyelocele
. Sacral agenesis
. Ventricular septal defect
171) A 32-year-old G1 at 10 weeks gestation presents for her routine OB visit. She is worried about her pregnancy because she has a history of insulin-requiring diabetes since the age of 18. Prior to becoming pregnant, her endocrinologist diagnosed her with microalbuminuria. She has had photo laser ablation of retinopathy in the past. Which diabetic complication is most likely to be worsened by pregnancy?
. Benign retinopathy
. Gastroparesis
. Nephropathy
Neuropathy
Proliferative retinopathy
172) A 40-year-old G3P2 obese patient at 37 weeks presents for her routine OB visit. She has gestational diabetes that is controlled with diet. She reports that her fasting and postprandial sugars have all been within the normal range. Her fetus has an estimated fetal weight of 6.5 lb by Leopold maneuvers. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?
Administration of insulin to prevent macrosomia
Cesarean delivery at 39 weeks to prevent shoulder dystocia
Induction of labor at 38 weeks
Kick counts and routine return OB visit in 1 week
Weekly biophysical profile
173) A 36-year-old G1P0 at 35 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery complaining of a severalday history of generalized malaise, anorexia, nausea, and emesis. She denies any headache or visual changes. Her fetal movement has been good, and she denies any regular uterine contractions, vaginal bleeding, or rupture of membranes. On physical examination, you notice that she is mildly jaundiced and appears to be a little confused. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.7C (99.9F), pulse of 70 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 100/62 mm Hg. Blood is drawn and the following results are obtained: WBC = 25,000, Hct = 42.0, platelets = 51,000, SGOT/PT= 287/350, glucose = 43, creatinine = 2.0, fibrinogen = 135, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 90 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Hepatitis B
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Severe preeclampsia
Hyperemesis gravidarum
174) A 32-year-old G1P0 reports to your office for a routine OB visit at 14 weeks gestational age. Labs drawn at her first prenatal visit 4 weeks ago reveal a platelet count of 60,000, a normal PT, PTT and bleeding time. All her other labs were within normal limits. During the present visit, the patient has a blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg. Her urine dip reveals the presence of trace protein. The patient denies any complaints. The only medication she is currently taking is a prenatal vitamin. On taking a more indepth history you learn that, prior to pregnancy, your patient had a history of occasional nose and gum bleeds, but no serious bleeding episodes. She has considered herself to be a person who just bruises easily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Alloimmune thrombocytopenia
Gestational thrombocytopenia
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
. HELLP syndrome
Pregnancy-induced hypertension
175) A 20-year-old G1 patient delivers a live-born infant with cutaneous lesions, limb defects, cerebral cortical atrophy, and chorioretinitis. Her pregnancy was complicated by pneumonia at 18 weeks. What is the most likely causative agent?
Cytomegalovirus
. Group B streptococcus
. Rubella virus
Treponemal pallidum
Varicella zoster
176) A 34-year-old G2 at 36 weeks delivers a growth-restricted infant with cataracts, anemia, patent ductus arteriosus, and sensorineural deafness. She has a history of chronic hypertension, which was well controlled with methyldopa during pregnancy. She had a viral syndrome with rash in early pregnancy. What is the most likely causative agent?
Parvovirus
. Rubella virus
. Rubeola
. Toxoplasma gondii
. T. pallidum
177) A 25-year-old G3 at 39 weeks delivers a small-for-gestational-age infant with chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and anemia. The infant displays poor feeding and tone in the nursery. The patient denies eating any raw or undercooked meat and does not have any cats living at home with her. She works as a nurse in the pediatric intensive care unit at the local hospital. What is the most likely causative agent?
. Cytomegalovirus
. Group B streptococcus
. Hepatitis B
. Parvovirus
T. gondii
178) A 23-year-old G1 with a history of a flulike illness, fever, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy during her early third trimester delivers a growth-restricted infant with seizures, intracranial calcifications, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and anemia. What is the most likely causative agent?
Cytomegalovirus
Hepatitis B
Influenza A
. Parvoviru
. T. gondii
179) A 32-year-old G5 delivers a stillborn fetus at 34 weeks. The placenta is noted to be much larger than normal. The fetus appeared hydropic and had petechiae over much of the skin. What is the most likely causative agent?
. Herpes simplex
Parvovirus
. Rubella virus
T. pallidum
. Varicella zoster
180) A 38-year-woman at 39 weeks delivers a 7-lb infant female without complications. At 2 weeks of life, the infant develops fulminant liver failure and dies. What is the most likely causative virus?
. Cytomegalovirus
Hepatitis
Herpes simplex
. Parvovirus
Rubeola
181) A 20-year-old woman who works as a kindergarten teacher presents for her routine visit at 32 weeks. Her fundal height measures 40 cm. An ultrasound reveals polyhydramnios, an appropriately grown fetus with ascites and scalp edema. The patient denies any recent illnesses, but some of the children at her school have been sick recently. What is the most likely cause of the fetal findings?
. Cytomegalovirus
Hepatitis B
. Influenza A
Parvovirus
. Toxoplasmosis gondii
182) A 25-year-old female in her first pregnancy delivers a 6-lb male infant at 38 weeks. The infant develops fever, vesicular rash, poor feeding, and listlessness at 1 week of age. What is the most likely cause of the infant’s signs and symptoms?
. Cytomegalovirus
. Group B streptococcus
Hepatitis B
. Herpes simplex
Listeria monocytogenes
183) A 22-year-old woman delivers a 7-lb male infant at 40 weeks without any complications. On day 3 of life, the infant develops respiratory distress, hypotension, tachycardia, listlessness, and oliguria. What is the most likely cause of the infant’s illness
. Cytomegalovirus
Group B streptococcus
Hepatitis B
Herpes simplex
. L. monocytogenes
184) A 29-year-old G2P1 at 40 weeks is in active labor. Her cervix is 5 cm dilated, completely effaced, and the vertex is at 0 station. She is on oxytocin to augment her labor and she has just received an epidural for pain management. The nurse calls you to the room because the fetal heart rate has been in the 70s for the past 3 minutes. The contraction pattern is noted to be every 3 minutes, each lasting 60 seconds, with return to normal tone in between contractions. The patient’s vital signs are blood pressure 90/40 mm Hg, pulse 105 beats per minute, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 36.1C (97.6F). On repeat cervical examination, the vertex is well applied to the cervix and the patient remains 5 cm dilated and at 0 station, and no vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the deceleration?
. Cord prolapse
. Epidural analgesia
. Pitocin
Placental abruption
Uterine hyperstimulation
185) You are delivering a 33-year-old G3P2 and encounter a shoulder dystocia. After performing the appropriate maneuvers, the baby finally delivers, and the pediatricians attending the delivery note that the right arm is hanging limply to the baby’s side with the forearm extended and internally rotated. Which of the following is the baby’s most likely diagnosis?
Erb palsy
. Klumpke paralysis
Humeral fracture
Clavicular fracture
Paralysis from intraventricular bleed
186) A 25-year-old G1 at 37 weeks presents to labor and delivery with gross rupture of membranes. The fluid is noted to be clear and the patient is noted to have regular painful contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting for 60 seconds each. The fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. On cervical examination she is noted to be 4 cm dilated, 90% effaced with the presenting part a −3 station. The presenting part is soft and felt to be the fetal buttock. A quick bedside ultrasound reveals a breech presentation with both hips flexed and knees extended. What type of breech presentation is described?
. Frank
. Incomplete, single footling
Complete
Double footling
. Cephalic presentation
187) A 34-year-old G3P2 delivers a baby by spontaneous vaginal delivery. She had scant prenatal care and no ultrasound, so she is anxious to know the sex of the baby. At first glance you notice female genitalia, but on closer examination the genitalia are ambiguous. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this infant?
. Chromosomal analysis
Evaluation at 1 month of age
. Pelvic ultrasound
. Thorough physical examination
Laparotomy for gonadectomy
188) A 24-year-old primigravid woman, who is intent on breast-feeding, decides on a home delivery. Immediately after the birth of a 4.1-kg (9-lb) infant, the patient bleeds massively from extensive vaginal and cervical lacerations. She is brought to the nearest hospital in shock. Over 2 hours, 9 units of blood are transfused, and the patient’s blood pressure returns to a reasonable level. A hemoglobin value the next day is 7.5 g/dL, and 3 units of packed red blood cells are given. The most likely late sequela to consider in this woman is which of the following?
. Hemochromatosis
Stein-Leventhal syndrome
Sheehan syndrome
Simmonds syndrome
. Cushing syndrome
189) A 27-year-old G4P3 at 37 weeks presents to the hospital with heavy vaginal bleeding and painful uterine contractions. Quick bedside ultrasound reveals a fundal placenta. The patient’s vital signs are blood pressure 140/92 mmHg, pulse 118 beats per minute, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and temperature 37C (98.6F). The fetal heart rate tracing reveals tachycardia with decreased variability and a few late decelerations. An emergency cesarean section delivers a male infant with Apgar scores of 4 and 9. With delivery of the placenta, a large retroplacental clot is noted. The patient becomes hypotensive, and bleeding is noted from the wound edges and her IV catheter sites. She requires 12 units of packed red blood cells and fresh frozen plasma for resuscitation. After a short stay in the intensive care unit the patient recovers. When can long-term complications related to sequela of postpartum hemorrhage first be noted?
. 6 hours postpartum
1 week postpartum
1 month postpartum
6 month postpartum
. 1 year postpartum
190) On postoperative day 3 after an uncomplicated repeat cesarean delivery, the patient develops a fever of 38.2C (100.8F). She has no complaints except for some fullness in her breasts. On examination she appears in no distress; lung and cardiac examinations are normal. Her breast examination reveals full, firm breasts bilaterally slightly tender with no erythema or masses. She is not breast-feeding. The abdomen is soft with firm, nontender fundus at the umbilicus. The lochia appears normal and is nonodorous. Urinalysis and white blood cell count are normal. Which of the following is a characteristic of the cause of her puerperal fever?
Appears in less than 5% of postpartum women
. Appears 3 to 4 days after the development of lacteal secretion
Is almost always painless
. Fever rarely exceeds 37.8C (99.8F)
. Is less severe and less common if lactation is suppressed
191) A 22-year-old G1 at 34 weeks is tested for tuberculosis because her father, with whom she lives, was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis. Her skin test is positive and her chest x-ray reveals a granuloma in the upper left lobe. Which of the following is true concerning infants born to mothers with active tuberculosis?
The risk of active disease during the first year of life may approach 90% without prophylaxis.
. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccination of the newborn infant without evidence of active disease is not appropriate.
. Future ability for tuberculin skin testing is lost after BCG administration to the newborn
. Neonatal infection is most likely acquired by aspiration of infected amniotic fluid.
. Congenital infection is common despite therapy
192) A 21-year-old G1 at 40 weeks, who underwent induction of labor for severe preeclampsia, delivered a 3900-g male infant via vaginal delivery after pushing for 21/2 hours. A second-degree midline laceration and sidewall laceration were repaired in the usual fashion under local analgesia. The estimated blood loss was 450 cc. Magnesium sulfate is continued postpartum for the seizure prophylaxis. Six hours after the delivery, the patient has difficulty voiding. Which is the most likely cause of her problem?
. Preeclampsia
Infusion of magnesium sulfate
Vulvar hematoma
Ureteral injury
Use of local analgesia for repair
193) Three days ago you delivered a 40-year-old G1P1 by cesarean section following arrest of descent after 2 hours of pushing. Labor was also significant for prolonged rupture of membranes. The patient had an epidural, which was removed the day following delivery. The nurse pages you to come to see the patient on the postpartum floor because she has a fever of 38.8C (102F) and is experiencing shaking chills. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and her pulse is 120 beats per minute. She has been eating a regular diet without difficulty and had a normal bowel movement this morning. She is attempting to breast-feed, but says her milk has not come in yet. On physical examination, her breasts are mildly engorged and tender bilaterally. Her lungs are clear. Her abdomen is tender over the fundus, but no rebound is present. Her incision has some serous drainage at the right apex, but no erythema is noted. Her pelvic examination reveals uterine tenderness but no masses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Pelvic abscess
Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis
. Wound infection
Endometritis
Atelectasis
194) A 34-year-old G1P1 who delivered her first baby 5 weeks ago calls your office and asks to speak with you. She tells you that she is feeling very overwhelmed and anxious. She feels that she cannot do anything right and feels sad throughout the day. She tells you that she finds herself crying all the time and is unable to sleep at night. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Postpartum depression
. Maternity blues
Postpartum psychosis
Bipolar disease
Postpartum blues
195) A 40-year-old G4P5 at 39 weeks gestation has progressed rapidly in labor with a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy with normal prenatal labs, including an amniocentesis for advanced maternal age. The patient begins the second stage of labor and after 15 minutes of pushing starts to demonstrate deep variable heart rate accelerations. You suspect that she may have a fetus with a nuchal cord. You expediently deliver the baby by low-outlet forceps and hand the baby over to the neonatologists called to attend the delivery. As soon as the baby is handed off to the pediatric team, it lets out a strong spontaneous cry. The infant is pink with slightly blue extremities that are actively moving and kicking. The heart rate is noted to be 110 on auscultation. What Apgar score should the pediatricians assign to this baby at 1 minute of life?
10
9
. 8
. 7
. 6
196) A 32-year-old G2P1 at 41 weeks is undergoing an induction of oligohydramnios. During the course of her labor, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates severe variable decelerations that do not respond to oxygen, fluid, or amnioinfusion. The patient’s cervix is dilated to 4 cm. A low-transverse cesarean delivery is performed for nonreassuring fetal heart tones. After delivery of the fetus you send a cord gas, which comes back with the following arterial blood values: pH 7.29, Pco2: 50, and Po2: 20. What condition does the cord blood gas indicate?
Normal fetal status
. Fetal acidemia
. Fetal hypoxia
Fetal asphyxia
. Fetal metabolic acidosis
197) A 25-year-old G1P1 comes to see you 6 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery for a routine postpartum examination. She denies any problems and has been breast-feeding her newborn without any difficulties since leaving the hospital. During the bimanual examination, you note that her uterus is irregular, firm, nontender, and about a 15-week size. Which of the following is the most likely etiology for this enlarged uterus?
. Subinvolution of the uterus
. The uterus is appropriate size for 6 weeks postpartum
Fibroid uterus
Adenomyosis
. Endometritis
198) A 74-year-old woman presents to your office for well-woman examination. Her last Pap smear and mammogram were 3 years ago. She has hypertension, high cholesterol, and osteoarthritis. She stopped smoking 15 years ago, and denies alcohol use. Based on this patient’s history which of the following medical conditions should be this patient’s biggest concern
Alzheimer disease
Breast cancer
Cerebrovascular disease
Heart disease
Lung cancer
199) A 16-year-old G0 female presents to your office for a routine annual gynecologic examination. She reports that she has previously been sexually active, but currently is not dating anyone. She has had three sexual partners in the past and says she diligently used condoms. She is a senior in high school and is doing well academically and has many friends. She lives at home with her parents and a younger sibling. She denies any family history of medical problems, but says her 80-year-old grandmother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She denies any other family history of cancer. She says she is healthy and has no history of medical problems or surgeries. She reports having had chicken pox. She smokes tobacco and drinks beer occasionally, but denies any illicit drug use. She had her first Pap smear and gynecologic examination last year with another doctor and reports that everything was normal. Her menses started at age 13 and are regular and light. She denies any dysmenorrhea. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Her height is 5ft 6 in and she weighs 130 lb. Based on this patient’s history, what would be the most likely cause of death if she were to die at age 16?
. Suicide
. Homicide
. Motor vehicle accidents
Cancer
Heart disease
200) A married 41-year-old G5P3114 presents to your office for a routine examination. She reports being healthy except for a history of migraine headaches. All her Pap smears have been normal. She developed gestational diabetes in her last pregnancy. She drinks alcohol socially, and admits to smoking occasionally. Her grandmother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer when she was in her fifties. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg; height is 5ft 5 in; weight is 150 lb. Which of the following is the most common cause of death in women of this patient’s age?
HIV
. Cardiac disease
. Accidents
Suicide
Cancer
201) A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of vulvar lesions. Examination reveals multiple small teardrop shaped growths at the vestibule of the vulva. Application of trichloroacetic acid results incomplete resolution of the lesions. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her lesions?
Secondary syphilis
Human papilloma virus
. Carcinoma of vulva
Lichen sclerosis
Lichen planus
202) A 36-year-old G2P2 presents for her well-woman examination. She has had two spontaneous vaginal deliveries without complications. Her largest child weighed 3500 g at birth. She uses oral contraceptive pills and denies any history of an abnormal Pap smear. She does not smoke, but drinks about four times per week. Her weight is 70 kg. Her vital signs are normal. After placement of the speculum, you note a clear cyst approximately 2.5 cm in size on the lateral wall of the vagina on the right side. The cyst is nontender and does not cause the patient any dyspareunia or discomfort. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this mass?
Bartholin duct cyst
Gartner duct cyst
Lipoma
Hematoma
Inclusion cyst
203) A 24-year-old nullipara is being evaluated for infertility. On pelvic examination, she has a single cervix. A diagnostic laparoscopy shows a double uterine fundus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of her uterine anomaly?
Septate uterus
Unicornuate uterus
Bicornuate uterus
Didelphic uterus
Didelphic uterus
204) A 58-year-old G6P4Ab2 diabetic woman who weighs 122.6 kg (270 lb) has her first episode of vaginal bleeding in 5 years. Her physician performs an outpatient operative hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage (D&C). Which of the following is an indication for the procedure and the most likely diagnosis?
Endometrial cancer because of her high parity
Endometrial cancer because of her obesity
Cervical cancer because of her age
Cervical cancer because of her diabetes
Ovarian cancer because of her obesity
205) A 53-year-old obese, postmenopausal woman presents to your office for a routine annual examination. Her last menstrual period was one year ago. Upon further questioning, she says that she sometimes experiences hot flashes of mild intensity. She is sexually active and denies vaginal dryness or dyspareunia. She has mild hypertension managed with hydrochlorothiazide and a salt-reduced diet. Her obstetrical history is significant for an elective termination of pregnancy at 35 years of age because of an abnormal MSAFP. Physical examination is normal. What is the most likely cause of the mild nature of the symptoms the patient is having?
Peripheral fat tissue production of estrogens
Compensatory adrenal production of estrogens
. Conversion of adrenal androgens to estrogens by fat tissue
. Conversion of adrenal androgens to estrogens by liver
. Increased levels of FSH
206) A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician’s office for evaluation of a vulvar ulcer that she noticed two days ago. Initially she had a small painless papule that later became ulcerated. Upon further questioning she reluctantly admits to using sex to obtain drugs. She also reports using oral contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. On vulvar examination there is a 2cm ulcer with a non-exudative base and a raised, indurated margin. Painless bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Syphilis
Chancroid
Herpes genitalis
Granuloma inguinale
Basal cell carcinom
207) A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks’ gestation is in active labor, and her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 90% effaced. Her amniotic membranes have been ruptured for 4 hours. Contractions are strong at 2- to 3-minute intervals and of 60- to 70-second duration. For the past 30 minutes, repetitive variable decelerations of the fetal heart rate have occurred. They have lasted 60–90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate has dropped as low as 60 beat per minute (BPM). You explain that there is a risk that the baby will become hypoxic and recommend a cesarean section. She refuses. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
Obtain permission for the cesarean section from her mother
Perform a cesarean section as an emergency
Obtain a court order permitting a cesarean section
Counsel her carefully about the fetal risks but accede to her wishes
Assign her care to another obstetrician
208) A 24-year-old woman has a MSAFP of 0.5 MOM (multiples of the median) at 17 weeks’ gestation. Which of the following fetal abnormalities is most likely to occur with this MSAFP?
Spina bifida
Omphalocele
Gastroschisis
Bladder exstrophy
Trisomy 21
209) A 69-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus complains of urinary incontinence. Her diabetes is well controlled with oral hypoglycemic agents. She has no complaints other than the wetness. Which of the following tests is most likely to demonstrate the cause?
Urinalysis
Urine culture and sensitivity
Intravesical instillation of methylene blue
The Q-tip test
Measurement of residual urine volume
210) A 48-year-old G5P5 woman has genuine stress incontinence (GSI). Kegel exercises have not helped, and her incontinence is gradually worsening. Her urethrovesical junction (UVJ) is prolapsed into the vagina, and her urethral closure pressure is normal. Which of the following procedures will most likely cure her incontinence?
Retropubic urethropexy
Anterior colporrhaphy
Suburethral sling procedure
Needle suspension of paraurethral tissue
Paraurethral collagen injections
211) A 51-year-old woman comes to your office for a routine health maintenance examination. She says that she has been having irregular menses and occasional hot flashes for the past eight months. She has a very stressful job and drinks two to three cups of coffee every morning. She does not smoke, but drinks two to three ounces of alcohol daily. She eats a pure vegetarian diet and walks two miles on a treadmill each day. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her BMI is 31 kg/m2 Physical examination is unremarkable. You inform her that she is probably reaching menopause, and that she will be at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for the development of osteoporosis in this patient?
Caffeine use
Obesity
. Excess alcohol use
. Vegetarian diet
Excess walking
212) A 16-year-old female presents to the ER complaining of left lower quadrant abdominal pain that started suddenly 24 hours ago. The pain does not radiate and is 5/ 10 in severity. She denies having fevers, vomiting, dysuria, diarrhea or vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She takes no medications. On physical examination, her temperature is 37.20C (98.9.F), blood pressure is 11 0/65 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 14/min. There is mild left lower quadrant tenderness without rebound or rigidity, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Ectopic pregnancy
. Leiomyoma
Midcycle pain
Acute appendicitis
Pelvic inflammatory diseas
213) A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 10-month history of dysmenorrhea associated with a dull pelvic sensation. She has heavy periods but denies inter-menstrual bleeding. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use contraception because they have been trying to become pregnant for one year. She has no pain during intercourse. Physical examination shows normal external genitalia and an enlarged uterus, but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Fibroid uterus
Pelvic congestion syndrome
Primary dysmenorrhea
214) A 26-year-old woman complains of a vaginal discharge causing burning and itching of the perineum. The pH of the discharge is 4.5. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her discharge?
Monilial vaginitis
Trichomonas vaginitis
Chlamydial cervicitis
Gonococcal cervicitis
Bacterial vaginosis
215) A 45-year-old woman has bilateral breast pain that is most severe premenstrually. On palpation, there is excessive nodularity, tenderness, and cystic areas that diminish in size after menses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Fibrocystic disease
Fibroadenomas
Ntraductal papilloma
Breast cancer
Engorgement attributable to increased prolactin
216) A 19-year-old nulligravid woman at 38 weeks' gestation comes to her physician because she has passed bloody mucus discharge. Her prenatal course was unremarkable including a normal 19-week ultrasound. On speculum examination, there are no vaginal or cervical lesions. On vaginal examination, the cervix is 2 cm dilated and 100% effaced, and the fetus is at +1 station. The fetal heart rate has a baseline of 140 and is reactive. She has painful contractions every 2 minutes. One hour later the patient's cervix is 3 cm dilated, and a small amount of bloody mucus is noted on the examining glove. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Early labor
Placental abruption
Placenta previa
Urinary tract infection
Vasa previa
217) A 33-year-old, white woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 37 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of painful uterine contractions and heavy vaginal bleeding that started after she used intranasal cocaine. The patient's prenatal course was significant because she conceived while on the oral contraceptive pill, she occasionally used cocaine and heroin during the pregnancy, and she was found to be positive for group B Streptococcus colonization at 35 weeks. Fetal monitoring is not reassuring. The patient undergoes cesarean section, at which the uterus has a bluish hue. On inspection, the placenta is noted to have an adherent, retroplacental clot on 50% of its surface. Which of the following is the most likely initiating factor for this patient's presentation?
Cocaine
Gestational age
Group B Streptococcus colonization
Oral contraceptive pill use
White race
218) A 64-year-old woman comes to the physician because she is "leaking" urine. She states that, over the past 3 years, she has had incontinence several times daily. She describes these episodes as small squirts of urine that come out whenever she laughs, coughs, sneezes, or engages in physical activity. Physical examination shows mild uterine prolapse and a moderate cystocele. Urine culture is negative. Postvoid residual is 25 ml (normal <50 mL) Cystometrogram is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Detrusor instability (DI)
Genuine stress urinary incontinence (GSUI)
Neurogenic bladder
Pyelonephritis
Urinary tract infection
219) A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which lymph node group would be the first involved in metastatic spread of this disease beyond the cervix and uterus?
Common iliac nodes
Parametrial nodes
External iliac nodes
Paracervical or ureteral nodes
Para-aortic nodes
220) A 51-year-old woman is diagnosed with invasive cervical carcinoma by cone biopsy. Pelvic examination and rectal-vaginal examination reveal the parametrium to be free of disease, but the upper portion of the vagina is involved with tumor. Intravenous pyelography (IVP) and sigmoidoscopy are negative, but a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows grossly enlarged pelvic and periaortic nodes. This patient is classified at which of the following stages?
IIa
. IIb
. IIIa
IIIb
IV
221) A 70-year-old woman presents for evaluation of a pruritic lesion on the vulva. Examination shows a white, friable lesion on the right labia majora that is 3 cm in diameter. No other suspicious areas are noted. Biopsy of the lesion confirms squamous cell carcinoma. In this patient, lymphatic drainage characteristically would be first to which of the following nodes?
External iliac lymph nodes
. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Deep femoral lymph nodes
Periaortic nodes
Internal iliac nodes
222) A postmenopausal woman presents with pruritic white lesions on the vulva. Punch biopsy of a representative area is obtained. Which of the following histologic findings is consistent with the diagnosis of lichen sclerosus?
. Blunting or loss of rete pegs
Presence of thickened keratin layer
. Acute inflammatory infiltration
Increase in the number of cellular layers in the epidermi
Presence of mitotic figures
223) At the time of annual examination, a patient expresses concern regarding possible exposure to sexually transmitted diseases. During your pelvic examination, a single, indurated, nontender ulcer is noted on the vulva. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA) tests are positive. Without treatment, the next stage of this disease is clinically characterized by which of the following?
Optic nerve atrophy and generalized paresis
Tabes dorsalis
Gummas
Macular rash over the hands and fee
Aortic aneurysm
224) A 7-year-old girl is brought to your office by her parents after they noticed the development of axillary and pubic hair 3 months ago. The girl has also experienced a significant growth spurt over the past year. There has been no change in her behavior or school performance. The girl denies headaches, vomiting or visual disturbances. Her personal and family medical histories are unremarkable. On examination, you note the presence of axillary hair, pubic hair at Tanner stage 2, and breast development at Tanner stage 3. Abdominal, genital and neurologic examinations reveal nothing abnormal. Her bone age is more than two standard deviations above normal. Serum FSH and LH levels are elevated. MRI of the brain is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Excess peripheral conversion of testosterone to estrogen
Estrogen-producing ovarian cysts
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Late onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Early activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis
225) A 16-year-old girl presents for evaluation of acne, which has been getting progressively worse over the past 2 weeks. Her medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for which she has been taking prednisone for a recent exacerbation. Hydroxychloroquine is her only other medicine. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs and her menstrual cycle is regular. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg and her pulse is 72/min. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2. Distributed over the face, arms and trunk are monomorphous erythematous papules. There are no open or closed comedones. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her acne?
Adolescent acn
Androgen abuse
Polycystic ovarian disease
Medication side effec
Systemic lupus erythematosu
226) A 22-year-old, gravida 1, para 0, at 13 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal discharge and lower abdominal discomfort. She has had no passage of tissue from her vagina. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has no history of trauma. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg, pulse is 76/min and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a closed cervix, a slightly tender uterus with a size consistent with gestational age, free adnexa and scant bright red bleeding from the introitus. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows normal fetal heart motion. She is anxious and concerned about her baby. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Incomplete abortion
Threatened abortio
. Completed abortion
. Inevitable abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
227) A 28-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital. She has regular uterine contractions. Her blood pressure is 120/70mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 18/min. Fetal heart monitoring is placed and shows a baseline rate of 130 beats/min, without any associated abnormalities. Pelvic examination shows the cervix is 50% effaced and 3cm dilated. Amniotomy is performed and a bloody show is noted. Immediately after the rupture of membranes, the baseline fetal heart rate increases to 160 beats/min and then drops to 70 beats/min. As labor progresses, repetitive late decelerations are noted, as well as an increase in vaginal bleeding. Repeat vital signs of the patient shows a blood pressure of 130/70mmHg, pulse of 80/min and respirations of 18/min. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the current condition?
Premature separation of the placenta
Abnormal placental implantation
Abnormal umbilical vessels
Excessive amniotic fluid
. Tear in uterine musculature
228) A 20-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 36 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of diffuse headache, blurry vision and epigastric pain. She has no previous history of hypertension, renal disease or neurologic disease. Her mother has a history of migraine headaches. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 200/126 mmHg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows bilateral lower extremity edema. Deep tendon reflexes are exaggerated. Laboratory studies show: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 23 mg/dl, Serum creatinine 1.6 mg/dl, Blood glucose 98 mg/dl. Urinalysis: Protein: 4+, Blood: negative, Glucose: negative, WBC: 1-2/hpf, RBC: 1-2/hpf, Casts: none. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. While evaluating her, she suddenly develops generalized tonicclonic convulsions. Which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis of this new event?
Hypertensive encephalopathy
Uremic encephalopathy
Viral encephalitis
Eclamptic seizures
Brain abscess
229) A 29-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Four years ago, she had a low transverse cesarean section in her second pregnancy. Physical examination shows bright red vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 16/min. Fetal heart monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Abruptio placenta
Placenta previa
Vasa previa
Uterine rupture
Normal labor
230) A 23-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 38 weeks' gestation was admitted to the delivery room for management of labor. On admission 6-hours ago, the patient was in the active phase of labor and the cervix was 4cm dilated. She was then placed under external tocometer and epidural anesthesia. Contractions were regular, occurring 2-3 minutes apart and lasting 40-60 seconds. She progressed well to 7cm. However, she has remained at 7cm the past 4 hours. The fetus is in the Left Occipita Anterior (LOA) position and at +1 station. Internal pelvic assessment shows prominent ischial spines. Electronic fetal heart monitoring shows 140 bpm with normal beat-to-beat and long term variability. Prenatal ultrasound at 37-weeks showed no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's anomaly of labor?
Inlet dystocia
. Midpelvis contraction
Macrosomic baby
Hypotonic uterine contractions
. Injudicious analgesia
231) A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 36 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department after passing out. She is drowsy and moaning, complaining of abdominal pain. Her husband accompanies her. He states that she has not experienced any trauma, but that she experienced the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain before she passed out. She has no significant past medical history. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated thus far. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. She takes supplemental vitamins, but no other medications. Her temperature is 36.9 C (98.4F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm of Hg, and pulse is 130/min. Physical examination shows a cold and diaphoretic female. Examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation; the cervical os is closed and no vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Placenta previa
. Abruptio placentae
Preeclampsia
Amniotic fluid embolism
Septic shoc
232) A 28-year-old male comes for evaluation of infertility. He has been healthy and otherwise has no complaints. He says the he eats a high protein diet and exercises daily in order to be muscular. He weighs 85 kg (187 1b) and is 175cm (70 in) tall. His temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), and his blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg. Physical examination shows small testes. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin: 16.0 g/L, Platelets: 200,000/mm3, Leukocyte count: 4,500/mm3, Serum creatinine: 1.4 mg/dl, Serum LH: low, Serum testosterone: low. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his infertility?
. Klinefelter syndrome
Mumps orchitis
Exogenous steroid use
Myotonic dystrophy
Varicocele
233) A 14-year-old female is brought to the physician's office for evaluation of excessive menstrual bleeding. She experienced menarche at age 13, and since then her menses have been irregular and unpredictable. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and for the past week she has been having heavy menstrual bleeding. She has never been sexually active. Vital signs are stable. Her external genitalia are normal. She refused pelvic examination, and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Bleeding disorder
Anovulation
Cervical polyp
Endometrial carcinoma
Uterine fibroids
234) A 25-year-old female presents to the physician's office for evaluation of infertility. Her menstrual periods are regular. She has mild chronic pelvic pain. Her husband's semen analysis is within normal limits. She has no history of sexually transmitted diseases in the past. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), and her blood pressure is 120/72 mmHg. Physical examination shows a normal sized uterus and enlarged left adnexae. Ultrasonography shows a homogeneous mass on the left ovary, but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Endometriosis
Ovarian malignancy
Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
Adenomyosis
Pelvic congestion syndrome
235) A 30-year-old woman in her second pregnancy presents to your office at 36 weeks gestation complaining of dull, low back pain. The pain is minimal in the morning, but increases at the end of the day. She also noticed ankle edema that appears at the end of the day. Her past medical history is insignificant. Her temperature is 36.7C (98F), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's complaints?
. Multiple myeloma
Compression fracture of the vertebrae
. Herniated disk
Metastatic or primary tumor
Increased lumbar lordosis
236) A 22-year-old woman presents to office with a 3-week history of scant vaginal discharge. She has no other complaints. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. She has regular 26-day menstrual cycles and her last menstrual period was ten days ago. She does not smoke or consume alcohol. Her temperature is 36.7C (98 F), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. On examination, the abdomen is non tender. Yellow mucopurulent discharge is seen at the cervical os. Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this patient's problem?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Herpes simplex
Trichomonas vaginalis
Candida albicans
37) A 24-year-old female and her husband come to the physician's office for evaluation of infertility. They have not been able to conceive after 12 months of frequent intercourse without contraception. She has no other medical problems and takes no medication. Physical examination shows an obese woman with excess thick hair over her chin and along the linea alba of the lower abdomen. There is no increase in muscles mass. When asked about the excess hair, she states that she has had it for a long time. Serum testosterone levels are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her infertility?
Abnormal cervical mucu
Luteal phase defect
Impaired oocyte transport
Impaired zygote implantation
. Anovulation
238) A 41-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia that has been increasing in intensity. She has no dyspareunia or any other symptoms. She has a history of chronic hypertension. She had a cesarean section in her 3rd pregnancy followed by surgical sterilization. Vital signs are normal. Bimanual examination shows a symmetrically enlarged and tender uterus with soft consistency and free adnexae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Adenomyosis
Endometriosis
Leiomyomata
Endometrial carcinoma
Endometritis
239) A 24-year-old G0 presents to your office complaining of vulvar discomfort. More specifically, she has been experiencing intense burning and pain with intercourse. The discomfort occurs at the vaginal introitus primarily with penile insertion into the vagina. The patient also experiences the same pain with tampon insertion and when the speculum is inserted during a gynecologic examination. The problem has become so severe that she can no longer have sex, which is causing problems in her marriage. She is otherwise healthy and denies any medical problems. She is experiencing regular menses and denies any dysmenorrhea. On physical examination, the region of the vulva around the vaginal vestibule has several punctate, erythematous areas of epithelium measuring 3 to 8 mm in diameter. Most of the lesions are located on the skin between the two Bartholin glands. Each inflamed lesion is tender to touch with a cotton swab. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Obstetric gynecology pretest 12th 319?
Vulvar vestibulitis
. Atrophic vaginitis
Contact dermatitis
Lichen sclerosus
Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia
240) A 29-year-old G0 comes to your office complaining of a vaginal discharge for the past 2 weeks. The patient describes the discharge as thin in consistency and of a grayish white color. She has also noticed a slight fishy vaginal odor that seems to have started with the appearance of the discharge. She denies any vaginal or vulvar pruritus or burning. She admits to being sexually active in the past, but has not had intercourse during the past year. She denies a history of any sexually transmitted diseases. She is currently on no medications with the exception of her birth control pills. Last month she took a course of amoxicillin for treatment of a sinusitis. On physical examination, the vulva appears normal. There is a discharge present at the introitus. A copious, thin, whitish discharge is in the vaginal vault and adherent to the vaginal walls. The vaginal pH is 5.5. The cervix is not inflamed and there is no cervical discharge. Wet smear of the discharge indicates the presence of clue cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Candidiasis
Bacterial vaginosi
Trichomoniasis
Physiologic discharge
Chlamydia
241) A 20-year-old G2P0020 with an LMP 5 days ago presents to the emergency room complaining of a 24-hour history of increasing pelvic pain. This morning she experienced chills and a fever, although she did not take her temperature. She reports no changes in her urine or bowel habits. She has had no nausea or vomiting. She is hungry. She denies any medical problems. Her only surgery was a laparoscopy performed last year for an ectopic pregnancy. She reports regular menses and denies dysmenorrhea. She is currently sexually active. She has a new sexual partner and had sexual intercourse with him just prior to her last menstrual period. She denies a history of any abnormal Pap smears or sexually transmitted diseases. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Urinalysis is completely normal. WBC is 18,000. Temperature is 38.8C (102F). On physical examination, her abdomen is diffusely tender in the lower quadrants with rebound and voluntary guarding. Bowel sounds are present but diminished. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Ovarian torsion
Endometriosis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
. Kidney stone
. Ruptured ovarian cyst
242) A 43-year-old G2P2 comes to your office complaining of an intermittent right nipple discharge that is bloody. She reports that the discharge is spontaneous and not associated with any nipple pruritus, burning, or discomfort. On physical examination, you do not detect any dominant breast masses or adenopathy. There are no skin changes noted. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this patient’s problem?
Breast cancer
Duct ectasia
Intraductal papilloma
Fibrocystic breast disease
Pituitary adenoma
243) A 20-year-old G0, LMP 1 week ago, presents to your gynecology clinic complaining of a mass in her left breast that she discovered during routine breast self-examination in the shower. When you perform a breast examination on her, you palpate a 2-cm firm, nontender mass in the upper inner quadrant of the left breast that is smooth, well-circumscribed, and mobile. You do not detect any skin changes, nipple discharge, or axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Fibrocystic breast change
. Fibroadenoma
. Breast carcinoma
. Fat necrosis
Cystosarcoma phyllodes
244) A mother brings her 12-year-old daughter in to your office for consultation. She is concerned because most of the other girls in her daughter’s class have already started their period. She thinks her daughter hasn’t shown any evidence of going into puberty yet. Knowing the usual first sign of the onset of puberty, you should ask the mother which of the following questions?
Has her daughter started to develop breasts?
Has her daughter had any acne?
. Does her daughter have any axillary or pubic hair?
. Has her daughter started her growth spurt?
Has her daughter had any vaginal spotting?
245) A 9-year-old girl presents for evaluation of regular vaginal bleeding. History reveals thelarche at age 7 and adrenarche at age 8. Which of the following is the most common cause of this condition in girls?
Idiopathic
. Gonadal tumors
McCune-Albright syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Tumors of the central nervous system
246) A 55-year-old woman presents to your office for consultation regarding her symptoms of menopause. She stopped having periods 8 months ago and is having severe hot flushes. The hot flushes are causing her considerable stress. What should you tell her regarding the psychological symptoms of the climacteric?
They are not related to her changing levels of estrogen and progesterone
. They commonly include insomnia, irritability, frustration, and malaise.
. They are related to a drop in gonadotropin levels.
. They are not affected by environmental factors.
They are primarily a reaction to the cessation of menstrual flow.
247) An 18-year-old patient presents to you for evaluation because she has not yet started her period. On physical examination, she is 5ft 7 in tall. She has minimal breast development and no axillary or pubic hair. On pelvic examination, she has a normally developed vagina. A cervix is visible. The uterus is palpable, as are normal ovaries. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient?
Draw her blood for a karyotype.
Test her sense of smell.
. Draw her blood for TSH, FSH, and LH levels.
Order an MRI of the brain to evaluate the pituitary gland
Prescribe a progesterone challenge to see if she will have a withdrawal bleed.
48) A mother brings her daughter in to see you for consultation. The daughter is 17 years old and has not started her period. She is 4ft 10 in tall. She has no breast budding. On pelvic examination, she has no pubic hair. By digital examination, the patient has a cervix and uterus. The ovaries are not palpable. As part of the workup, serum FSH and LH levels are drawn and both are high. Which of the following is the most likely reason for delayed puberty and sexual infantilism in this patient?
Adrenogenital syndrome (testicular feminization)
. McCune-Albright syndrome
Kallmann syndrome
Gonadal dysgenesis
Müllerian agenesis
249) A 30-year-old female comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. She has been married for 3- years and has been trying to conceive for the past year. She had been unsuccessful; however, she now has a 2-month history of amenorrhea. She has been experiencing morning sickness and has had abdominal distension and breast fullness over the past two weeks. She states that her home urine pregnancy test is positive. She seems happy and excited about this long awaited pregnancy. She has no previous medical problems. She has been taking prenatal vitamins for the past 3 weeks after she first missed her period. Physical examination shows a tympanic abdomen. Ultrasonogram shows a normal endometrial stripe. Pregnancy testing in the office is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Missed abortion
Fetal demise
Ectopic pregnancy
Molar pregnancy
Pseudocyesis
250) A 15-year-old girl is being evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She has no other symptoms. She has not been sexually active. She has no other medical problems and does not take any medication. Her family history is unremarkable. On examination, you note fully developed breasts and absent axillary and pubic hair. External genitalia have a normal appearance, but the vagina is abnormally short and blind ended. Initial work-up reveals no uterus on ultrasound, a testosterone level of 400 ng/dl (Normal is 20-80 for a female), and a 46 XY karyotype. Which of the following events is most likely to have caused the absence of in utero development of the internal reproductive organs?
Absence of mullerian inhibiting factor
. Presence of mullerian inhibiting factor
Agenesis of Wolffian ducts
Agenesis of mullerian ducts
Testosterone surge
251) A 30-year-old female delivers a term male infant with signs of thyrotoxicosis. Prior to the pregnancy, she was surgically treated for Graves’ disease and was prescribed hormone replacement therapy in the form of levothyroxine 0.25 mg daily. Levothyroxine was maintained during pregnancy and thyroid hormone levels were monitored and maintained within the reference range. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the neonate's condition?
Levothyroxine therapy
Active thyroid tissue in the mother secreting thyroid hormone
Persistence of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin in the mother
Inadequate surgery with persistence of thyroid tissue post-operatively
Delivery hemorrhag
252) Select the most likely diagnosis. A. Child abuse B. Foreign body C. Trichomonas vaginitis D. Bacterial vaginosis E. Candidiasis A 25-year-old woman presents to the physician's office for evaluation of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. She has been sexually active with a new partner for the past month. Physical examination reveals a thin, whitish-gray vaginal discharge. There is no discharge from the cervical os, and there is no adnexal or cervical motion tenderness. The remainder of the examination is normal. The pH of the vaginal fluid is 5.0. When KOH is added to vaginal discharge on a slide, an amine-like ("fishy") odor is perceived. A wet mount of the fluid reveals many epithelial cells with adherent bacteria. No polymorphonuclear cells are seen.
. A
. B
. C
. D
. E
253) A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician for her third prenatal check-up at 12 weeks gestation. She has been feeling well for the last 4 weeks because she no longer has nausea and vomiting. She had a small dark brown discharge 4 weeks ago, but it stopped spontaneously. Physical examination shows the cervix is closed and fetal heart tones are not heard. Real-time ultrasonogram shows a collapsed gestational sac with absent fetal heart motion. Urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Hydatiform mole
. Threatened abortion
Complete abortion
. Inevitable abortion
Missed abortion
254) A 21-year-old G0 presents to your office because her menses is 2 weeks late. She states that she is taking her birth control pills correctly; she may have missed a day at the beginning of the pack, but took it as soon at she remembered. She denies any medical problems, but 3 or 4 weeks ago she had a “viral stomach flu” and missed 2 days of work for nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Her cycles are usually regular even without contraceptive pills. She has been on the pill for 5 years and recently developed some midcycle bleeding, which usually lasts about 2 days. She has been sexually active with the same partner for the past 3 months and has a history of chlamydia 3 years ago. She has had a total of 10 sexual partners. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the major cause of unplanned pregnancies in women using oral contraceptives?
Breakthrough ovulation at midcycle
High frequency of intercourse
. Incorrect use of oral contraceptives
. Gastrointestinal malabsorptio
. Development of antibodies
255) A 15-year-old girl is being evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She is otherwise healthy and has no previous medical problems. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals normal breast development, normal pubic and axillary hair, and a blind vagina; the uterus and adnexae could not be appreciated. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals 2 ovaries and no uterus is seen. The karyotype is 46 XX. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Mullerian agenesi
. Androgen insensitivity
5-alpha-reductase deficiency
Imperforate hymen
Turner's syndrome
256) A 23-year-old woman presents to your office with the complaint of a red splotchy rash on her chest that occurs during intercourse. It is nonpuritic and painless. She states that it usually resolves within a few minutes to a few hours after intercourse. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the rash?
Allergic reaction to her partner’s pheromones
Decreased systolic blood pressure during the plateau phase
. Increased estrogen during the excitement phase
Vasocongestion during the excitement phase
. Vasocongestion during the orgasmic phase
257) A 62-year-old woman presents for annual examination. Her last spontaneous menstrual period was 9 years ago, and she has been reluctant to use postmenopausal hormone replacement because of a strong family history of breast cancer. She now complains of diminished interest in sexual activity. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her complaint?
Decreased vaginal length
. Decreased ovarian function
Alienation from her partner
Untreatable sexual dysfunction
Physiologic anorgasmia
258) A 28-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for a follow-up prenatal visit. According to prenatal records, ultrasound at 16 weeks gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. She is now at 40 weeks gestation. Examination shows a fundal height consistent with dates and the cervix is not favorable. Fetal heart tracing is reassuring. She wishes to continue the pregnancy for two more weeks rather than undergoing induction. She should be closely monitored for which of the following?
Polyhydramnios
Oligohydramnios
Abruptio placentae
Placenta previa
Preeclampsia
59) A 34-year-old sexually active female comes to your office because of urinary frequency and dysuria for two days. She has had two such episodes in the past, each treated with oral antibiotics. Physical examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and her urinalysis is positive for nitrite, leukocyte esterase, many WBC, and a moderate amount of bacteria. Which of the following is the most common reason for the higher incidence of urinary tract infections in females than in males?
Closer proximity of the urethral meatus to the anus in females
Frequent use of spermicide and diaphragms in females
. Shorter urethral length in females
. Higher post-void urine residual in females
Hormonal fluctuation of females
260) A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period for 7 months. She previously had normal cycles. She also states that over the past year she has felt increasingly weak and tired. She notes that she always feels cold and that her hair has been thinning over the course of the year. She also complains of constipation, weight gain, and depression. Her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 56/minute, and respirations are 10/minute. Examination is significant for brittle hair and delayed deep tendon reflexes. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is 20 µU/mL. Prolactin is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's amenorrhea?
. Hyperprolactinemia
Hypothyroidism
Kallmann syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrom
Pregnancy
261) A 17-year-old female comes to the physician because she has not yet had a menstrual period. She also complains of a lack of breast development. Past medical history is significant for anosmia and color blindness. Past surgical history is significant for a cleft palate that was repaired in childhood. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination is significant for absent breast development, and a hypoestrogenic vulva and vagina. Urine hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Anorexia nervosa
. Kallmann syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
. Pregnancy
Testicular feminization syndrome
262) A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of burning with urination. She states that the burning started about 2 days ago and has been growing worse since. She has no frequency or urgency. She had one episode of pyelonephritis in the past but no other medical problems. On examination there is no costovertebral angle or abdominal tenderness. The examination is significant for a thick, white vaginal discharge with erythema and excoriations of the labia. Urinalysis is negative. KOH/Normal saline smear demonstrates pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Candida vaginitis
Hemorrhagic ovarian cys
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Pyelonephritis
. Urinary tract infection
263) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician to discuss birth control options. She and her partner have tried to use condoms; however, they find it difficult to use them consistently and she would like to try another form of contraception. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and has no family history of cancer. Her examination is within normal limits. After a discussion with the physician, she chooses to take the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She stays on the pill for the next three years. She now has most significantly decreased her risk of developing which of the following malignancies?
. Bone cancer
Breast cancer
Cervical cancer
Endometrial cancer
Liver cancer
264) A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pain and burning with urination. She states that the symptoms started two days ago and have worsened since. She has no fever or chills and has never had these symptoms before. She has hypothyroidism for which she takes thyroid hormone replacement. Otherwise she has no medical problems. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F). Examination is unremarkable including a normal pelvic examination. A KOH and normal saline "wet prep" is performed on her vaginal discharge and is negative. Urinalysis reveals numerous white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
Escherichia coli
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Pseudomonas species
. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
. Trichomonas vaginalis
1) A 25-year-old woman being evaluated for infertility is found to have an abnormal ridge of red, moist granules located in the upper third of her vagina. Pertinent medical history is that her mother was treated with diethylstilbestrol (DES) during her pregnancy. A biopsy from the abnormal vaginal ridge reveals the presence of benign glands underneath stratified squamous epithelium. Which of the following is the most serious long-term complication of this abnormality?
Clear cell carcinoma
Condyloma acuminatum
Extramammary Paget disease
Multiple papillary hidradenomas
Verrucous carcinoma
2) A couple presents to your office to discuss sterilization. They are very happy with their four children and do not want any more. You discuss with them the pros and cons of both female and male sterilization. The 34-yearold male undergoes a vasectomy. Which of the following is the most frequent immediate complication of this procedure?
Infection
Impotence
Hematoma
Spontaneous reanastomosis
Sperm granulomas
3) A 20-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling in her hands and ankles. She has no headache, visual disturbances or epigastric pain. She has no previous medical problems. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her previous prenatal check-up at 28-weeks gestation was normal. Her medical records show no preexisting hypertension or proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 156/100 mmHg, and after 15 minutes of lateral rest, a repeat reading is 154/98mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema in both legs and hands. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. FetaI heart tones are audible by Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 13.0 g/dl; Hct: 50%; Platelets: 300,000/mm3; Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl; Urinalysis shows 1+ proteinuria, which is new. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Mild preeclampsia
. Severe preeclampsia
Chronic hypertension
Transient hypertension of pregnancy
Eclampsia
4) A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is rushed to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She was sleeping when she first noticed the bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 14th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 11 6/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows cold extremities and bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Emergency transvaginal ultrasonogram
Obtain blood for PT/INR and PTI
Obtain venous access with two large bore needles
Immediate vaginal examination
Immediate cesarean section
5) A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has not felt her baby's movements for the past two weeks. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Ultrasonogram shows absence of fetal cardiac activity. Fetal demise is diagnosed. Laboratory studies show:Serum fibrinogen level: 250 mg/dl (normal is 150 - 450 mg/dl ), Platelets: 130,000/mm3, Prothrombin time: 15 sec, Partial thromboplastin time: 33sec. There are no signs of active bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
Platelet transfusion and fibrinogen replacement
Mmediate induction of labor
Emergency cesarean section
Weekly fibrinogen monitoring and expect spontaneous delivery
6) A 37-year-old G4 P3 woman delivered a 4,100gram (9.02lbs) infant by spontaneous vaginal delivery one hour ago. This pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes for which she is being treated with insulin. The patient is currently on magnesium sulfate for elevated blood pressures and proteinuria. You are called to evaluate her because she began to have very heavy vaginal bleeding and is feeling lightheaded. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and pulse is 98/min. On physical examination you see heavy vaginal bleeding and numerous blood clots. Her cervix is closed and the uterus can be palpated 3cm above the umbilicus. The uterus feels boggy. The next best step in management is?
Dilatation and curettage
Oxytocin infusion
Packing of the uterine cavity
Cesarean hysterectomy
Mmediate uterine artery embolization
7) A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and her vital signs are: blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, temperature 36.38C, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. She has not had a miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. Her cervix is closed on examination. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?
Septic abortion
Recurrent abortion
Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
Future infertility
Ectopic pregnancies
8) A 24-year-old presents at 30 weeks with a fundal height of 50 cm. Which of the following statements concerning polyhydramnios is true?
Acute polyhydramnios rarely leads to labor prior to 28 weeks
. The incidence of associated malformations is approximately 3%
Maternal edema, especially of the lower extremities and vulva, is rare
Esophageal atresia is accompanied by polyhydramnios in nearly 10% of cases
Complications include placental abruption, uterine dysfunction, and postpartum haemorrhage
9) A 20-year-old G1 at 32 weeks presents for her routine obstetric (OB) visit. She has no medical problems. She is noted to have a blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg, and her urine dip shows 1+ protein. She complains of a constant headache and vision changes that are not relieved with rest or a pain reliever. The patient is sent to the hospital for further management. At the hospital, her blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg and she is noted to have tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following is indicated in the management of this patient?
Low-dose aspirin
Dilantin (phenytoin)
Antihypertensive therapy
Magnesium sulfate
Cesarean delivery
10) A 21-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation is admitted for delivery. She has severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows 3+ pitting edema of the legs and brisk deep tendon reflexes. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show elevated BUN, serum creatinine and serum transaminases. Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria. Intravenous hydralazine and magnesium sulfate was initiated on admission. After stabilization, intravenous oxytocin and artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) was administered for induction of labor. Two hours later, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 78/min and respirations are 9/min. Repeat examination shows hyporeflexia and a completely effaced cervix that is 5cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Stop hydralazine and do an emergency caesarian section
Stop magnesium sulfate and give calcium gluconate
Stop hydralazine and monitor serum cyanide level
Stop intravenous oxytocin and intubate the patient
Continue current treatment and proceed with delivery
11) An 18-year-old G1 at 8 weeks gestation complains of nausea and vomiting over the past week occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are a common symptom in early pregnancy. Which of the following signs or symptoms would indicate a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
Hypothyroidism
Hypokalemia
Weight gain
Proteinuria
Diarrhea
12) A 26-year-old G1 at 37 weeks presents to the hospital in active labor. She has no medical problems and has a normal prenatal course except for fetal growth restriction. She undergoes an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a female infant weighing 1950 g. The infant is at risk for which of the following complications?
Hyperglycemia
Fever
Hypertension
Anemia
Hypoxia
13) A 20-year-old G1 at 36 weeks is being monitored for preeclampsia; she rings the bell for the nurse because she is developing a headache and feels funny. As you and the nurse enter the room, you witness the patient undergoing tonic-clonic seizure. You secure the patient’s airway, and within a few minutes the seizure is over. The patient’s blood pressure monitor indicates a pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. Which of the following medications is recommended for the prevention of a recurrent eclamptic seizure?
Hydralazine
Magnesium sulfate
Labetalol
Pitocin
Nifedipine
4) You are doing postpartum rounds on a 22-year-old G1P1, who vaginally delivered an infant male at 36 weeks after an induction for severe preeclampsia. During her labor she required hydralazine to control her blood pressures. She is on magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 154/98 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.3C. She has adequate urine output at greater than 40 cc/h. On examination, she is oriented to time and place, but she is somnolent and her speech is slurred. She has good movement and strength of her extremities, but her deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Adverse reaction to hydralazine
Hypertensive stroke
Magnesium toxicity
Sinus venous thrombosis
. Transient ischemic attack
15) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3 at 38 weeks' gestation, comes to the labor and delivery ward because of contractions. Her prenatal course was significant for low maternal weight gain. She had a normal 18-week ultrasound survey of the fetus and normal 36-week ultrasound to check fetal presentation. Her blood type is O positive, and she is rubella immune. Three years ago, she had a multiple myomectomy. She takes prenatal vitamins and has no known drug allergies. She smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
Amniotic fluid embolism
Anencephaly
Macrosomia
Rh isoimmunization
Uterine rupture
16) A 25-year-old G1 PO woman at 39 weeks gestation by last menstrual period confirmed by first trimester ultrasound presents to the hospital with complaints of vulvar pain and a "bump" on her vulva. On examination you see clear vesicles and inguinal adenopathy. No cervical or vaginal lesions are present. She is 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced and at -2 station. Fetal heart rate and contraction monitoring is started. She is contracting regularly. No abnormalities are seen. Which of the following is the most effective intervention to reduce neonatal morbidity in this patient?
Immediate cesarean section
Expectant management
Augmentation of labor with oxytocin
Tocolysis with nifedipine
Antiviral treatment with acyclov
7) A 25-year-old female presents to the office for a prenatal visit. She is gravida 3, para 0, ab 2. Her first abortion was an elective abortion at 18 weeks gestation. Her second abortion was a spontaneous abortion at 17 weeks gestation. She has had a cervical loop electrosurgical excision(LEEP) procedure, 8 months ago, for severe cervical dysplasia. Her LMP was 16 weeks ago. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She has had an uneventful pregnancy thus far and denies any concerns at this visit. Her temperature is 98.6 F (37 C), blood pressure is 100/64, heart rate is 72/minute and respirations are 17/minute. Her uterine fundus measures 14.5 cm and is consistent with a 15-16 weeks gestation. The fetal heart rate is 140/minute. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
Abruption placentae
Cervical insufficiency
Uterine rupture
Polyhydramnios
Small for gestational age fetus
18) A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the labor and delivery ward because of contractions. Her prenatal course was significant for a positive Group B Streptococcus (GBS) perineal culture at 35 weeks’ gestation. She has no medical problems. She had a cholecystectomy at the age of 17. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She is found to be 5 cm dilated with contractions every 2 minutes. She is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor and penicillin is started for GBS prophylaxis. Shortly after admission to labor and delivery the patient complains of warmth and tingling of her face. She notes feeling like her lips and tongue are swollen. Physical examination demonstrates normal vital signs but with generalized urticaria and angioedema. Her abdomen is gravid and there is scant bloody mucous around her genital area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Eclampsia
Penicillin allergy
Placental abruption
Preeclampsia
Thyroid storm
19) A 33-year-old woman comes to your office for a blood pressure check. She has had chronic hypertension for the past 4 years, for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide. Her blood pressure has been reasonably well controlled with this medication. She also uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (i.e., the pill containing an estrogen and a progestin). She has no other medical problems and has never had surgery. She is allergic to penicillin. Her physical examination is normal. This patient should be counseled that patients with chronic hypertension who are also using the combined oral contraceptive pill might be at increased risk of which of the following?
Elevated blood pressure and smoking
. Endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer
Endometrial cancer and stroke
Myocardial infarction and ovarian cancer
Myocardial infarction and stroke
20) A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with a gush of fluid and regular contractions. Examination shows that she is grossly ruptured, contracting every 2 minutes, and that her cervix is dilated to 4 cm. The fetal heart rate tracing is in the 140s and reactive. She is admitted to labor and delivery, and over the following 4 hours she progresses to 9 cm dilation. Over the past hour, the fetal heart rate has increased from a baseline of 140 to a baseline of 160. Furthermore, moderate to severe variable decelerations are seen with each contraction. The fetal heart rate does not respond to scalp stimulation. The decision is made to proceed with cesarean delivery. Which of the following is the reason for the cesarean delivery and the preoperative diagnosis?
Fetal acidemia
Fetal distress
Fetal hypoxic encephalopathy
Low neonatal APGAR scores
. Non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
21) A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She had intense abdominal pain and became agitated and restless in the ambulance. She has mild vaginal bleeding and diffuse abdominal pain. She is on continuous fetal heart monitoring. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her blood pressure is 90/60mmHg, pulse is 120/min and respirations are 32/min. Physical examination shows hyperventilation, cold extremities and a distended abdomen with irregular contours. Fetal heart monitoring shows repetitive late decelerations and a long-term variability of 2 cycles/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Abruptio placenta
Placenta previa
Vasa previa
Uterine rupture
Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
22) A 27-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks gestation presents to your office complaining of a 2-day history of nausea and emesis. On physical examination, you notice that she is icteric sclera and skin. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.2C (99F), pulse of 102 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg. She is sent to labor and delivery for additional evaluation. In labor and delivery, the fetal heart rate is in the 160s with good variability, but nonreactive. Blood is drawn and the following results are obtained: WBC = 22,000, Hct = 40.0, platelets = 72,000, SGOT/PT = 334/386, glucose = 58, creatinine = 2.2, fibrinogen = 209, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 65 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for this patient?
Immediate delivery
Cholecystectomy
Intravenous diphenhydramine
MgSO4 therapy
Bed rest and supportive measures since this condition is self-limited
23) A 38-year-old G6P4 is brought to the hospital by ambulance for vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks. She undergoes an emergency cesarean delivery for fetal bradycardia under general anesthesia. In the recovery room 4 hours after her surgery, the patient develops respiratory distress and tachycardia. Lung examination reveals rhonchi and rales in the right lower lobe. Oxygen therapy is initiated and chest x-ray is ordered. Which of the following is most likely to have contributed to her condition?
Fasting during labor
Antacid medications prior to anesthesia
Endotracheal intubation
Xtubation with the patient in the lateral recumbent position with her head lowered
Extubation with the patient in the semierect position (semi-Fowler position)
24) A 32-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation presented to the hospital with ruptured membranes and 4 cm dilated. She has a history of two prior vaginal deliveries, with her largest child weighing 3800 g at birth. Over the next 2 hours she progresses to 7 cm dilated. Two hours later, she remains 7 cm dilated. The estimated fetal weight by ultrasound is 3200 g. Which of the following labor abnormalities best describes this patient?
Prolonged latent phase
Protracted active-phase dilation
Hypertonic dysfunction
Secondary arrest of dilation
Primary dysfunction
25) A 25-year-old G1P0 patient at 41 weeks presents to labor and delivery complaining of gross rupture of membranes and painful uterine contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. On digital examination, her cervix is 3 cm dilated and completely effaced with fetal feet palpable through the cervix. The estimated weight of the fetus is about 6 lb, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Which of the following is the best method to achieve delivery?
Deliver the fetus vaginally by breech extraction
Deliver the baby vaginally after external cephalic version
Perform an emergent cesarean section
Perform an emergent cesarean section
Perform a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
26) A 22-year-old G1P0 has just undergone a spontaneous vaginal delivery. As the placenta is being delivered, a red fleshy mass is noted to be protruding out from behind the placenta. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
Begin intravenous oxytocin infusion
Call for immediate assistance from other medical personne
Continue to remove the placenta manually
Have the anesthesiologist administer magnesium sulfate
Shove the placenta back into the uterus
27) Following a vaginal delivery, a woman develops a fever, lower abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness. She is alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. Large gram-positive rods suggestive of clostridia are seen in a smear of the cervix. Which of the following is most closely tied to a decision to proceed with hysterectomy?
Close observation for renal failure or hemolysis
Immediate radiographic examination for hydrosalpinx
High-dose antibiotic therapy
Fever of 103F
Gas gangrene
28) A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 16 weeks' gestation undergoes amniocentesis for evaluation of Down syndrome. She has no past medical history. Immediately after the procedure she becomes breathless, cyanotic and loses consciousness. Minutes later, she experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A generalized purpuric rash is noted. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 26/min. Oxygen saturation is 75% on 100% facemask. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Low molecular w eight heparin
Intravenous fluids
Immediate induction of labor
. Intubation and mechanical ventilation
Administer intravenous diazepam
29) A 28-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of 2 days of a near absence of fetal movements. This is only her second prenatal visit because she has skipped many appointments. She has a medical history significant for chronic hepatitis C infection and a MRSA skin abscess that was drained. She smokes cigarettes and uses heroin, cocaine and alcohol. She says that she is trying hard to be sober. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows a fundal height of 26cm (10.2in). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Nonstress test (NST) shows no accelerations. After vibroacoustic stimulation, NST is still not reactive so a biophysical profile is ordered and shows a score of 2. Her lab work showed the following: Complete blood count: Hemoglobin: 8.0 g/L, MCV: 105fl, Platelets: 120,000/mm3, Leukocyte count: 3,500/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat non-stress test, twice weekly
Perform contraction stress test
Administer corticosteroids and repeat biophysical profile in 24 hours
Assess for fetal lung maturity and deliver if it is achieved
Deliver the baby immediately
30) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions or abdominal pain. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/70 mm of Hg, pulse is 98/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows continuous bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows complete placenta previa. Fetal heart tracing shows repetitive late decelerations. The patient's vital signs are stabilized, but the bleeding continues. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Immediate induction of labor
Emergency cesarean section
Administer corticosteroids and perform elective surgery
Forceps delivery
Continue expectant management until the bleeding stops
31) A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her prenatal course was unremarkable, including a normal 20- week ultrasound. Physical examination demonstrates a contracted uterus with hypertonus. A large "gush" of blood occurs during the cervical examination, which demonstrates a long and closed cervix. The fetal heart rate tracing shows severe late decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Expectant management
Magnesium sulfate
Oxytocin
Terbutaline
Cesarean section
32) A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that this morning she passed 2 quarter-sized clots of blood from her vagina. Otherwise, she states that she is feeling well. The baby has been moving normally and she has had no contractions or gush of fluid from the vagina. Her obstetrical history is significant for 2 low-transverse cesarean deliveries for non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracings. An ultrasound is performed that demonstrates a complete placenta previa. For which of the following conditions is this patient at highest risk?
Dystocia
Intrauterine fetal demise (IUFD)
Placenta accreta
Preeclampsia
Uterine rupture
33) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated. She has a history of cocaine addiction. Ultrasonogram performed at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 15/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness, hyperactivity, and increased uterine tone. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Abruptio placentae
Placenta previa
Vasa previa
Uterine rupture
Normal labor
34) 28-year-old, G2 P1 woman presented to the hospital at 34-weeks gestation because of midepigastric and right upper quadrant pain associated with nausea and vomiting. She has been closely followed for mild hypertension and mild proteinuria (300 mg/24hr) on an outpatient basis since the 28th week of gestation. Her previous pregnancy was without incident. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 160/94 mmHg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows epigastric and right upper quadrant tenderness; her bowel sounds are slightly reduced. The extremities have 2+ edema. Fetal heart sounds are audible on Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 8.2g/dl, Platelets: 96,000/mm3, Prothrombin time: 12.4 sec, Partial thromboplastin time: 23.6 sec, Serum creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl, Total bilirubin: 2.6 mg/dl, Direct bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dl, Alkaline phosphatase: 120 U/L, Aspartate aminotransferase: 308 U/L, Alanine aminotransferase: 265 U/L, Lipase: 53 U/L. Peripheral blood smear shows numerous red blood cell fragments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
HELLP syndrome
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Viral hepatitis
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
35) A 21-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks gestation. She has no complaints. She has no significant past medical history. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. She takes prenatal vitamins regularly, and has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a uterine size appropriate for gestational age, and fetal heart tones are heard. One hour 50gram oral glucose tolerance test shows a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl. Urine culture grew 105 colony forming units/mL of E coli. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
Chorioamnionitis
Endometritis
Difficult labor due to fetal macrosomia
Acute pyelonephritis
Postpartum hemorrhage
1) A healthy 25-year-old G1P0 at 40 weeks gestational age comes to your office to see you for a routine obstetric (OB) visit. The patient complains to you that on several occasions she has experienced dizziness, light-headedness, and feeling as if she is going to pass out when she lies down on her back to take a nap. What is the most appropriate plan of management for this patient?
Monitor her for 24 hours with a Holter monitor to rule out an arrhythmia
Do an ECG
Do an arterial blood gas analysis
Refer her immediately to a neurologist
Reassure her that nothing is wrong with her and encourage her not to lie flat on her back
2) A 22-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks gestational age. She voices concern because she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest, and arms. She is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins and wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
Tell her that this is a condition which requires evaluation by a vascular surgeon
Tell her that you are concerned that she may have serious liver disease and order liver function tests
Refer her to a dermatologist for further workup and evaluation
Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy
Recommend that she wear an abdominal support
3) A 32-year-old G2P1001 at 20 weeks gestational age presents to the emergency room complaining of constipation and abdominal pain for the past 24 hours. The patient also admits to bouts of nausea and emesis since eating a very spicy meal at a new Thai restaurant the evening before. She denies a history of any medical problems. During her last pregnancy, the patient underwent an elective cesarean section at term to deliver a fetus in the breech presentation. The emergency room doctor who examines her pages you and reports that the patient has a low-grade fever of 37.7C (100F), with a normal pulse and blood pressure. She is minimally tender to deep palpation with hypoactive bowel sounds. She has no rebound tenderness. The patient has a WBC of 13,000, and electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
The history and physical examination are consistent with constipation, which is commonly associated with pregnancy; the patient should be discharged with reassurance and instructions to give herself a soapsuds enema and follow a high-fiber diet with laxative use as needed
The patient should be prepped for the operating room immediately to have an emergent appendectomy
The patient should be reassured that her symptoms are a result of the spicy meal consumed the evening before and should be given Pepto-Bismol to alleviate the symptoms
The patient should be sent to radiology for an upright abdominal x-ray
Intravenous antiemetics should be ordered to treat the patient’s hyperemesis gravidarum
4) A healthy 34-year-old G1P0 patient comes to see you in your office for a routine OB visit at 12 weeks gestational age. She tells you that she has stopped taking her prenatal vitamins with iron supplements because they make her sick and she has trouble remembering to take a pill every day. A review of her prenatal labs reveals that her hematocrit is 39%. Which of the following statements is the best way to counsel this patient?
Tell the patient that she does not need to take her iron supplements because her prenatal labs indicate that she is not anemic and therefore she will not absorb the iron supplied in prenatal vitamins
. Tell the patient that if she consumes a diet rich in iron, she does not need to take any iron supplements
Tell the patient that if she fails to take her iron supplements, her fetus will be anemic
Tell the patient that she needs to take the iron supplements even though she is not anemic in order to meet the demands of pregnancy
Tell the patient that she needs to start retaking her iron supplements when her hemoglobin falls below 11g/dL
5) A 14-year-old G1P0 girl who is 29 weeks’ pregnant with twins presents to the emergency department following a seizure. She was watching television and stood up to go to the bathroom when she “fell down and started shaking.” The patient has no history of seizures and is otherwise healthy. She missed her last obstetrician’s appointment, and her aunt states that her niece has had a lot of headaches and swelling over the past 2 days. On examination the patient is somnolent and difficult to arouse, and has edema of her hands and face. Her blood pressure is 205/120 mm Hg, pulse is 80/ min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. The fetal heart rate is 130/min. Which of the following is the most correct advice for the patient’s aunt?
Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, but this can be managed with anti-seizure medications until the baby can be delivered at term”
Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
) A 19-year-old woman at 32 weeks’ gestation was the driver in a front-end motor vehicle crash. The air bags did not inflate, and the patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen. The patient is taken to a nearby emergency department in stable condition, where she notes a small amount of bright red blood on her underwear. Maternal vital signs are significant for a heart rate of 110/min and blood pressure of 110/55 mm Hg. What is most appropriate next step in management?
Administration of Rh0(D) immune globulin
Disseminated intravascular coagulation panel
External fetal heart rate and uterine monitoring
Immediate cesarean delivery
Immediate vaginal delivery
7) A 19-year-old G1P0 woman presents to the emergency department in active labor and delivers a full-term male infant. The infant appears healthy with the exception of jaundice (bilirubin 10 mg/dL [>95th percentile]). The mother does not speak English, but a cousin who does states that he has seen the mother taking pills prescribed by her doctor, although he does not know the reason she was taking medication. Based on the newborn’s jaundice, which drug was the mother most likely taking?
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Lithium
Phenytoin
Tretinoin
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
8) A 30-year-old obese G3P2 woman is in active labor at 41 weeks’ gestation. She has no significant past medical history, and had an uncomplicated pregnancy with appropriate prenatal evaluation. The patient ruptured membranes spontaneously 30 minutes ago. Contractions occur regularly every 2–3 minutes. Early decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate monitor with each of the past five contractions. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
Change the maternal position
No further management is required
Place a fetal scalp probe
Prepare for emergent cesarean delivery
Start an amnioinfusion of saline
9) A 25-year-old G2P1 woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to her obstetrician complaining of restlessness and weakness for the past month. She says her boyfriend recently left her and their 2-year-old son, and she feels overwhelmed with this pregnancy. She denies feeling depressed but does report that she has trouble sleeping. She had an upper respiratory infection last month, “caught from my son,” and states she still has a sore throat. Laboratory tests show: WBC count: 8000/mm3; Hemoglobin: 11.0 g/dL; Hematocrit: 40%, Platelet count: 250,000/mm3; Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 0.5μU/mL; Free thyroxine: 4.0 ng/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Measure postpartum thyroid hormone levels
Perform partial thyroidectomy
Start levothyroxine therapy
Start propylthiouracil therapy
Start radioiodine therapy
10) A 36-year-old G1P0 woman pregnant with twins presents to her obstetrician for her routine 32-week appointment. She has gained 5.4kg (12-lb) in the past 2 weeks. When questioned about her weight gain, she states she has had headaches and some blurred vision for the past 2 weeks, which she thinks is secondary to dehydration. To circumvent this, she has been drinking a lot of water, which she claims “is making me swell, even my hands.” She also has had some epigastric pain for the past 2 weeks, which she attributes to “all the water I’ve been drinking.” Her blood pressure is 142/90 mm Hg, pulse is 105/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Urinalysis reveals 1+ glycosuria and 4+ proteinuria. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Administer magnesium sulfate only
Administer oral antihypertensive therapy
Expectant management
Induce labor
Platelet transfusion
11) A 23-year-old woman develops painful vulvar vesicles that contain intranuclear inclusions on cytologic examination. She is 22 weeks’ pregnant. Which of the following statements about genital herpes is correct?
Acyclovir should be prescribed from 36 gestational weeks until after delivery in women with primary herpes anytime during pregnancy
Herpes cultures from the cervix should be obtained weekly beginning at 36 weeks’ gestation
An active genital herpetic lesion any time after 20 weeks’ gestation requires a cesarean section
Intrauterine infection with herpes is common after 20 weeks in women with primary herpes
Pitocin induction of labor should be started within 4 hours after ruptured amniotic membranes in a woman at term with active genital herpes
12) A 63-year-old woman has a 3-cm pruritic lesion on her right labia majora that she has noted for approximately 9 months. She has been treated with various topical creams and ointments for vulvar candidiasis without resolution of her symptoms or lesion. When you examine this woman, the lesion is still present. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear of the lesion
Colposcopy of the lesion
Biopsy of the lesion
Wide local excision of the lesion
Vulvectomy
13) A 35-year-old G3P3 woman has been experiencing bilateral breast pain for the past year. Breast examination and mammography are normal. Conservative measures have failed. Which of the following medications is most likely to bring relief?
Clomiphene
Tamoxifen
Danazol
Hydrochlorothiazide
Medroxyprogesterone
14) In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and β-hCG assays. The β-hCG test is positive, and the prolactin level is 100 ng/mL (normal is <25 ng/mL in nonpregnant women in this assay). This patient requires which of the following?
Routine obstetric care
Computed tomography (CT) scan of her sella turcica to rule out pituitary adenoma
Repeat measurements of serum prolactin to ensure that values do not increase more than 300ng/mL
Bromocriptine to suppress prolactin
Evaluation for possible hypothyroidism
15) A 23-year-old married woman consults you because she and her husband have never consummated their marriage because she has severe pain with attempts at vaginal penetration. Her pelvic examination is normal except for involuntary tightening of her vaginal muscles when you attempt to insert a speculum. Which of the following conditions would best be treated with the use of vaginal dilators?
Primary dysmenorrhea
Vaginismus
Deep-thrust dyspareunia
Anorgasmia
Vulvar vestibulitis
16) A 32-year-old Hispanic woman presents to the emergency department complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 18/min. Her abdomen is soft, non-tender and non-distended. Her pelvic examination reveals approximately 200 mL of clotted blood in the vagina, an open cervical os with tissue protruding from it, and a 10-week-sized, non-tender uterus. Leukocyte count is 9000/mm3, hematocrit is 22%, and platelet count is 275,000/mm3. Quantitative hCG is 100,000mIU/L (normal: 5-200,000mIU/L). Pelvic ultrasound shows echogenic material within the uterine cavity consistent with blood or tissue, no adnexal masses, and no free fluid. No viable pregnancy is seen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discharge to home
Culdocentesis
Dilation and evacuation
Laparoscopy
Laparotomy
17) A 25-year-old Caucasian woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 26 weeks' gestational age presents to her physician's office complaining of spotting from the vagina. She has no contractions and reports normal fetal movement. She denies any history of a bleeding disorder. Her temperature is 37.3 C (99.1 F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 14/min. Her abdomen is gravid and benign, with a fundal height of 26 cm. A placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound examination. Pelvic examination reveals some scant blood in the vagina, a closed os, and no uterine tenderness. Leukocyte count is 12,000/mm3, hematocrit is 33%, and platelet count is 140,000/mm3. Her blood type is A, Rh negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Antibiotics
Blood transfusion
Magnesium sulfate
Platelet transfusion
RhoGAM™
18) A 29-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to the labor and delivery ward with strong contractions every 2 minutes and cervical change from 3 to 4 cm. Over the next 5 hours she progresses to full dilation. After 3 hours of pushing, the physician cuts a mediolateral episiotomy, and the woman delivers a 3770-g (8-lb, 4-oz) boy. Which of the following is the main advantage of a mediolateral episiotomy over a median (midline) episiotomy?
Easier surgical repair of the episiotomy
Mproved healing of the episiotomy
Less blood loss
Less likely to cause a fourth-degree extension
Less pain
19) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 38 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery ward complaining of headache. She has no contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable until she noted the onset of swelling in her face, hands, and feet this week. Her obstetric history is significant for two normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries. She has no significant past medical or surgical history. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 160/92 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. Examination reveals 3+ patellar reflexes bilaterally. A cervical examination reveals that her cervix is 3 cm dilated and 50% effaced and soft, and that the fetus is at 0 station and vertex. The fetal heart rate has a baseline of 140/min and is reactive. The results from a 24-hour urine collection show 5200 mg of protein (normal <300 mg/24 hours). The patient is given magnesium sulfate intravenously for seizure prophylaxis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Expectant management
Intramuscular glucocorticoids
V oxytocin
Subcutaneous terbutaline
Cesarean section
20) You have just performed diagnostic laparoscopy on a patient with chronic pelvic pain and dyspareunia. The patient had multiple implants of endometriosis on the uterosacral ligaments and ovaries and several on the rectosigmoid colon. At the time of the procedure, you ablated all of the visible lesions on the peritoneal surfaces with the CO2 laser. But because of the extent of the patient’s disease, you recommend postoperative medical treatment. Which of the following medications is the best option for the treatment of this patient’s endometriosis?
Continuous unopposed oral estrogen
Dexamethasone
Danazol
Gonadotropins
. Parlodel
21) You are treating a 31-year-old woman with danazol for endometriosis. You should warn the patient of potential side effects of prolonged treatment with the medication. When used in the treatment of endometriosis, which of the following changes should the patient expect?
Occasional pelvic pain, since danazol commonly causes ovarian enlargement
Lighter or absent menstruation, since danazol causes endometrial atrophy
Heavier or prolonged periods, since danazol causes endometrial hyperplasia
More frequent Pap smear screening, since danazol exposure is a risk factor for cervical dysplasia
Postcoital bleeding caused by the inflammatory effect of danazol on the endocervical and endometrial glands
22) A 30-year-old woman with a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase is planning a first pregnancy. Her physician explains the increased risk of mental retardation, as well congenital heart disease, in the infant. Which of the following should also be recommended?
Low phenylalanine diet should be initiated before conception
Dietary supplementation with glycine is recommended
Dietary supplementation with L-carnitine is recommended
There is no need for diet control if phenylalanine levels are mildly elevated
Vitamin B6 should be administered to the neonate on delivery
23) A 22-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit She had a previous full-term, normal vaginal delivery 2 years ago. She has no medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. Pelvic examination reveals a mucopurulent cervical discharge, no cervical motion tenderness, and an 8-week-sized, non-tender uterus. A cervical swab is performed. Two days later, the laboratory calls to notify the physician that the patient is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Metronidazole
Penicillin
Tetracycline
24) A 39-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of a persistent vaginal itch, vaginal discharge, and dysuria. She has had these same symptoms several times over the past 2 years and each time has been diagnosed with Candida vulvovaginitis. On physical examination, she has a thick, white vaginal discharge and significant vulvar and vaginal erythema. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) smear shows pseudohyphae; the normal saline smear is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Refer to psychiatry
Creen for cocaine abuse
Screen for diabetes
Screen for thalassemia
Treat with metronidazole
25) A 22-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the physician with lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She is unable to keep anything down. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills. The patient's last menstrual period was 15 days ago. Her temperature is 39C (102.2F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes, soft and symmetrical abdomen, and diffuse tenderness over the lower quadrants. External genitalia show no abnormalities; speculum examination shows purulent discharge from the cervical os. The uterus is normal in size but is tender to palpation and motion. The adnexae are markedly tender but no palpable mass is noted. Cervical cultures are pending. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Admit the patient and wait for culture results
Inpatient treatment with cefotetan and doxycycline
Outpatient treatment with ceftriaxone and doxycycline
. Outpatient treatment with metronidazole and ampicillin
. Outpatient treatment with oral amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
26) A 25-year-old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. She has been followed for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. She is currently having intermittent bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows placental abruption and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Placenta previa is ruled out. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 99/min and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity, increased uterine tone and vaginal bleeding. Her cervix is 1cm dilated and 10% effaced at the time of admission. Fetal heart tracing shows a rate of 110/min, a long-term variability of 4 cycles/min and a beat-to-beat variability of 20/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Induction of labor
Emergency cesarean section
Scheduled cesarean section within next 48 hours
Tocolysis to prevent the abruption from evolving
Conservative management in hospital
27) A healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual physical examination. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Menses occur every 28 days and last 4-5 days. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She became sexually active at age 18 and has had 3 sexual partners since then. The patient is in a relationship with her boyfriend of one year and uses oral contraceptives. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs and general physical examination are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows no cervical motion tenderness, adnexal masses, or cervical discharge. Pap smear is performed in the office. The results show adequate cellularity with transformation zone present and atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Colposcopy
Human papillomavirus DNA test
Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
Pap smear in 3 years
Repeat Pap smear in 3 months
28) A 28-year-old G2, P1 woman in her 26th week of gestation comes to the office due to intermittent episodes of abdominal pain. She has been having these episodes for the past 4 days, and thinks that her fetus may be in distress. She points to her right flank when asked about the location of the pain, and says that it occasionally radiates to the groin area. She cannot identify any exacerbating or relieving factors. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. Her past medical history is significant for pelvic inflammatory disease. Her temperature is 37.5 C (99.5 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. She is in considerable pain at the moment. Deep palpation of the right flank reveals tenderness. There is no CVA tenderness. Urinalysis shows: Specific gravity: 1.020; Blood: ++; Glucose: negative; Ketones: negative; Protein: negative; Leukocyte esterase: negative; Nitrites: negative. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Cervical cultures
. Shockwave lithotripsy
Intravenous pyelogram
Ultrasound of the abdomen
. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
29) A 36-year-old woman comes to your office complaining of a 12-month history of inter-menstrual bleeding and heavy menses. She has had type-2 diabetes for the past 4-years, managed with glipizide and metformin. She has no family history of gynecological malignancies. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), and blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg. Her BMI is 30 Kg/m2. Physical examination shows pale mucus membranes. Pelvic examination is within normal limits; no vaginal lesions are noted. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Her hemoglobin is 10.8 g/dl and platelet count is 223,000/mm3. Coagulation studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Prescribe combined oral contraceptive pills
Conjugated estrogens for 3-months
Cyclic progestins
Endometrial ablation
Endometrial biopsy
30) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 90/70 mm of Hg, pulse is 98/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows continuous bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows complete placenta previa. Fetal heart tracing shows repetitive late decelerations. The patient's vital signs are stabilized with fluids, but the bleeding continues. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Immediate induction of labor
Emergency cesarean section
Administer corticosteroids and perform elective surgery later
Forceps delivery
Continue expectant management until the bleeding stops
31) A 32-year-old multiparous African-American woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 14 weeks' gestation. She complains of the recent appearance of facial hair and acne. The beta-HCG level is consistent with gestational age. Examination shows hirsutism. Ultrasonogram shows an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and bilateral solid nodular masses in both ovaries. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Suction evacuation of uterus
Exploratory laparotomy
Ultrasound guided aspiration of the mass
Diagnostic laparoscopy
Reassurance and follow-up with ultrasonogram
32) A 93-year-old woman is sent to your office from the nursing home for evaluation of vaginal bleeding. She is a poor historian and history is provided by her caregiver. Per her caregiver, she has a history of cerebrovascular accident with residual weakness, myocardial infarction, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic renal insufficiency. She has been wheelchair-bound and living in the nursing home since her stroke five years ago. She takes multiple medications. Her temperature is 37.2C (98.9F), blood pressure is 176/76mmHg, pulse is 74/min and respirations are 14/min. She is awake, alert, and oriented to person, place and time. Physical examination reveals a friable, bleeding vaginal mass 3 cm in size, and a malodorous vaginal discharge. The remainder of the examination reveals left-sided spasticity and weakness. Biopsy of the mass reveals squamous cell carcinoma of the vagina, that does not extend to the pelvic wall. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows no evidence of metastasis. You call the patient's daughter, who is the power of attorney, and she requests that you do the best you can. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Surgical resection
Radiation therapy
. Combination chemotherapy
Biologic agent therapy
. Send her to hospice
33) A 16-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with her mother complaining of primary amenorrhea. Her past medical history is not significant. Her family history is significant for hypothyroidism in her mother. Her vital signs are normal. Examination reveals absent breasts, as well as pubic and axillary hair. The uterus and gonads are visualized on ultrasound, and the FSH level is increased. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Determine serum estrogen level
GnRH stimulation test
Determine Prolactin and TSH levels
. Gonadal biopsy
. Karyotype
34) A 59-year-old patient with a 2-year history of metastatic breast cancer presents with the acute onset of severe low back pain. She underwent a radical mastectomy and lymphadenectomy 3 years ago. Four of seven nodes were positive at the time of her original diagnosis. One year ago she developed an asymptomatic metastasis to her right femur. On physical examination, she is in severe discomfort and finds movement extremely difficult. She has exquisite tenderness in the lumbar vertebral area, and any motion of her legs or lower back produces extreme pain. An emergent MRI reveals large lytic lesions in L3 and L4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discuss her wishes regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Refer her to a pain management consultant
Prescribe bed rest with high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Schedule her for radiation therapy to the lumbar spine
Schedule her for an emergency nuclear bone scan
35) A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician with her husband because of vaginal irritation and a malodorous vaginal discharge. Her symptoms started 4 days ago. She also notes pain with intercourse and dysuria. Pelvic examination reveals vaginal and cervical erythema and a copious greenish, frothy discharge. The pH of this discharge is 6.0. A wet preparation is done with normal saline, which shows numerous flagellated organisms that are slightly larger than the surrounding white blood cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Do not treat the patient or her partne
Treat only the patient with metronidazole
Treat the patient and her partner with metronidazole
Treat only die patient with penicillin
Treat the patient and her partner with penicillin
36) A 24-year-old woman asks her physician about the possibility of genetic screening for BRCA1 mutations. Her mother died of breast carcinoma at age 44, and a sister had a diagnosis of in situ ductal carcinoma at age 38. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give this woman?
Explain that BRCA1 mutations are not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
Recommend screening only if she is of Ashkenazi Jewish descent
Recommend counselling before genetic screening is undertaken
Suggest prophylactic bilateral mastectomy instead of screening
Not recommend counselling before genetic screening is undertaken
37) A 29-year-old woman presents for a routine prenatal visit. She is 24 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period and ultrasound. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She works as a financial advisor in a local firm. She and her husband have been monogamous since getting married 5 years ago. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. At the end of the visit she tells you that her newborn niece recently had a group B streptococcal infection and she is afraid that her child might develop the same. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Your niece would not have developed the infection if the obstetrician had followed the standard of care
You do not have any risk factors of harboring or transmitting that infection to your child
Only a small percentage of unfortunate children develop this infection. Most children will be fine
. I understand your concern. Let me take vaginal and rectal swabs for culture now
I understand your concern. I will test for the infection two weeks prior to the expected date of delivery
38) A 19-year-old woman presents to the physician's office for routine physical examination and Pap smear. She has no complaints. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no significant past medical history and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72mm Hg. Complete physical exam including pelvic examination is unremarkable. Cervical swab is sent for nucleic acid amplification of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. One week later, the nucleic acid amplification test returns positive for Chlamydia infection. The patient is still asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate next step in the management?
. Repeat the test for confirmation
. Reassurance and no treatment at this time
. One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Single dose azithromycin
39) A 25-year-old woman delivered a baby boy at 38 weeks gestation. The newborn has a small body size with microcephaly, hypoplasia of the distal phalanges of the fingers and toes, excess hair and a cleft palate. He weighs 2.5kg (5.5lb). Further history or evaluation of the mother would most likely reveal which of the following?
. Repeat the test for confirmation
. Reassurance and no treatment at this time
. One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
. Single dose azithromycin
39) A 25-year-old woman delivered a baby boy at 38 weeks gestation. The newborn has a small body size with microcephaly, hypoplasia of the distal phalanges of the fingers and toes, excess hair and a cleft palate. He weighs 2.5kg (5.5lb). Further history or evaluation of the mother would most likely reveal which of the following?
. Untreated syphilis
Phenytoin use
Alcohol abuse
. Cocaine abuse
. Azithromycin use
40) A 30-year-old obese white female comes to the physician with a six months history of oligomenorrhea. She never had this problem before. She has no galactorrhea. She has gained significant weight over the past two years despite a regular exercise program. She has also experienced hair loss during this time. She has had regular Pap smears since the age of 20; pap smears have shown no abnormalities. She takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Her mother has a history of endometrial carcinoma and her grandmother had a history of ovarian carcinoma. Physical examination shows male pattern baldness. Abdominal and pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Serum prolactin level and thyroid function tests are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Screening mammogram
Oral glucose tolerance test
. CA-125 levels, annually
. Diagnostic laparoscopy
Iron studies
41) A 36-year-old woman presents to your office for contraception. She has had three vaginal deliveries without complications. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, well-controlled with a diuretic, and a seizure disorder. Her last seizure was 12 years ago. Currently she does not take any antiepileptic medications. She also complains of stress-related headaches that are relieved with an over-the-counter pain medication. She denies any history of surgeries. She is divorced, smokes one pack of cigarettes per day, and has three to four alcoholic drinks per week. On examination, her vital signs include weight 90 kg, blood pressure 126/80 mmHg, pulse 68 beats per minute, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and temperature 36.4C (97.6F). Her examination is normal except for some lower extremity nontender varicosities. She has taken birth control pills in the past and wants to restart them because they help with her cramps. Which of the following would contradict the use of combination oral contraceptive pills in this patient?
Varicose veins
Tension headache
Seizure disorders
. Smoking in a woman over 35 years of age
. Mild essential hypertension
42) A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 12 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date, and her past medical history is unremarkable. Her medications include a multivitamin with iron and a folate supplement daily. She has no known drug allergies. Examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 12 weeks gestation. Clean-catch urine culture grows >100,000 colony-forming units/ml of Escherichia coli Sensitivity testing on the bacteria is pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Amoxicillin
Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline
No antibiotic therapy
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
43) A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. She is working as an aerobics instructor and is concerned about the effect her exercise schedule might have on the pregnancy. She teaches 30 minutes daily in the morning and does not feel fatigued. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
"You need to reduce the duration of exercise time to 15 minutes per day"
. "You need to reduce the intensity of exercise"
"You should continue your current aerobic exercise schedule"
"You may have prolonged labor during delivery"
"You can even intensify your training efforts if you want"
44) A 25-year-old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. She has been followed for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. She is currently having intermittent bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows placental abruption and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Placenta previa is ruled out. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 99/min and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity, increased uterine tone and vaginal bleeding. Her cervix is 1em dilated and 10% effaced at the time of admission. Fetal heart tracing shows a rate of 110/min, a long-term variability of 4 cycles/min and a beat-to-beat variability of 20/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management
Induction of labor
Emergency cesarean section
. Scheduled cesarean section within next 48 hours
Tocolysis to prevent the abruption from evolving
Conservative management in hospital
45) A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has colicky pain in the suprapubic region radiating to the back. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg, pulse is 84/min and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and products of conception are seen through it. Blood for grouping and typing is sent. The patient is treated appropriately, and all products of conception are evacuated. She is stabilized and transferred to the ward. Laboratory studies there show: Hematocrit: 33%; WBC: 6,000/mm3; Blood type: AB; Rh negative; Antibody titer: 1:4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Monitor coagulation profile
Administer RhoGAM
Obtain karyotyping of the mother
Screening for TORCH infections
. Order anti-nuclear antibodies
46) A 7-year-old girl is seen in your office after her mother began to notice significant changes in her physical appearance. The mother says that she first noticed the development of her daughter's breasts, and she became more worried when her daughter developed both axillary and pubic hair. The patient's grandmother told the mother not to worry because two of the patient's aunts entered puberty at an early age. The patient has not had any behavioral changes or a decline in her school performance, and she denies headaches, visual changes, or vomiting. Physical examination reveals the presence of axillary hair, pubic hair at Tanner stage 3, and breast development at Tanner stage 4. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. GnRH stimulation test results in an increase of LH. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
. Reassurance
Cyproterone acetate
Danazol therapy
GnRH agonist therapy
. Medroxyprogesterone acetate therapy
47) A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of intermenstrual bleeding and heavy menses. Her other medical problems include hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. Her blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. Her BMI is 40 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no obvious abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy shows "complex hyperplasia without atypia." She has three young healthy children and does not want more children in the future. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Hysterectomy
Cyclic progestins
. Low dose oral contraceptives
. Estrogen replacement
Endometrial ablation
48) A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 34 weeks' gestation comes for a routine prenatal visit. Her dates were confirmed by first trimester ultrasonogram. She has no painful uterine contractions. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and ended with a normal vaginal delivery. Her vitals are stable and fetal heart tones are reassuring. Physical examination shows a closed cervix, vertex is palpable at the fundus, and the presenting part is not engaged. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in management?
Routine follow-up
Attempt external cephalic version
. Attempt internal cephalic version
. Discuss cesarean section with the patient
Admit the patient and monitor closely
49) A 24-year-old African American female presents in the 35th week of an uncomplicated pregnancy with numbness and burning in her right palm. She says the sensation is so uncomfortable that it frequently makes it difficult to sleep Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Indomethacin
Oral corticosteroids
Local corticosteroid injection
Wrist splinting
Decompression surgery
50) A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She takes one multivitamin and one iron tablet daily. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 34 weeks gestational age. Routine clean-catch urine culture grows greater than 100,000 colonies/ml of Escherichia coli Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
. Amoxicillin
Ciprofloxacin
Clindamycin
Doxycycline
. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
51) A 28-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician for her first prenatal visit. She is at 8 weeks gestation as determined by her last menstrual period. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She does not smoke cigarettes and stopped drinking alcohol when she decided to become pregnant. She has no history of illicit drug use and has never been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband for the past one year. Her family history is unremarkable. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2. Her physical examination, including vital signs, is within normal limits. Which of the following preventive measures is warranted at this visit?
Influenza vaccine
. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Hepatitis C antibody testing
Chlamydia PCR
Fasting blood sugar
52) A 16-year-old girl presents for evaluation of acne, which has been getting progressively worse over the past 2 weeks. Her medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for which she has been taking prednisone for a recent exacerbation. Hydroxychloroquine is her only other medicine. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs and her menstrual cycle is regular. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg and her pulse is 72/min. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2. Distributed over the face, arms and trunk are monomorphous erythematous papules. There are no open or closed comedones. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her acne?
. Adolescent acne
Androgen abuse
Polycystic ovarian disease
Medication side effect
. Systemic lupus erythematosus
53) You are asked to consult on a 23-year-old woman who is 18hours status-post cesarean delivery. She presented 20 hours ago, at 32 weeks’ gestation, with vaginal bleeding and contractions and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She was rushed to the operating room for an emergent cesarean delivery. The placenta had a large retroplacental clot. The infant is in the neonatal intensive care unit. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.7C (99.9 F), blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, pulse of 124/min, and respirations of 14/min. The patient has bleeding from her abdominal incision and her intravenous sites. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 18%; Leuckocytes: 16,000/mm3; Platelets: 62,000/mm3; Prothrombin time: 60sec; Partial thromboplastin time: 100sec. Appropriate management includes which of the following?
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Heparin
Magnesium sulfate
Penicillin
. Terbutaline
54) A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 0 (termination of pregnancy ´ 3) comes to your office for an annual examination. Over the past year she has been in good health except for recurrent upper respiratory tract infections. She smokes ½ pack of cigarettes per day. She has tried to stop smoking three times but is not ready to try again to stop now. She takes a combined oral contraceptive pill (OCP) with 35μg of estrogen in it. She takes no other medications and has no known drug allergies. Physical examination, including breast and pelvic exams, is significant for intermittent wheezes on chest auscultation. Regarding her birth control choice, which of the following is the most appropriate counseling?
Change to a combined OCP with 50-μg estrogen
Continue on the present OCP
Stop the OCP immediately
Stop the OCP over the next 2 years
Take a daily baby aspirin with the OCP
55) A 20-year-old female comes to the physician because she has never had a period. She has no medical problems, has never had surgery, and takes no medications. Examination shows that she is a tall female with long extremities. She has normal size breasts, although the areolas are pale. She has little axillary hair. Pelvic examination is significant for scant pubic hair and a short, blind-ended vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
No intervention is necessary
Bilateral gonadectomy
Unilateral gonadectomy
Bilateral mastectomy
Unilateral mastectomy
56) A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has been sexually active since the age of 15 and has not had regular Pap smears or examinations. She is currently sexually active with multiple partners and intermittently uses condoms. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. Her examination is unremarkable. Her Pap smear is described as satisfactory but limited by the absence of endocervical cells. It is otherwise within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Repeat the Pap smear in 1 yea
Repeat the endocervical portion of the Pap test as soon as possible
Perform colposcopy with colposcopically directed biopsies
Perform laparoscopy with laparoscopically directed biopsies
Perform exploratory laparotomy
57) A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Repeat pelvic examination in 1 year
Repeat pelvic ultrasound in 6 weeks
Prescribe the oral contraceptive pill
Perform hysteroscopy
Perform laparotomy
58) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 22 weeks' gestation comes to the physician with complaints of burning with urination and frequent urination. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated except for a urinary tract infection (UTI) with E. Coli at 12 weeks' gestation, which was treated at that time. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urine culture demonstrates greater than 100,000 colony-forming units per milliliter of E. coli. After treating this patient for her current infection, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
No further treatment or diagnostic study is necessary
Prophylactic antibiotics for the remainder of the pregnancy
. Intravenous antibiotics for the remainder of the pregnancy
Intravenous pyelogram
Abdominal CT Scan
59) A 22-year-old woman in labor progresses to 7 cm dilation, and then has no further progress. She therefore undergoes a primary cesarean section. Examination 2 days after the section shows a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 90/min, and respirations of 14/min. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is moderately tender. The incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no evidence of erythema. Pelvic examination demonstrates uterine tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Ampicillin
Ampicillin-gentamicin
Clindamycin-gentamicin
Clindamycin-metronidazole
. Metronidazole
60) A 64-year-old woman undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine prolapse. On postoperative day 1, a complete blood count shows the following: Leukocytes: 5500/mm3; Hematocrit: 36%; Platelets: 245,000/mm3. By postoperative day 2, the patient is alert and able to ambulate without difficulty. She has no complaints. She has not taken in nutrition orally but is receiving IV fluids. She is voiding without difficulty and has passed flatus. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 124/72 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows her abdomen to be soft, nontender, and non distended. The incision is clean, dry, and intact. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is a reason for keeping this patient hospitalized for a longer period of time?
Absent oral intake
Evidence of infection
Hematocrit
Urinary tract function
Vital signs
61) A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 40 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward after a gush of fluid with regular, painful contractions every two minutes. She is found to have rupture of the membranes and to have a cervix that is 5 centimeters dilated, a fetus in vertex presentation, and a reassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She is admitted to the labor and delivery ward. Two hours later she states that she feels hot and sweaty. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F). She has mild uterine tenderness. Her cervix is now 8 centimeters dilated and the fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Administer antibiotics to the mother after vaginal delivery
Administer antibiotics to the mother now and allow vaginal delivery
Perform cesarean delivery
. Perform cesarean delivery and then administer antibiotics to the mother
Perform intra-amniotic injection of antibiotics
62) A 43-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She is feeling well except for some occasional nausea. She has had no bleeding from the vagina, abdominal pain, dysuria, frequency, or urgency. She has asthma for which she occasionally uses an inhaler. Examination is normal for a woman at 10 weeks gestation. Urine dipstick is positive for nitrites and leukocyte esterase and a urine culture shows 50,000 colony forming units per milliliter of Escherichia coli. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Wait to see if symptoms develop
Resend another urine culture .
Obtain a renal ultrasound
Treat with oral antibiotics
Admit for intravenous antibiotics
63) A 29-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. At 28 weeks, she failed her 50-g, 1-hour oral glucose-loading test. She also failed her follow-up 100-g, 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test, with a normal fasting glucose, but abnormal 1, 2, and 3-hour values. Over the past several weeks, she has maintained good control of her fasting and 2-hour postprandial glucose levels by adhering to the diet recommendations of her physician. She asks the physician what effect her type of diabetes can have on her or her fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Gestational diabetes is associated with fetal anomalies
Gestational diabetes is associated with intrauterine growth restriction
. Gestational diabetes is associated with macrosomia
Gestational diabetes is not associated with future diabetes
Gestational diabetes with normal fasting glucose is associated with stillbirth
64) A 32-year-old, HIV-positive, primigravid woman comes to the physician for a prenatal visit at 30 weeks. Her prenatal course has been notable for her use of zidovudine (ZDV) during the pregnancy. Her viral load has remained greater than 1000 copies per milliliter of plasma throughout the pregnancy. She has no other medical problems and has never had surgery. Examination is appropriate for a 30-week gestation. She wishes to do everything possible to prevent the transmission of HIV to her baby. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Offer elective cesarean section after amniocentesis to determine lung maturity
Offer elective cesarean section at 38 weeks
. Offer elective cesarean section at 34 weeks
Recommend forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
Recommend vaginal delivery
65) A 29-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks gestational age presents to your office complaining of some shortness of breath that is more intense with exertion. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medication. The patient denies any chest pain. She is concerned because she has always been very athletic and cannot maintain the same degree of exercise that she was accustomed to prior to becoming pregnant. On physical examination, her pulse is 72 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. Cardiac examination is normal. The lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to pursue in the workup of this patient?
Refer the patient for a ventilation-perfusion scan to rule out a pulmonary embolism
Perform an arterial blood gas
Refer the patient to a cardiologist
Reassure the patient
Order an ECG
66) A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has colicky pain in the suprapubic region radiating to her back. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and the products of conception are seen through it. Blood is sent to the laboratory for type and antibody screen. The patient is treated with dilation and curettage and all products of conception are evacuated. She is stabilized and transferred to the ward. Her laboratory results are as follows: Hematocrit: 32%; Leukocyte count: 8,000 cells/μL; Blood type: AB; Rh-negative; Anti-Rh antibody titer: 1:4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Monitor coagulation profile
Administer anti-D immune globulin
Obtain karyotyping of the mother
. Screening for TORCH infections
Order anti-nuclear antibodies
67) A 29-year-old woman presents for a routine prenatal visit She is 24 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period and ultrasound. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She works as a financial advisor in a local firm. She and her husband have been monogamous since getting married 5 years ago. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. At the end of the visit she tells you that her newborn niece recently had a group B streptococcal infection and she is afraid that her child might develop the same. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Your niece would not have developed the infection if the obstetrician had followed the standard of care.
You do not have any risk factors of harboring or transmitting that infection to your child
Only a small percentage of unfortunate children develop this infection. Most children will be fine
I understand your concern. Let me take vaginal and rectal swabs for culture now
I understand your concern. I will test for the infection 2 to 3 weeks prior to the expected date of delivery.
68) The labor nurse calls you in your office regarding your patient who is 30 weeks pregnant and complaining of decreased fetal movement. The fetus is known to have a ventricular septal defect of the heart. The nurse has performed a nonstress test on the fetus. No contractions are seen. She thinks the tracing shows either a sinusoidal or saltatory fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern. Without actually reviewing the FHR tracing what can you tell the nurse?
The FHR tracing is probably not a sinusoidal FHR pattern because this pattern can be diagnosed only if the patient is in labor
The FHR tracing is probably not a saltatory FHR pattern because this pattern is almost always seen during rather than before labor
The FHR tracing of the premature fetus should be analyzed by different criteria than tracings obtained at term
Fetuses with congenital anomalies of the heart will invariably exhibit abnormal FHR patterns
. Neither sinusoidal nor saltatory fetal heart rate patterns are seen in premature fetuses because of the immaturity of their autonomic nervous systems
69) You are counseling a 24-year-old woman who is a G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation. She delivered her first baby at 41 weeks gestation by cesarean section as a result of fetal distress that occurred during an induction of labor for mild preeclampsia. She would like to know if she can have a trial of labor with this pregnancy. Which of the following is the best response to this patient?
No, since she has never had a vaginal delivery
. Yes, but only if she had a low transverse cesarean section
No, because once she has had a cesarean section she must deliver all of her subsequent children by cesarean section
Yes, but only if her uterine incision was made in the uterine fundus
Yes, but only if she had a classical cesarean section
70) A 24-year-old woman with chronic hypothyroidism presents to her gynecologist for her annual examination. She recently got married, and she and her husband would like to conceive. Her hypothyroidism is well controlled and stable on thyroxine, and she has no other medical conditions. She is healthy and does not smoke or drink alcohol. She would like to know if she should keep taking her thyroxine. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
No, but we would want to keep your thyroid levels balanced for the sake of your baby, so you would be switched to methimazole”
No, thyroxine is generally accepted as safe during pregnancy, but if you are not comfortable taking it, there is no evidence that being hypothyroid will affect your baby”
No, thyroxine is not safe when taken during pregnancy; it is better for both you and your baby for you to be hypothyroid”
Yes, but we would likely decrease your thyroxine during pregnancy because pregnancy is accompanied by mild physiologic hyperthyroidism”
Yes, in fact we would likely need to increase your thyroxine during pregnancy to avoid hypothyroidism, which may adversely affect your baby”
71) A 32-year-old G3P3 woman is postoperative day 5 after an emergent cesarean section due to fetal distress. The patient progressed rapidly through passive labor without incident, but after her membranes were ruptured manually, a fetal scalp probe was placed in the active phase secondary to several runs of mid-late decelerations. Cesarean section was ultimately performed after 2 hours of active labor secondary to fetal distress. The patient presents now with a fever to 38.7C (101.7F) and uterine tenderness. Laboratory tests reveal a WBC count of 14,000/mm3, with 70% neutrophils and 4% bands. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Ampicillin and gentamicin
Cefotaxime and levofloxacin
Clindamycin and gentamicin
Imipenem
Metronidazole and doxycycline
72) A 32-year-old G3P3 woman presents to her obstetrician for help conceiving. She states her menstrual cycles have not been regular since the birth of her third child 3 years ago. Furthermore, although she readily became pregnant with her other three children, she has failed to become pregnant despite trying over the past 2 years. She has no significant past medical history and takes only prenatal vitamins. Although she says she has not been ill lately, she reports feeling “tired and cold all the time.” She also reports she has had trouble sleeping over the past several months. Her physical examination is normal. Laboratory tests show: WBC count: 9000/mm3; Hemoglobin: 8.0 g/dL; Platelet count: 300,000/mm3; Hematocrit: 40%; Thyroid-stimulating hormone level: 0.5 μU/mL; Free thyroxine: 2.0 ng/dL; Luteinizing hormone: 0.5 mU/mL; Follicle-stimulating hormone: 0.5 mU/mL. Which of the following will this woman likely need to take to conceive?
Clomiphene
Levothyroxine
Prednisone
Progesterone
Propylthiouracil
73) A 64-year-old woman undergoes left radical mastectomy for breast cancer. A 4-cm infiltrating ductal carcinoma is found on pathologic examination. Four of 20 axillary lymph nodes are positive for malignancy. Neoplastic cells are immunoreactive for estrogen and progesterone receptors. No evidence of metastatic disease is found on bone scanning with 99mTc-labeled phosphate or chest x-ray films. The patient receives appropriate radiation therapy and multidrug chemotherapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjunctive therapy in this setting?
Danazol
Ethinyl estradiol
Megestrol acetate
Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Tamoxifen
74) A 23-year-old gravida 3, para 2 is admitted to the hospital at 31 weeks' gestation with painful uterine contractions. Her cervix is initially 3 cm dilated. Magnesium sulfate is started. Over the next 5 hours she progresses to full dilation. After a 1-hour second stage, she delivers a 2013-g (4-lb, 7-oz) newborn. In the neonatal intensive care unit, the infant develops respiratory distress and pneumonia. Over the following days the infant develops septicemia. Preliminary blood cultures demonstrate gram-positive cocci in chains. Treatment with which of the following would most likely have prevented this neonatal outcome?
Folic acid
Gentamicin
Naloxone
Oxytocin
Penicillin
75) A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 30 weeks’ gestation comes to the hospital because of new onset painful, regular uterine contractions that began 5 hours ago. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her second pregnancy was complicated by preterm labor at 28 weeks’ gestation. She has no discharge, leakage of fluid or bleeding from the vagina; she has no dysuria or urgency. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 18/min. Pelvic examination shows a soft, partially effaced and posterior cervix dilated to 2 cm. A Nitrazine test is negative. Non-stress test shows a reassuring fetal heart pattern and uterine contractions occurring every 7 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Tocolysis
Amnioinfusion
Reassure and discharge home
. Augment delivery
Cervical cerclage
76) A 17-year-old female comes to the physician's office for a routine physical examination. She has no complaints and has no previous medical problems. She has been having sex since the age of 14 and has had 3 sexual partners so far. Vital signs are stable and physical examination is unremarkable. Pap smear is performed and the report came back as "satisfactory for evaluation" and shows mild dysplasia (low grade intraepithelial lesion). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Repeat Pap smear in 2 weeks
Repeat Pap smear in 12 months
Reflex HPV testing
Colposcopy
Endometrial curettage
77) A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, comes for a routine prenatal visit. According to her history, she is at 18-weeks gestation. Her family history is significant for Down syndrome on her maternal side. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show a decreased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Amniocentesis
Chorionic villus sampling
Ultrasonogram
Cordocentesis
Urinary estradiol levels
78) A 76-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe vulvar itching for the past six months. She has tried over-the-counter topical lubricants without relief. Physical examination reveals numerous vulvar excoriations. The vulvar skin is thin, dry and white in color. The labia minora are difficult to visualize. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Vaginal Pap smear
Vulvar punch biopsy
Radical vulvectomy
Estrogen cream
Wet mount smear
79) A 30-year-old G2 P 1woman at 38 weeks gestation presents to the hospital complaining of regular and painful uterine contractions that started two hours earlier. Pelvic examination reveals bulging membranes, and her cervix is 50% effaced and dilated to 3 cm. Her pregnancy was complicated by first trimester hemorrhage of unknown cause. Her past medical history is unremarkable. After placing a fetal heart monitor and an external tocometer on the patient, you note 3 separate 15 beat/min decreases in the fetal heart rate not coinciding with uterine contractions, each lasting for 25 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Oxygen administration and change in maternal position
Artificial rupture of membranes
Amnioinfusion
Fetal scalp pH testing
Emergent cesarean section
80) A 26-year-old G1 P1 woman requests contraception after delivering a healthy baby three weeks ago. She is breastfeeding the child and plans to continue for at least six months. She does not want to get pregnant for at least one year. She has no medical problems and does not take any medication. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most preferred method of contraception you can advise for this patient?
. Tubal ligation
Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives
Coitus interruptus
Progestin-only oral contraceptives
No contraception needed while nursing
81) A Caucasian couple presents to your office for infertility evaluation. They are unable to conceive after 14 months of unprotected sex. The woman is 23 years of age. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. She denies perimenstrual pain or pelvic discomfort. Her last menstrual period was six days ago. Her past medical history is insignificant, and bimanual examination is normal. The man is 27 years old, He is not taking any medications, Physical examination, including external genitals, is normal. What is the best next step in the management of this couple?
Serum progesterone level
Hysterosalpingography
Semen analysis
Serum prolactin level of the woman
Laparoscopy
82) A 24-year-old, gravida 0, para 0 woman comes to the physician because of an 8-week history of amenorrhea. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills for contraception. Her only other complaints are moderate fatigue and a decline in mood. She denies headaches, visual disturbances, and gastrointestinal symptoms. She has no other medical problems. She socially drinks alcohol and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. She denies stress at home or work. She walks 1-2 miles every day. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Visual field test is within normal limits. Examination shows no hirsutism. Breast examination reveals a white, milky secretion upon expression of both nipples. Pelvic examination reveals a uterus of normal size. Initial investigations reveal a negative serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level. According to these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Measure serum TSH level
Order hysterosalpingogram
Measure serum LH and FSH levels
. Order MRI of the brain with pituitary focus
. Measure serum testosterone level
83) A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset intense uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. She has been followed closely for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 140/86mmHg, pulse is 92/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity and moderate vaginal bleeding. Pelvic examination shows an effaced and 3cm dilated cervix. Ultrasonography shows a fundic placenta and a fetus in the cephalic position. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. After initial resuscitation the bleeding is stopped Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Vaginal delivery with augmentation of labor, if necessary
. Emergency cesarean section
. Perform tocolysis and schedule cesarean section within 48 hours
Forceps delivery
Conservative management at home
84) A 30-year-old African-American woman with type- 1 diabetes and hypertension comes to the physician's office after obtaining a positive result from a home pregnancy test. She takes insulin and enalapril. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2 C (99.0F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her BUN is 18 mg/dl and creatinine is 1.4 mg/dl. A repeat β-HCG test performed in the office confirms pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Stop enalapril and start furosemide
. Continue enalapril and add methyldopa
. Stop enalapril and start labetalol
Stop enalapril and start losartan
Continue current therapy
85) An 81-year-old woman presents to your office complaining that her uterus fell out 2 months ago. She has multiple medical problems, including chronic hypertension, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis. She is limited to sitting in a wheelchair because of her health problems. Her fallen uterus causes significant pain. On physical examination, the patient is frail and requires assistance with getting on the examination table. She has complete procidentia of the uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Reassurance
Placement of a pessary
Vaginal hysterectomy
Le Fort procedure
Anterior colporrhaphy
86) A 78-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic hypertension, and history of myocardial infarction requiring angioplasty presents to your office for evaluation of something hanging out of her vagina. She had a hysterectomy for benign indications at age 48. For the past few months, she has been experiencing the sensation of pelvic pressure. Last month she felt a bulge at the vaginal opening. Two weeks ago something fell out of the vagina. On pelvic examination, the patient has total eversion of the vagina. There is a superficial ulceration at the vaginal apex. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Biopsy of the vaginal ulceration
. Schedule abdominal sacral colpopexy
Place a pessary
Prescribe oral estrogen
Prescribe topical vaginal estrogen cream
87) A 38-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of urinary incontinence. Her symptoms are suggestive of urge incontinence. She admits to drinking several large glasses of iced tea and water on a daily basis because her mother always told her to drink lots of liquids to lower her risk of bladder infections. Urinalysis and urine culture are negative. After confirming the diagnosis with physical examination and office cystometrics, which of the following treatments should you recommend to the patient as the next step in the management of her problem?
Instruct her to start performing Kegel exercises
Tell her to hold her urine for 6 hours at a time to enlarge her bladder capacity
Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake
Prescribe an anticholinergic.
Schedule cystoscopy
88) A 45-year-old woman with previously documented urge incontinence continues to be symptomatic after following your advice for conservative self-treatment. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Prescribe Ditropan (oxybutynin chloride)
Prescribe Estrogen therapy
Schedule a retropubic suspension of the bladder neck
Refer her to a urologist for urethral dilation
Schedule a voiding cystourethrogram
89) A 23-year-old G3POA2 female presents to your clinic at an estimated 12 weeks of gestational age. She is a new patient and has come to your clinic to seek an elective abortion. She has had two elective abortions in the past because of unplanned pregnancy. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is within normal limits and a limited ultrasound examination was able to detect fetal heart tones. You and your partners have a strict policy against performing abortions because some members of the group object to the procedure. You decide it would be best to stick to this policy; however, the patient becomes angry and tells you that she will sue you if you do not perform the procedure. What is the best response to this patient?
"You can do what you want. I cannot do the abortion because of our group policy"
"If you wanted to have an abortion why did you not come earlier?"
"I don't think any physician will perform an abortion at this gestational age."
. "I can refer you to another physician who will perform the procedure"
"If we keep doing abortions, then your uterus can get scarred and you may not be able to become pregnant again
90) A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of aching and swelling in both legs. The aching of her legs is worst at night. She has no shortness of breath or chest pain. She has no past medical history. Her temperature is 36.9 C (98.2F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows symmetrical pitting edema of both calves with no tenderness of either calf. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Doppler ultrasonogram of both lower extremities
Admit for monitoring of her condition
Start low molecular w eight heparin
Reassurance and routine follow-up
. Order echocardiogram and serum albumin levels
91) A 32-year-old woman presents to your office with dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency for 24 hours. She is healthy but is allergic to sulfa drugs. Urinalysis shows large blood, leukocytes, and nitrites in her urine. Which of the following medications is the best to treat this patient’s condition?
. Dicloxacillin
Bactrim
Nitrofurantoin
Azithromycin
Flagyl
92) You are seeing a patient in the emergency room who complains of fever, chills, flank pain, and blood in her urine. She has had severe nausea and started vomiting after the fever developed. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 3 days ago by her primary care physician. The patient never took the antibiotics that she was prescribed because her symptoms improved after she started drinking cranberry juice. The patient has a temperature of 38.8C (102F). She has severe right-sided CVA tenderness. She has severe suprapubic tenderness. Her clean-catch urinalysis shows a large amount of ketones, RBCs, WBCs, bacteria, and squamous cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Tell her to take the oral antibiotics that she was prescribed and give her a prescription of Phenergan rectal suppositories
Admit the patient for IV fluids and IV antibiotics
Admit the patient for diagnostic laparoscopy
Admit the patient for an intravenous pyelogram and consultation with a urologist
. Arrange for a home health agency to go to the patient’s home to administer IV fluids and oral antibiotics
93) A 22-year-old woman has been seeing you for treatment of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past 6 months. She married 6 months ago and became sexually active at that time. She seems to become symptomatic shortly after having sexual intercourse. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient to help her with her problem?
Refer her to a urologist
Schedule an IVP
Prescribe prophylactic urinary antispasmodic
Prescribe suppression with an antibiotic
Recommend use of condoms to prevent recurrence of the UTIs
94) A 17-year-old married girl comes to see you, complaining of “feeling tired all the time,” vomiting in the morning, and weight gain. Examination shows signs of pregnancy that is confirmed by laboratory studies. When informed of this, the girl is visibly distraught. “How could this happen?” she says, “I’ve been on the pill!” Mentioning that she and her husband live with her parents, she declares that she wants an immediate abortion. Which of the following is the best reply?
. “Certainly, let’s schedule you for the procedure right now.”
Have you considered discussing this with your husband first?”
I want you to take time to think about things before you do anything rash.”
Maybe you should talk this over with your parents before proceeding.”
That’s one option, but I’d like to talk with you a bit before we schedule anything.”
95) A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of amenorrhea. She had menarche at age 13 and has had normal periods since then. However, her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. She also complains of an occasional milky nipple discharge. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She is particularly concerned because she would like to become pregnant as soon as possible. Examination shows a whitish nipple discharge bilaterally, but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal. Prolactin is elevated. Head MRI scan is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Bromocriptine
Dicloxacillin
Magnesium sulfate
Oral contraceptive pill (OCP)
Thyroxine
96) A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has some mild nausea, but otherwise no complaints. She has no significant medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She is concerned for two reasons. First, the "flu season" is coming, and she seems to get sick every year. Second, a child at her son's daycare center recently broke out with welts and was sent home. Which of the following vaccinations should this patient most likely be given?
Influenza
Measles
Measles
Rubella
Varicella
97) A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 39 weeks' gestation, comes to the labor and delivery ward with contractions. Past obstetric history is significant for two normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries at term. Examination shows the cervix to be 4 centimeters dilated and 50% effaced. The patient is contracting every 4 minutes. Over the next 2 hours the patient progresses to 5-centimeters dilation. An epidural is placed. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed, demonstrating copious clear fluid. 2 hours later the patient is still at 5centimeters dilation and the contractions have spaced out to every 10 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Expectant management
Intravenous oxytocin
. Cesarean delivery
Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
98) A 54-year-old female comes to the physician because of involuntary loss of urine. She states "Doc, whenever I laugh, cough, or sneeze, I am unable to hold my urine. I am afraid to leave the house." She has no involuntary loss of urine while sleeping. She had a hysterectomy four years ago. She has had no trauma to her head or back. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Physical examination shows a relaxed anterior vaginal wall. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. A cotton-tipped swab test reveals a urethral straining angle of 45 degrees when intra-abdominal pressure is increased. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most beneficial long-term management for this patient?
Oxybutynin therapy
Bethanechol
Alpha blockers
Oral hormone replacement therapy
Urethropexy
99) A 32-year-old woman who is one week postpartum presents with dull pain in her left leg for the past three days. She denies any history of trauma, fever or chills. Her pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated, and her past medical history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a swollen, tender, and mildly erythematous left leg. Doppler ultrasonogram reveals a thrombus in the superficial femoral vein of the left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Reassurance and ibuprofen
Anticoagulation with heparin
Inferior vena cava filter
Thrombolytic therapy
Antistaphylococcal antibiotics
100) A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine annual visit. She has no complaints. She has no significant previous medical problems. She has been sexually active since the age of 19 with the same partner. They married 4 years ago. She has never had any sexually transmitted diseases. She had her last Pap smear 4 years ago and was within normal limits. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A repeat Pap smear now shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Repeat Pap smear in 3 years
Repeat Pap smear in 12 months
Reflex HPV testing
. Immediate colposcopy
Prescribe estrogen cream
101) A healthy 31-year-old G3P2002 patient presents to the obstetrician’s office at 34 weeks gestational age for a routine return visit. She has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. Her baseline blood pressures were 100 to 110/60 to70, and she has gained a total of 20 lb so far. During the visit, the patient complains of bilateral pedal edema that sometimes causes her feet to ache at the end of the day. Her urine dip indicates trace protein, and her blood pressure in the office is currently 115/75. She denies any other symptoms or complaints. On physical examination, there is pitting edema of both legs without any calf tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the patient’s concern?
Prescribe Lasix to relieve the painful swelling
. Immediately send the patient to the radiology department to have venous. Doppler studies done to rule out deep vein thromboses
Admit the patient to L and D to rule out preeclampsia
Reassure the patient that this is a normal finding of pregnancy and no treatment is needed
Tell the patient that her leg swelling is caused by too much salt intake and instruct her to go on a low-sodium diet
102) A 25-year-old woman delivered a baby boy at 38 weeks gestation. The newborn has a small body size with microcephaly, hypoplasia of the distal phalanges of the fingers and toes, excess hair and a cleft palate. He weighs 2.5kg (5.51b). Further history or evaluation of the mother would most likely reveal which of the following?
Untreated syphilis
Phenytoin use
Alcohol abuse
Cocaine abuse
Azithromycin use
Requesting a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. Her menses usually occur every 30 days. She is sexually active with one partner and occasionally uses condoms. She is concerned because she has gained 3 kg (6lb) in the past 3 months. She also complains of breast tenderness and milky-white discharge from both nipples. She denies headaches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for this patient's symptoms?
Valproic acid
Risperidone
Aripiprazole
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
104) A 26-year-old graduate student presents at her husband's urging, complaining of severe pain during sexual intercourse. She says that she was a virgin when she married her husband two years ago, and that she has been experiencing severe "genital pain" during sex since then. As a result, she avoids sexual intimacy with her husband, which is placing a strain upon their marriage. She also complains of intense pain with her menses and when passing stool. She admits to sporadic pelvic pain that waxes and wanes with no discernible trigger. What would be the most appropriate treatment given this woman's condition?
. Use of vaginal dilators
Pain management training
Oral contraceptive pills
Regularly scheduled follow-up visits
Psychotherapy and sexual education
105) A 43-year-old G1P0 who conceived via in vitro fertilization comes into the office for her routine OB visit at 38 weeks. She denies any problems since she was seen the week before. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid per vagina, vaginal bleeding, or regular uterine contractions. She reports that sometimes she feels crampy at the end of the day when she gets home from work, but this discomfort is alleviated with getting off her feet. The fundal height measurement is 36 cm; it measured 37 cm the week before. Her cervical examination is 2 cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Instruct the patient to return to the office in 1 week for her next routine visit
Admit the patient for induction caused by a diagnosis of fetal growth lag.
Send the patient for a sonogram to determine the amniotic fluid index
Order the patient to undergo a nonstress test.
Do a fern test in the office.
106) A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of vaginal itch and pain with intercourse. She had her last menstrual period at age 52. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and is allergic to penicillin. Pelvic examination demonstrates pale vaginal mucosa with no rugae present. The vagina is dry with no discharge. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) and normal saline wet preparation is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Clotrimazole vaginal cream
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole vaginal cream
Oral fluconazole
Oral metronidazole
107) A 14-year-old phenotypically female child is brought to your office by her mother who is concerned that her daughter has not had menstrual bleeding yet. Her past medical history is significant for an episode of severe bilateral pneumonia that required hospitalization when she was seven years old. Physical examination reveals Tanner stage 3 breast development, but very little pubic and axillary hair. Bilateral inguinal masses are palpated. A blind vaginal pouch is noted on pelvic exam. A karyotype analysis showed 46 XY. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Start progesterone supplementation
Start low-dose corticosteroid therapy
Perform gonadectomy immediately
Perform gonadectomy after completion of puberty
. Reassurance and no further therapy
108) A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. She is working as an aerobics instructor and is concerned about the effect her exercise schedule might have on the pregnancy. She teaches 30 minutes daily in the morning and does not feel fatigued. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
"You need to reduce the duration of exercise time to 15 minutes per day"
''You need to reduce the intensity of exercise"
''You should continue your current aerobic exercise schedule"
''You may have prolonged labor during delivery"
''You can even intensify your training efforts if you want"
109) A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician's office because she has not felt any fetal movements for the past 48 hours. Her pregnancy thus far has been uncomplicated. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. She has no history of trauma. She has no history of serious illness. Review of systems reveals no abnormalities. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Vital signs are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Induction of labor
Non-stress test
Serial beta-hCG
Monitor coagulation profile
Real-time ultrasonogram
110) A 23-year-old female comes to your office to review her daily prescription medications. She had a positive pregnancy test three days ago despite strict contraception. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. She is on albuterol and beclomethasone inhalers for bronchial asthma, isotretinoin for acne, and lithium for bipolar disorder. Her bipolar disorder has been stable for the past several years. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities; vital signs are stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for this patient?
Sk her to stop beclomethasone and lithium
Ask her to stop beclomethasone, isotretinoin and lithium
Ask her to stop isotretinoin and wean lithium
Ask her to stop all 4 medications
Ask her to continue all 4 medications
111) A 28-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician for her first prenatal visit in November. She is at 8 weeks gestation as determined by her last menstrual period. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She does not smoke cigarettes and stopped drinking alcohol when she decided to become pregnant. She has no history of illicit drug use and has never been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband for the past one year. Her family history is unremarkable. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2. Her physical examination, including vital signs, is within normal limits. Which of the following preventive measures is warranted at this visit?
Influenza vaccine
Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Hepatitis C antibody testing
Gonorrhea PCR
MMR vaccine
112) A healthy 23-year-old G1P0 has had an uncomplicated pregnancy to date. She is disappointed because she is 40 weeks gestational age by good dates and a first-trimester ultrasound. She feels like she has been pregnant forever, and wants to have her baby now. The patient reports good fetal movement; she has been doing kick counts for the past several days and reports that the baby moves about eight times an hour on average. On physical examination, her cervix is firm, posterior, 50% effaced, and 1 cm dilated, and the vertex is at a-1 station. As her obstetrician, which of the following should you recommend to the patient?
She should be admitted for an immediate cesarean section
She should be admitted for Pitocin induction
You will schedule a cesarean section in 1 week if she has not undergone spontaneous labor in the meantime
She should continue to monitor kick counts and to return to your office in 1 week to reassess the situation
Induced labor immediately
113) A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to the obstetrician’s office at 41 weeks gestation. On physical examination, her cervix is 1 centimeter dilated, 0% effaced, firm, and posterior in position. The vertex is presenting at –3 station. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Send the patient to the hospital for induction of labor since she has a favorable Bishop score
Teach the patient to measure fetal kick counts and deliver her if at any time there are less than 20 perceived fetal movements in 3 hours
Order BPP testing for the same or next day
Schedule the patient for induction of labor at 43 weeks gestation
. Schedule cesarean delivery for the following day since it is unlikely that the patient will go into labor
114) Your patient had an ultrasound examination today at 39 weeks gestation for size less than dates. The ultrasound showed oligohydramnios with an amniotic fluid index of 1.5 centimeters. The patient’s cervix is unfavorable. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Admit her to the hospital for cesarean delivery
Admit her to the hospital for cervical ripening then induction of labor
Write her a prescription for misoprostol to take at home orally every 4 hours until she goes into labor
Perform stripping of the fetal membranes and perform a BPP in 2 days
Administer a cervical ripening agent in your office and have the patient present to the hospital in the morning for induction with oxytocin
115) A healthy 30-year-old G1P0 at 41 weeks gestational age presents to labor and delivery at 11:00 PM because she is concerned that her baby has not been moving as much as normal for the past 24 hours. She denies any complications during the pregnancy. She denies any rupture of membranes, regular uterine contractions, or vaginal bleeding. On arrival to labor and delivery, her blood pressure is initially 140/90 but decreases with rest to 120/75. Her prenatal chart indicates that her baseline blood pressures are 100 to 120/60 to 70 mm Hg. The patient is placed on an external fetal monitor. The fetal heart rate baseline is 180 beats per minute with absent variability. There are uterine contractions every 3 minutes accompanied by late fetal heart rate decelerations. Physical examination indicates that the cervix is long/closed/-2. Which of the following is the appropriate plan of management for this patient?
Proceed with emergent cesarean section
. Administer intravenous MgSO4 and induce labor with Pitocin
Ripen cervix overnight with prostaglandin E2 (Cervidil) and proceed with Pitocin induction in the morning
Admit the patient and schedule a cesarean section in the morning, after the patient has been NPO for 12 hours
Induce labor with misoprostol (Cytotec)
116) A 27-year-old G3P2002, who is 34 weeks gestational age, calls the oncall obstetrician on a Saturday night at 10:00 PM complaining of decreased fetal movement. She says that yesterday her baby has moved only once per hour. For the past 6 hours she has felt no movement. She is healthy, has had regular prenatal care, and denies any complications so far during the pregnancy. Which of the following is the best advice for the on-call physician to give the patient?
. Instruct the patient to go to labor and delivery for a contraction stress test
Reassure the patient that one fetal movement per hour is within normal limits and she does not need to worry
Recommend the patient be admitted to the hospital for delivery
Counsel the patient that the baby is probably sleeping and that she should continue to monitor fetal kicks. If she continues to experience less than five kicks per hour by morning, she should call you back for further instructions
. Instruct the patient to go to labor and delivery for a nonstress test
117) You are seeing a patient in the hospital for decreased fetal movement at 36 weeks gestation. She is healthy and has had no prenatal complications. You order a BPP. The patient receives a score of 8 on the test. Two points were deducted for lack of fetal breathing movements. How should you counsel the patient regarding the results of the BPP?
The results are equivocal, and she should have a repeat BPP within 24 hours
The results are abnormal, and she should be induced
The results are normal, and she can go home
The results are abnormal, and she should undergo emergent cesarean section
The results are abnormal, and she should undergo umbilical artery Doppler velocimetry
118) A new patient presents to your office for her first prenatal visit. By her last menstrual period she is 11 weeks pregnant. This is the first pregnancy for this 36-year-old woman. She has no medical problems. At this visit you observe that her uterus is palpable midway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. No fetal heart tones are audible with the Doppler stethoscope. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Reassure her that fetal heart tones are not yet audible with the Doppler stethoscope at this gestational age
Tell her the uterine size is appropriate for her gestational age and schedule her for routine ultrasonography at 20 weeks
Schedule genetic amniocentesis right away because of her advanced maternal age
Schedule genetic amniocentesis right away because of her advanced maternal age
Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the fetus
119) A healthy 30-year-old G2P1001 presents to the obstetrician’s office at 34 weeks for a routine prenatal visit. She has a history of a cesarean section (low transverse) performed secondary to fetal malpresentation (footling breech). This pregnancy, the patient has had an uncomplicated prenatal course. She tells her physician that she would like to undergo a trial of labor during this pregnancy. However, the patient is interested in permanent sterilization and wonders if it would be better to undergo another scheduled cesarean section so she can have a bilateral tubal ligation performed at the same time. Which of the following statements is true and should be relayed to the patient?
. A history of a previous low transverse cesarean section is a contraindication to vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC)
Her risk of uterine rupture with attempted VBAC after one prior low transverse cesarean section is 4% to 9%
Her chance of having a successful VBAC is less than 60%
The patient should schedule an elective induction if not delivered by 40 weeks
If the patient desires a bilateral tubal ligation, it is safer for her to undergo a vaginal delivery followed by a postpartum tubal ligation rather than an elective repeat cesarean section with intrapartum bilateral tubal ligation
120) A 16-year-old primigravida presents to your office at 35 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and she has 4+ proteinuria on a clean catch specimen of urine. She has significant swelling of her face and extremities. She denies having contractions. Her cervix is closed and uneffaced. The baby is breech by bedside ultrasonography. She says the baby’s movements have decreased in the past 24 hours. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Send her to labor and delivery for a BPP
Send her home with instructions to stay on strict bed rest until her swelling and blood pressure improve
Admit her to the hospital for enforced bed rest and diuretic therapy to improve her swelling and blood pressure
Admit her to the hospital for induction of labor
Admit her to the hospital for cesarean delivery
121) A 14-year-old girl comes to the physician because of lower abdominal cramping. This cramping starts a few hours before, and lasts through, her menses, and then resolves completely. The cramping is primarily in the lower abdomen but also radiates to the back and thighs. She first noted this cramping approximately 6 months after her first menstrual period at age 12. She is not sexually active. Physical examination is unremarkable, including a normal pelvic examination. A pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Trial of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Trial of antibiotics
GnRH agonist therapy
Laparoscopy
Laparotomy
122) A 20-year-old G1P0 presents to your clinic for follow-up for a suction dilation and curettage for an incomplete abortion. She is asymptomatic without any vaginal bleeding, fever, or chills. Her examination is normal. The pathology report reveals trophoblastic proliferation and hydropic degeneration with the absence of vasculature; no fetal tissue is identified. A chest x-ray is negative for any evidence of metastatic disease. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?
Weekly human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) titers
Hysterectomy
Single-agent chemotherapy
Combination chemotherapy
Radiation therapy
123) A 27-year-old G2P1 woman comes to the labor and delivery unit with nausea, vomiting, and right lower-quadrant pain. She is at 19 weeks gestation. The symptoms started 12 hours ago and have become progressively worse. She has no chills, dysuria, or urinary frequency and is uncertain if she has had a fever. Her temperature is 38 C (100.4 F), blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 18/min. Abdominal examination shows a gravid uterus just below the umbilicus. The fetal heart rate is 144/min. There is moderate tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Laboratory results are as follows: Hemoglobin: 12.4 g/L, Leukocytes: 16,000/μL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
Computed tomography of the abdomen
Diagnostic laparoscopy
Flat plate of the abdomen
Magnetic resonance imaging
Ultrasound of the abdomen
124) A 19-year-old gravida 2, para 1 woman presents at her first prenatal visit complaining of a rash, hair loss, and spots on her tongue. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 112/74 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is significant for a maculopapular rash on her trunk and extremities, including her palms and soles. She has "moth-eaten" alopecia and white patches on her tongue. Her uterus is 10 week size, which is consistent with her dating by last menstrual period. The rest of her examination is unremarkable. RPR and MHA-TP are positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Clindamycin
Gentamicin
Nitrofurantoin
Penicillin
Tetracycline
125) A 34-year-old woman with breast cancer presents to her physician complaining of increased weakness, lower back pain, and urinary incontinence. She was diagnosed with breast cancer 2 years ago and is undergoing radiation and chemotherapy. Her back pain developed 2 days ago. Physical examination shows lower extremity weakness and hyporeflexia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?
Obtain a neurologic consultation
Obtain an emergency spinal MRI
Administer narcotics for pain relief
Administer high-dose steroids
Perform a lumbar puncture
126) An 18-year-old woman presents to the physician's office complaining of vaginal pruritus and discharge. She has no nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no other medical problems and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Pelvic examination reveals mucopurulent cervical discharge and friable cervical mucosa. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. A gram stain of the discharge reveals numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes filled with gram-negative diplococci. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Penicillin and doxycycline
One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Ceftriaxone and metronidazole
. Ampicillin and gentamicin
127) A 30-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of a decrease in fetal movements. She has felt few fetal kicks the past 20 hours. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. She has chronic hypertension and is now taking methyldopa and labetalol. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated and both delivered vaginally. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Non-stress test is reactive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Repeat non-stress test weekly
Perform contraction stress test
Biophysical profile
Give vibroacoustic stimulation
Deliver the baby immediately
128) A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician for infertility evaluation. Her cycles have been irregular for the past 12 months and she has had no periods for the past 3 months. Before that time, her cycles were quite regular. She also has hot flashes, dyspareunia, and mood disturbances. She has been married for 6 years and has a 3-year-old daughter. The patient has a history of Hashimoto's thyroiditis and is on thyroid replacement therapy. She smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. Both her father and mother have type 2 diabetes mellitus. Vital signs are normal. Pelvic examination reveals atrophic vaginal mucosa. Serum FSH is markedly elevated, serum prolactin is normal, and pregnancy test is negative. Serum TSH is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her infertility?
Clomiphene citrate
Metformin
GnRH agonist
Progesterone supplement
In vitro fertilization with donor oocyte
129) A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has not felt her baby's movements for the past two weeks. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Ultrasound shows absence of fetal cardiac activity. Fetal demise is diagnosed. Laboratory studies show: Serum fibrinogen level: 160 mg/dl (normal is 150 - 450 mg/dL), Platelets: 150, 000/mm3, Prothrombin time: 14 sec, Partial thromboplastin time: 28 sec, First trimester platelets were: 250,000/mm3. There are no signs of active bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
Platelet transfusion and fibrinogen replacement
. Induction of labor
Emergency cesarean section
Weekly fibrinogen monitoring and expect spontaneous delivery
130) A 20-year old GOPO woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding and right lower quadrant pain. Her last menstrual period was approximately 5 weeks ago. She is sexually active and uses condoms occasionally. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 14/min. Examination shows mild right lower quadrant tenderness, but no rebound or guarding. There is no active vaginal bleeding and the cervical os is closed. Her initial hemoglobin is 11.0 g/dl. She is Rh positive and a quantitative β-HCG is 1000 mIU/mL. A vaginal ultrasound is done and no intrauterine or extrauterine pregnancy can be seen. Which of the following is next best step in management?
Consent for laparoscopy
Methotrexate administration
Repeat β-HCG in 48 hours
Administration of anti-O immune globulin
Consent for dilatation and curettage
131) A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 6 weeks gestation. She has no complaints except mild nausea. She quit tobacco and alcohol use after she learned that she was pregnant. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The screening VDRL test returns positive, as does the confirmatory FTA-ABS test. The patient has a history of an allergic reaction to penicillin. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Doxycycline
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
Ciprofloxacin
Penicillin desensitization
132) A 19-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician's office for a routine annual check-up. She complains of weight gain of about 10lbs over the last year. She feels this is related to her oral contraceptive pill use. She has no previous medical problems. She had her first sexual intercourse at the age of 18. She has been sexually active with one partner for the past 2 months. She and her partner use condoms inconsistently, but use oral contraceptive pills regularly for contraception. Vital signs are normal. Her body mass index is 25 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to this patient?
Discontinue oral contraceptive pills and perform a Pap smear now
Recommend continuing oral contraceptive pills and Pap smear now
Reassure that the w eight gain is not related to oral contraceptive pills
Recommend switching from contraceptive pills to medroxyprogesterone
Discontinue oral contraceptive pills and perform a Pap smear 3days later
133) A 24-year-old female presents to you for the evaluation of acne. Further questioning, reveals that she also has had irregular periods for a long time. She is single and not sexually active. On examination, her BMI is 31 Kg/m2 and she has evidence of hirsutism. Further evaluation reveals increase in serum free testosterone and LH/FSH ratio of 2.4. Glucose tolerance testing reveals two-hour blood glucose of 155 mg/dl. Apart from prescribing oral contraceptive pills, which of the following is indicated in this patient?
Clomiphene citrate
Metformin
Insulin
Glipizide
No other medication needed
134) An 18-year-old woman presents to the physician's office complaining of vaginal pruritus and discharge. She has no nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no other medical problems and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Pelvic examination reveals mucopurulent cervical discharge and friable cervical mucosa. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. A gram stain of the discharge reveals numerous polymorphonuclear lymphocytes filled with gram negative diplococci. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Penicillin and doxycycline
. One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Ceftriaxone and metronidazole
Ampicillin and gentamicin
135) A 55-year-old woman has a palpable 2 cm mass in her left breast. She had found the mass on self-examination, but she says that she had not done self-breast exam for at least six months before she did this one. Physical examination confirms the presence of the lesion, which is hard, movable, and not painful. A mammogram confirms the presence of an opacity in that area, but it does not have any of the radiological characteristics of a breast cancer. The radiologist also does a sonogram, and comes up with the same opinion, I.e., that neither study is suggestive for cancer. Fine needle aspirate is read as negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Core biopsies of the mass
MRI of the breast
Reassurance
Repeat both imaging studies in six months
Repeat physical exam in six months
136) A 19-year-old woman comes to the office because of irregular vaginal spotting. She always has had normal periods that occur every 28 days and last 5 days, and so this is particularly concerning. She is sexually active with her boyfriend of 3 years and has been taking oral contraceptive pills that you prescribed 2 months ago. She has no known medical problems besides seasonal allergies and has never had any surgery. She takes the oral contraceptive pill daily and loratadine intermittently, but takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination, including pelvic examination, is unremarkable. Urine hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Explain that this is common and encourage pill continuation
Determine serum follicle stimulating hormone concentration
Determine serum thyroid stimulating hormone concentration
Send her for an endometrial biopsy .
. Send her for a pelvic ultrasound
137) A 38-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant with her second pregnancy and is found to have blood pressures exceeding the 150 to 160 mm Hg systolic range and 100 to 110mm Hg diastolic range at her first prenatal visit. She has no other medical problems. She had a cholecystectomy at the age of 20. She takes no medications and is allergic to sulfa drugs. Her family history is significant for hypertension on both her maternal and paternal sides. Physical examination is normal, including an obstetrical ultrasound demonstrating a 10-week intrauterine pregnancy. The patient is diagnosed with chronic hypertension. Which of the following should be used as first-line antihypertensive therapy for this patient?
Atenolol
Captopril
Lisinopril
Magnesium sulfate
Methyldopa
138) A 20-year-old college student comes to the student health clinic concerned that she may be pregnant. She states that she has had a steady boyfriend for the last 2 years and that they regularly use condoms for birth control. Last night the condom broke, however, and the patient is extremely worried that she may have become pregnant. Although she has mixed feelings about terminating an advanced pregnancy, she is not opposed to terminating an early pregnancy, and wants to know if she can take an “abortion pill” that she has heard about in the news. Her last menstrual period was 14 days ago, and her last gynecologic examination, which included a negative Pap smear, was 10 months ago. She has no previous illnesses and has a negative review of systems. She does not smoke, drinks only rarely, and does not use any illicit substances. Vital signs are: temperature 37.0 C (98.6 F), blood pressure 118/78 mmHg, pulse 72/min, and respirations 20/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Given her request, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Explain that no legal treatment is available and refer her to Planned Parenthood
Explain that no treatment is necessary given the negative urine pregnancy test
Explain that no treatment is necessary; given the timing of unprotected coitus there is a low risk for pregnancy
Prescribe a daily oral contraceptive pill
Prescribe ethinyl estradiol and levonorgestrel to be taken twice, 12 hours apart
139) A 33-year-old woman is very depressed about her recurrent pregnancy loss. She has had four pregnancies that all have ended in spontaneous abortion before 8 weeks. Her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She has never had surgery. She takes acetaminophen occasionally for headaches, but otherwise uses no medications and has no known drug allergies. Physical examination is normal. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates that she is positive for lupus anticoagulant and that she is positive for anticardiolipin IgG. These results are again positive 8 weeks later. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient during her next pregnancy?
Daily heparin
Daily heparin and low dose aspirin
Daily low dose aspirin
Paternal leukocyte immunization
Paternal leukocyte immunization and intravenous immune globulin
140) A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Chemotherapy
Cone biopsy
Dilation and curettage
Hysteroscopy
Hysterectomy
141) A 35-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward after a gush of clear fluid from the vagina. After the gush, she has had increasing contractions. Sterile speculum examination shows a pool of clear fluid in the vagina that is nitrazine positive. Cervical examination shows that the patient is 5 cm dilated, with the fetal face presenting in a mentum anterior position. External uterine monitoring shows that the patient is contracting every 2 minutes, and external fetal monitoring shows that the fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Expectant management
Oxytocin augmentation
Forceps delivery
Vacuum delivery
Cesarean section
142) A patient who has been taking tamoxifen to prevent breast cancer for the past 6 months presents complaining of irregular vaginal bleeding. An endometrial biopsy is performed that demonstrates atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discontinue the tamoxifen
Increase the tamoxifen dose
Repeat the endometrial biopsy
Schedule a pelvic ultrasound
Switch the patient to estrogen
143) A 46-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of something bulging from her vagina for the past year. It has been getting progressively more prominent. She has started to notice that she leaks urine with laughing and sneezing. She still has periods regularly every 26 days. She is married. Her husband had a vasectomy for contraception. After appropriate evaluation, you diagnose a second-degree cystocele. She has no uterine prolapse or rectocele. Which of the following is the best treatment plan to offer this patient?
Anticholinergic medications
Ntibiotic therapy with Bactrim
. Le Fort colpocleisis
Surgical correction with a bladder neck suspension procedure
. Use of vaginal estrogen cream
144) An 86-year-old woman presents to your office for her well-woman examination. She has no complaints. On pelvic examination performed in the supine and upright positions, the patient has second-degree prolapse of the uterus. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Reassurance
Placement of a pessary
Vaginal hysterectomy
Le Fort procedure
Anterior colporrhaphy
145) A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administer general anesthesia
Administer terbutaline
Perform amnioinfusion
Start oxytocin
Perform cesarean delivery
146) A 25-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. She has had some nausea and vomiting but otherwise has no complaints. Past medical and surgical history are unremarkable. Her family history is significant for cystic fibrosis with an affected aunt. Her husband has an affected cousin. Physical examination is unremarkable. Given her family history, she is concerned about the risks of having a child with cystic fibrosis. She inquires about cystic fibrosis screening. Which of the following is the appropriate response?
Screening is available
Screening is inappropriate in her case
Screening is mandatory
Screening is not available
Screening is unnecessary: she has a 1 in 4 chance of having an affected child
147) A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of "bumps" on her vulva that she has just recently noticed. These bumps do not cause her symptoms, but she wants to know what they are and wants them removed. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and has no allergies to medications. She smokes one-half pack of cigarettes per day. She is sexually active with 3 partners. Examination shows 3 cauliflower-like lesions on the right labia majora. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Acyclovir
Penicillin
. Cone biopsy
Cryotherapy
Vulvectomy
148) A 25-year-old nulliparous woman at 35 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward complaining of contractions, a headache, and flashes of light in front of her eyes. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated except for an episode of first trimester bleeding that completely resolved. She has no medical problems. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg, pulse is 88/minute, and respirations are 12/minute. Examination shows that her cervix is 2 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced, and that she is contracting every 2 minutes. The fetal heart tracing is in the 140s and reactive. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Laboratory values are as follows: leukocytes 9,400/mm3, hematocrit 35%, platelets 101,000/mm3. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is 200 U/L, and ALT 300 U/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administer oxytocin
Discharge the patient
Encourage ambulation
Start magnesium sulfate
Start terbutaline
149) A 33-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated thus far. She has no complaints. She has had no loss of fluid, bleeding, or contractions. She has hypothyroidism, for which she takes thyroid hormone replacement. The patient states that a friend of hers recently had a preterm delivery. The patient is quite concerned about preterm delivery and wants to know whether home uterine activity monitoring (HUAM) is recommended. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
HUAM has been proven to cause preterm birth
HUAM has been proven to prevent preterm birth
HUAM has not been proven to prevent preterm birth
HUAM should be started immediately
HUAM should be started at 35 weeks
150) A 32-year-old nulliparous woman at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with regular painful contractions after a gush of fluid two hours ago. Her temperature is 98.6 F (37 C). She is found to have gross rupture of membranes and to have a cervix that is 6 centimeters dilated. The fetus is in breech position. The patient is then brought to the operating room for cesarean delivery. Which of the following represents the correct procedure for antibiotic administration?
Administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the procedure
Administer intravenous antibiotics after the cord is clamped
Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately after the procedure
Administer intravenous antibiotics for 24 hours after the procedure
Administer oral antibiotics for 1 week following the procedure
151) A 21-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with painful contractions every three minutes. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. Examination shows her cervix to be 3 centimeters dilated and 90% effaced. The fetal heart rate tracing is in the 150s and reactive. 5 hours later cervical examination reveals that the patient is 9 centimeters dilated and at -1 station. The fetal heart rate tracing shows moderate variable decelerations with each contraction and decreased variability. Fetal scalp sampling is performed that yields fetal scalp pH of 7.04, 7.05, and 7.06. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Expectant management
Episiotomy
Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery .
Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
Cesarean delivery
152) A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy. Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Contact psychiatry to evaluate the patient
Contact the hospital lawyers to get a court order for cesarean delivery
Perform cesarean delivery at 38 weeks
Perform cesarean delivery once the patient is in labor
Respect the patient's decision and perform the vaginal delivery
153) An 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for advice regarding birth control. She has been sexually active since the age of 15 and has had numerous sexual partners since that time. She has tried the oral contraceptive pill twice, for approximately two cycles each time, but stopped because of irregular bleeding. She has had gonorrhea once and Chlamydia twice. She does not smoke. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following forms of birth control should be recommended for this patient?
Condoms
Diaphragm
Intrauterine device
Oral contraceptive pill
Tubal ligation
154) A pharmaceutical company sponsors a physician lecture concerning thrombotic complications of the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). At the start of the presentation, the company's representative makes a short presentation regarding their particular brand of OCP. He then proceeds to announce that his company would like to award a gift to the physician in the group who gives the largest number of prescriptions for this pill. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
Acceptance of the gift
Attempt to get colleagues to prescribe the medication
Romise to prescribe more of the medication
Refusal of the gift
Request for money rather than a gift
155) A 24-year old woman comes to the physician because of burning with urination. She states that every time she urinates there is pain and that she has a feeling that she constantly needs to urinate even though only a little comes out. She has never had any similar symptoms before. She has no medical problems and no known drug allergies. Examination is unremarkable. Urinalysis demonstrates that the urine is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Intramuscular ceftriaxone
Intravenous levofloxacin
Oral levofloxacin for 7 days
Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
Wait for the culture results to institute therapy
156) An 18-year-old G2P1 presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding for the past day. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. On examination she is afebrile with normal blood pressure and pulse. Her abdomen is tender in the left lower quadrant with voluntary guarding. On pelvic examination, she has a small anteverted uterus, no adnexal masses, mild left adnexal tenderness, and mild cervical motion tenderness. Labs reveal a normal white count, hemoglobin of 10.5, and a quantitative β-hCG of 2342. Ultrasound reveals a 10×5×6 cm uterus with a normal-appearing 1-cm stripe and no gestation sac or fetal pole. A 2.8-cm complex adnexal mass is noted on the left. In the treatment of this patient, laparoscopic salpingostomy has what advantage over salpingectomy via laparotomy?
Decreased hospital stays
Lower fertility rate
Lower repeat ectopic pregnancy rate
Comparable persistent ectopic tissue rate
Greater scar formation
157) A 32-year-old G2P0101 presents to labor and delivery at 34 weeks of gestation, complaining of regular uterine contractions about every 5 minutes for the past several hours. She has also noticed the passage of a clear fluid per vagina. A nurse places the patient on an external fetal monitor and calls you to evaluate her status. The external fetal monitor demonstrates a reactive fetal heart rate tracing, with regular uterine contractions occurring about every 3 to 4 minutes. On sterile speculum examination, the cervix is visually closed. A sample of pooled amniotic fluid seen in the vaginal vault is fern and nitrazine-positive. The patient has a temperature of 38.8C, pulse 102 beats per minute, blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, and her fundus is tender to deep palpation. Her admission blood work comes back indicating a WBC of 19,000. The patient is very concerned because she had previously delivered a baby at 35 weeks who suffered from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). You perform a bedside sonogram, which indicates oligohydramnios and a fetus whose size is appropriate for gestational age and with a cephalic presentation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Administer betamethasone
. Administer tocolytics
Place a cervical cerclage
Administer antibiotics
Perform emergent cesarean section
158) A 30-year-old G1 with twin gestation at 28 weeks is being evaluated for vaginal bleeding and uterine contractions. A bedside ultrasound examination rules out the presence of a placenta previa. Fetal heart rate tracing is reactive on both twins, and the uterine contractions are every 2 to 3 minutes and last 60 seconds. A sterile speculum examination is negative for rupture membranes. A digital examination indicates that the cervix is 2 to 3 cm dilated and 50% effaced, and the presenting part is at −3 station. Tocolysis with magnesium sulfate is initiated and intravenous antibiotics are started for group B streptococcus prophylaxis. Betamethasone, a corticosteroid, is also administered. Which of the following statements regarding the use of betamethasone in the treatment of preterm labor is true?
Betamethasone enhances the tocolytic effect of magnesium sulfate and decreases the risk of preterm delivery
Betamethasone has been shown to decrease intraamniotic infections
Betamethasone promotes fetal lung maturity and decreases the risk of respiratory distress syndrome
The anti-inflammatory effect of betamethasone decreases the risk of GBS sepsis in the newborn
Betamethasone is the only corticosteroid proven to cross the placenta
159) A 30-year-old G1 at 28 weeks gestation with a twin pregnancy is admitted to the hospital for preterm labor with regular painful contractions every 2 minutes. She is 3 cm dilated with membranes intact and a small amount of bloody show. Ultrasound reveals growth restriction of twin A and oligohydramnios, otherwise normal anatomy. Twin B has normal anatomy and has appropriate-for-gestational-age weight. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of indomethacin as a tocolytic in this patient?
Twin gestation
Gestational age greater than 26 weeks
Vaginal bleeding
Oligohydramnios
Fetal growth restriction
160) A 34-year-old G2P1 at 31 weeks gestation with a known placenta previa presents to the hospital with vaginal bleeding. On assessment, she has normal vital signs and the fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. No uterine contractions are demonstrated on external tocometer. Heavy vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Administer intramuscular terbutaline
Administer methylergonovine
Admit and stabilize the patient
Perform cesarean delivery
Induce labor
161) A 34-year-old G2P1 at 31 weeks gestation with a known placenta previa is admitted to the hospital for vaginal bleeding. The patient continues to bleed heavily and you observe persistent late decelerations on the fetal heart monitor with loss of variability in the baseline. Her blood pressure and pulse are normal. You explain to the patient that she needs to be delivered. The patient is delivered by cesarean section under general anesthesia. The baby and placenta are easily delivered, but the uterus is noted to be boggy and atonic despite intravenous infusion of Pitocin. Which of the following is contraindicated in this patient for the treatment of uterine atony?
Methylergonovine (Methergine) administered intramuscularly
Prostaglandin F2α (Hemabate) suppositories
Misoprostol (Cytotec) suppositories
Terbutaline administered intravenously
Prostaglandin E2 suppositories
162) A 20-year-old G1P0 at 30 weeks gestation with a known placenta previa is delivered by cesarean section under general anesthesia for vaginal bleeding and nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. The baby is easily delivered, but the placenta is adherent to the uterus and cannot be completely removed, and heavy uterine bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Administer methylergonovine (Methergine) intramuscularly
Administer misoprostol (Cytotec) suppositories per rectum
Administer prostaglandin F2α (Hemabate) intramuscularly
Perform hysterectomy
Close the uterine incision and perform curettage
163) A 38-year-old G1P1 comes to see you for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks gestational age. She had a previous term vaginal delivery without any complications. You detect fetal heart tones at this visit, and her uterine size is consistent with dates. You also draw her prenatal labs at this visit and tell her to follow up in 4 weeks for a return OB visit. Two weeks later, the results of the patient’s prenatal labs come back. Her blood type is A–, with an anti D antibody titer of 1:4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Schedule an amniocentesis for amniotic fluid bilirubin at 16 weeks
Repeat the titer in 4 weeks
Repeat the titer at 28 weeks
Schedule Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling (PUBS) to determine fetal hematocrit at 20 weeks
. Schedule PUBS as soon as possible to determine fetal blood type
164) A 27-year-old G1P0 woman at 27 weeks’ gestation presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient denies any abdominal pain or cramping, contractions, or vaginal bleeding. Examination reveals a gravid, non-tender abdomen and a closed, non-effaced cervix with no evidence of vaginal bleeding. Fetal heart monitoring shows a fetal heart rate of 145/min, with variable accelerations and no decelerations. The patient is Rh negative with no history of blood transfusion, while the father is of unknown Rh status and unavailable. The results of the Kleihauer-Betke test, in which maternal blood is exposed to acid, shows a combination of pale and stained RBCs. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Administer an appropriate dose of intramuscular Rh0(D) immune globulin
Amniocentesis to measure the amniotic fluid bilirubin level
Emergent cesarean section
Induction of vaginal labor with prostaglandins and oxytocin
Treatment with betamethasone
165) A 27-year-old G1 woman is 20 weeks pregnant. She is currently in her third year of a family practice residency and would like to travel to Africa and Asia as part of an outreach mission with her program. She has received all of her childhood immunizations. She presents to the obstetric clinic inquiring about the safety of immunizations during pregnancy. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Varicella
Hepatitis B
Influenza
Tetanus
Typhoid
166) A 28-year-old G0 woman presents to the clinic complaining of inability to conceive and amenorrhea. She has been taking a low-dose oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 years, which she discontinued 3 months ago when she and her husband decided they wanted to have children. They have been sexually active with each other two to three times per week over the past 3 months, but the patient has not become pregnant. The patient denies a history of sexually transmitted disease and states that until recently she has always had regular menstrual cycles. She has not had a period since discontinuation of the oral contraceptive. Which ofthe following is the most appropriate next step?
Administer a progesterone challenge
Check follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone levels
Observation
Perform a hysterosalpingogram
Perform a pelvic ultrasound
167) A 31-year-old G3P2 woman at 37 weeks’ gestation presents to the labor and delivery floor after 2 hours of contractions of increasing frequency and intensity. An epidural anesthetic is requested on admission and placed. The patient continues to have contractions for the next 15 hours, during which time her membranes rupture spontaneously. Vaginal examination at that time reveals a cervix that is soft, 3 cm dilated, in an anterior position, and 80% effaced. The fetal head is at the -1 station. Fetal heart tracings reveal a baseline heart rate of 156/min, with variable accelerations and no significant decelerations. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Apply intravaginal prostaglandin E2
Attempt forceps-facilitated delivery
Begin an infusion of oxytocin
Increase the rate of intravenous fluids to hydrate the patient
Proceed to cesarean section
168) A 30-year-old G3P2 woman at 25 weeks’ gestation has a history of gestational diabetes in her previous pregnancy. Her fasting blood glucose level at her initial 10-week screening visit was 110 mg/dL and urinalysis was negative for glucose in the urine. The patient has not been taking her own blood sugars at home, but she has been adhering to a low-carbohydrate diet. Over the past several weeks, she has noticed increased fatigue and polyuria. Which of the following is the next most appropriate step?
Administer a 3-hour glucose tolerance test
Administer a 50-g 1-hour glucose tolerance test
Begin insulin therapy
Check a urinalysis and start insulin if urinalysis reveals glucose in the urine
Prescribe metformin to be taken daily
169) A 34-year-old G1P0 woman at 29 weeks’ gestation presents to the emergency department complaining of 2 hours of vaginal bleeding. The bleeding recently stopped, but she was diagnosed earlier with placenta previa by ultrasound. She denies any abdominal pain, cramping, or contractions associated with the bleeding. Her temperature is 36.8C (98.2F), blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, and respiratory rate is 13/min. She reports she is Rh positive, her hemoglobin is 11.1 g/dL, and coagulation tests, fibrinogen, and D-dimer levels are all normal. On examination her gravid abdomen is non-tender. Fetal heart monitoring is reassuring, with a heart rate of 155/min, variable accelerations, and no decelerations. Two large-bore peripheral intravenous lines are inserted and two units of blood are typed and crossed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Admit to the antenatal unit for bed rest and betamethasone
Admit to the antenatal unit for bed rest and blood transfusion
Admit to the antenatal unit for bed rest and treatment with RhO(D) immune globulin
Emergent cesarean section
Outpatient expectant management
170) A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 35 weeks’ gestation has a past medical history significant for hypertension. She was well-controlled on hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril as an outpatient, but these drugs were discontinued when she found out that she was pregnant. Her blood pressure has been relatively well controlled in the 120–130 mm Hg systolic range without medication, and urinalysis has consistently been negative for proteinuria at each of her prenatal visits. She presents now to the obstetric clinic with a blood pressure of 142/84 mmHg. A 24hour urine specimen yields 0.35 g of proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Administer oral furosemide
Prepare for emergent delivery
Restart the patient’s prepregnancy antihypertensive regimen
Restricted activity and close monitoring as an outpatient following initial inpatient evaluation
Start hydralazine
171) A 32-year-old G2P1 woman at 35 weeks’ gestation presents to her obstetrician for a routine prenatal check-up. The mother has been previously diagnosed with mild preeclampsia, which the obstetrician has chosen to manage expectantly. During the visit, a biophysical profile is performed and the amniotic fluid index is found to be <5 cm, indicating the development of oligohydramnios. The biophysical profile is otherwise normal, with a total score of 8/10 and reassuring fetal heart tracings. How should oligohydramnios be managed in this patient?
Administration of betamethasone, then cesarean section in 24 hours
Amnioinfusion with normal saline solution
Biweekly fetal biophysical profiles
Emergent cesarean section
No change in management is necessary
172) A 24-year-old G1P0 woman at 31 weeks’ gestation presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of abdominal cramping and contractions. The contractions have been regularly spaced at 10 minutes, but seem to be increasing in intensity. She has had a small amount of vaginal discharge, but is unable to definitively say whether her water has broken. She has not had any vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 36.8C (98.3F), blood pressure is 137/84 mm Hg, pulse is 87/min, and respiratory rate is 12/min. Physical examination reveals a non-tender abdomen with palpable contractions every 8 minutes. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Cervical culture for Group B streptococci
Digital cervical examination and assessment of dilation and effacement
Quantification of strength and timing of contractions with an external tocometer
Speculum examination to rule out rupture of membranes and visually assess cervical dilation and effacement
Ultrasound examination of the fetus
173) A woman brings her 15-year-old daughter to her pediatrician for concerns about hair growth. The child has always had a lot of body hair and has been shaving her legs since she was 12 years old. The mother reports that her daughter has recently been noticing more hair, especially along the upper lip and on the chest and abdomen. The child is clearly distressed about her appearance. Further questioning reveals that although the girl had her first menses at 11 years old, her menstrual cycles are irregular, and she sometimes skips cycles for months at a time. Physical examination reveals a young, heavy-set, olive-skinned teenager with moderate acne and dark hair growth along her upper lip, across her chest, and over her lower abdomen. She exercises regularly. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this child’s hirsutism?
Danazol
Insulin
Levothyroxine
Oral contraceptives
Pergolide
174) A 21-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation is admitted for delivery. She has severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows 3+ pitting edema of the legs and brisk deep tendon reflexes. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show elevated BUN, serum creatinine and serum transaminases. Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria. Intravenous hydralazine and magnesium sulfate was initiated on admission. After stabilization, intravenous oxytocin and artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) was administered for induction of labor. Two hours later, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 78/min and respirations are 9/min. Repeat examination shows hyporeflexia and a completely effaced cervix that is 5 cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Stop hydralazine and do an emergency caesarian section
. Stop magnesium sulfate and give calcium gluconate
Stop hydralazine and monitor serum cyanide level
Stop intravenous oxytocin and intubate the patient
Continue current treatment and proceed with delivery
175) An 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for her annual physical examination. Her past medical history is unremarkable and she takes no medications. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, and she has regular menses lasting 4-5 days every 28 days. The patient became sexually active at age 16 and has had 3 partners since then. She is currently in a monogamous relationship with her boyfriend of a year and uses condoms regularly. The patient has no vaginal discharge, urinary complaints, or weight changes. Vital signs and general physical examination are within normal limits. She inquires about cervical cancer screening and human papillomavirus vaccine, which she has not received. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
Give human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine now
Perform Pap smear now
Perform Pap smear with HPV testing
Reassurance and follow-up next year
. Test for HPV and, if negative, give vaccine
176) A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset intense uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. She has been followed closely for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.7°F), blood pressure is 140/86mmHg, pulse is 92/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity and moderate vaginal bleeding. Pelvic examination shows an effaced and 3cm dilated cervix. Ultrasonography shows a fundic placenta and a fetus in the cephalic position. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to beat variability. After initial resuscitation the bleeding is stopped. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Vaginal delivery with augmentation of labor, if necessary .
Emergency cesarean section
Perform tocolysis and schedule cesarean section within 48 hours .
Forceps delivery
. Conservative management at home
177) A 42-year-old postmenopausal woman presents to the clinic complaining of vague abdominal pain, early satiety, and a 9-kg (20-lb) unintended weight loss. She has a history of normal Pap smears. On physical examination her abdomen is firm, with evidence of ascites and a firm, irregular, and fixed left adnexal mass palpated on vaginal examination. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis confirms the presence of an ovarian mass that has features that are highly suspicious for cancer. What is the best means to correctly diagnose and stage this mass?
Measurement of α-fetoprotein, β-human chorionic gonadotropin, and lactate dehydrogenase levels
Measurement of cancer antigen 125 level
MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
Percutaneous needle biopsy of the tumor for histopathologic staining
Surgical exploration with tumor debulking and nodal sampling
178) A 55-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by fi re and rescue personnel because of intractable back and thigh pain for the past 3 hours. Upon presentation she says that the pain is 9 of 10 in severity and localized to her lower back. She lives with her sister, and she has no primary care physician. She denies any complaints aside from fatigue, which she attributes to her multiple jobs and caring for her sister’s children. She has a pulse of 110/min, blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 20/min, and temperature of 37.8C (100.1F). On physical examination she is exquisitely tender over the L2–3 area of the spine. She also has point tenderness over the anterior right thigh. Sensation is intact over the lower extremities bilaterally and she has 5/5 strength in the lower extremities bilaterally. Breast examination reveals a retracted nipple and dimpling of the right breast. What will likely represent the mainstay of treatment for this patient’s symptoms?
Bone marrow transplant
Chemotherapy
Hormone replacement therapy
Radiation therapy
Surgery
179) A 57-year-old G3P3 woman presents to her gynecologist with complaints of vaginal pruritus and increased vaginal discharge. The patient has no history of gynecologic surgery or sexually transmitted diseases; she is not currently sexually active. A bimanual examination and Pap smear are performed. The Pap smear is positive for malignant squamous cells. Follow up colposcopy shows no cervical lesions, but a small lesion is noted on the lower vagina. Biopsy of this lesion confirms the diagnosis of vaginal squamous cell cancer, while cross-sectional imaging excludes invasion of surrounding tissues. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?
Chemotherapy
Radiation therapy
Surgical excision
Surgical excision and chemotherapy
Surgical excision and radiation therapy
180) A 33-year-old G1P1 woman presents to her gynecologist for a Pap smear. It has been several years since she last saw a physician. She is not currently sexually active, but takes oral contraceptives. Her vaginal examination is normal, but her Pap smear shows moderate-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. The patient undergoes colposcopy and biopsies, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Continued annual Pap smears
Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
Radiation therapy
Serial colposcopies every 3–4 months
Total abdominal hysterectomy
181) A 48-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist because of vaginal bleeding. She states that after a year of hot flashes and irregular cycles, she finally stopped menstruating 4 months ago. Two days ago she began having some vaginal bleeding that was very similar to her prior menses. She is concerned because she heard that the first sign of endometrial cancer in postmenopausal women is vaginal bleeding. She is an otherwise healthy woman with no medical problems. She exercises three times a week and takes multivitamins. She had three children when she was 29–35 years old. She used oral contraceptive pills for contraception from the time she was 18 until she got married at the age of 28. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this woman’s vaginal bleeding?
Abdominal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
Follow-up examination in 6 months
Measure serum level of follicle-stimulating hormone
Prescription of testosterone cream
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