DES C_Management (7) Prepared : CHILLY

A 39-year-old Japanese-American woman with insulin-dependent diabetes and asthma presents to her primary care physician complaining of trouble swallowing for the past few months. She explains that it started with solids, and then progressed to liquids. She states it now is hard even to swallow water and that she is often very thirsty. She says she has lost about 3.2 kg (7 lb), but says she is working out frequently. Her blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F). Laboratory tests show: Na+: 144 mEq/L, K+: 4.0 mEq/L, Cl−: 100 mEq/L, Carbon dioxide: 22 mmol/L Blood urea nitrogen: 18 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL, Glucose: 88 mg/dL. Her hemoglobin A1c level, measured 3 months earlier, was 6.1%. A barium swallow is performed, which reveals a dilated esophagus, especially distally, that flares out near the lower esophageal junction. Still not completely sure of the diagnosis, esophageal manometry is performed, which reveals abnormal peristalsis and increased lower sphincter pressure. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A 39-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of a persistent vaginal itch, vaginal discharge, and dysuria. She has had these same symptoms several times over the past 2 years and each time has been diagnosed with Candida vulvovaginitis. On physical examination, she has a thick, white vaginal discharge and significant vulvar and vaginal erythema. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) smear shows pseudohyphae; the normal saline smear is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

 

Refer to psychiatry Screen for cocaine abuse Screen for diabetes Screen for thalassemia Treat with metronidazole

A 39-year-old previously healthy male is hospitalized for 2 weeks with epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. Initial laboratory values revealed an elevated amylase level consistent with acute pancreatitis. Five weeks following discharge, he complains of early satiety, epigastric pain, and fevers. On presentation, his temperature is 38.9°C (102°F) and his heart rate is 120 beats per minute; his white blood cell (WBC) count is 24,000/mm3 and his amylase level is normal. He undergoes a CT scan demonstrating a 6 cm by 6 cm rim-enhancing fluid collection in the body of the pancreas. Which of the following would be the most definitive management of the fluid collection?

A 39-year-old woman is admitted to the gynecology service for hysterectomy for symptomatic uterine fibroids. Postoperatively the patient develops an ileus accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting; ondansetron is piggybacked into an IV of D5 ½ normal saline running at 125 cc/h. On the second postoperative day the patient becomes drowsy and displays a few myoclonic jerks. Stat labs reveal Na 118, K 3.2, Cl 88, HCO3 22, BUN 3, and creatinine 0.9. Urine studies for Na and osmolality are sent to the lab. What is the most appropriate next step? 

A 39-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of a palpable nodule in the neck of 2 years’ duration. Her past history is pertinent for Hashimoto’s disease diagnosed 5 years ago, for which she takes thyroid hormone. She has a history of low-dose chest irradiation for an enlarged thymus gland during infancy. On examination, a 2.5-cm nodule is palpable in the left lobe of the thyroid and is firm and non-tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 39 weeks’ gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with regular contractions and gush of fluid 1 hour ago. On examination she is found to have rupture of membranes and is 4 cm dilated. She is admitted to labor and delivery. Her prenatal course was significant for a 36-week vaginal culture that was positive for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) that is sensitive to clindamycin. She also has gestational diabetes that is treated with diet. She has no other medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and is allergic to penicillin. After she is admitted to the labor and delivery ward, a penicillin infusion is erroneously started. Soon thereafter, the patient develops generalized pruritus and urticaria with angioedema and difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 4-year-old previously healthy girl presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of rectal bleeding and dizziness. She has no other gastrointestinal symptoms. On examination, she appears pale. Her heart rate is 140 beats/min, and she has a 20 mmHg postural drop in systolic blood pressure. The child’s abdomen is nondistended and nontender, and fresh blood and clots are in the rectal vault on rectal examination. Definitive management of this child should include which of the following? 

A 40-year-old African American female comes to the office for a routine medical check-up. She has no complaints. She has twenty pack-year smoking history but she stopped smoking one year ago. Her mother and one maternal uncle have diabetes. Her height is 5'7" inches, and weight is 150 lbs. Her blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 14/min and temperature is 37°C (98°F). She agrees to have diabetes mellitus screening. Her plasma glucose level after an overnight fast is 130 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 40-year-old alcoholic is brought to the emergency department with frostbite to both lower extremities. His core body temperature is 36°C. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for the patient’s thermal injury?

A 40-year-old female patient is brought to the office by her husband due to altered mental status and confusion of recent onset. According to her husband, she has been complaining of intense thirst, craving for ice water, and experiencing increased urination for the past few days. Her only medication is lithium for bipolar depression. Her temperature is 39.0°C (102.5°F), pulse is 102/min, blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and respirations are 15/min. Physical examination reveals a disoriented patient with dry skin and mucous membranes. Blood chemistry panel reveals: Sodium 156 mEq/L, Potassium 4.1 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L, Blood glucose 102 mg/dl, BUN 27 mg/dl. Serum osmolality is 328 mOsm/kg, and urine osmolality is 180mOsm/Kg. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 40-year-old male presents with six months of worsening dyspnea. His symptoms have progressed to the point that walking even one block causes him to become shot of breath. He has a history of cigarette smoking, but quit 10 years ago. He drinks approximately one alcoholic drink daily. His medical history is significant for peptic ulcer disease for which he takes antacids. On physical examination, he is afebrile. His pulse is 86/min, blood pressure is 140/56 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14/min. While examining his heat you note a high-pitched blowing, early diastolic, decrescendo murmur, which is heard best in the left third intercostal space and is intensified by handgrip. There is prominent cardiomegaly on chest x-ray. Which of the following medications would improve both this patient’s symptoms and cardiomegaly?

A 40-year-old white female presents with complaints of heat intolerance, sweating and palpitations. She also reports menstrual irregularities, increased appetite and diarrhea. She has had these symptoms for the past 4 Months. Her pulse is 102/min and regular, blood pressure is 116/80 mmHg, temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination reveals a non-tender, diffuse swelling in front of her neck; it moves upwards with deglutition. Her TSH level is 0.05 mU/L. Free T4 and T3 levels are increased. Radioactive iodine uptake at 24 hours is significantly increased. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term treatment modality for this patient?

A 41-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks, who has been completely dilated and pushing for 3 hours, has an epidural in place and remains undelivered. She is exhausted and crying and tells you that she can no longer push. Her temperature is 38.3C (101F). The fetal heart rate is in the 190s with decreased variability. The patient’s membranes have been ruptured for over 24 hours, and she has been receiving intravenous penicillin for a history of colonization with group B streptococcus bacteria. The patient’s cervix is completely dilated and effaced and the fetal head is in the direct OA position and is visible at the introitus between pushes. Extensive caput is noted, but the fetal bones are at the +3 station. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 41-year-old man complains of regurgitation of saliva and of undigested food. An esophagram reveals a dilated oesophagus and a bird’s-beak deformity. Manometry shows a hypertensive lower esophageal sphincter with failure to relax with deglutition. Which of the following is the safest and most effective treatment of this condition?

A 42-year-old African-American woman presents to your office with bilateral knee pain that severely limits her mobility. She also complains of joint stiffness in the morning that takes several hours to improve. Her hand joints are symmetrically swollen. She has been taking over-the-counter ibuprofen and aspirin with little relief of symptoms. She has no other medical problems and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows pain and swelling of both wrists and knees. Laboratory studies reveal: Hemoglobin 8.4 mg/dl, Serum iron 30 µg/dL (normal 50-150 µg/dL), Total iron binding capacity 230 µg/dL (normal 300-360 µg/dL), Ferritin 300 ng/dl. Which of the following is most likely to improve this patient's anemia?

A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents to the emergency department complaining of a two-day history of fever to 40°C (104°F), headache, and vomiting. Physical examination reveals petechiae and purpura on his trunk and lower extremities. Examination of his cerebrospinal fluid is consistent with bacterial meningitis. The patient is told of his diagnosis and the need for antibiotics and hospitalization is discussed. The patient refuses to be admitted to the hospital, however, and insists upon being treated at home. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of burning substernal chest pain after every meal. His other medical problems include chronic alcoholism. Upper endoscopy shows mucosal irregularity and ulceration of the squamocolumnar junction above the lower esophageal sphincter. Multiple biopsies are taken. He complains of worsening substernal pain radiating to the back, left chest pain, and mild shortness of breath 4 hours later. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.9°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 34/min. A chest x-ray shows a small left pleural effusion that was not present on a chest radiograph taken 2 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 42-year-old woman comes to your office for an annual examination. She states that she has been feeling good over the past year. She exercises three times a week and watches her diet. She has no medical problems. She had an appendectomy at the age of 25, and no other surgeries. She uses a 35μg combined oral contraceptive pill (OCP) daily, and takes no other medications. She has been on “the pill” for birth control for the past 10 years and is happy with it. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination, including breast and pelvic exams, is normal. She wants to know if she can continue to take the oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give her?

A 42-year-old woman presents to her physician with complaints of fever (38.2°C [100.8°F]) and mild-to-moderate anterior neck pain. On examination the physician finds her to be tachycardic and sweating, and to have an exquisitely tender thyroid gland. Her blood work shows a depressed thyroid-stimulating hormone level and increased free thyroxine. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

A 42-year-old woman sees her physician because she has been depressed for the past 4 months. She also notes that she has gained 20 lb without trying to. She notes that she does not take pleasure in the activities that she once enjoyed and seems fatigued most of the time. These symptoms have caused the patient to withdraw from many of the social functions that she once enjoyed. The physician diagnoses the patient with hypothyroidism and starts her on thyroid supplementation. Six weeks later, the patient’s thyroid hormone levels have normalized, but she still reports feeling depressed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? 

A 42-year-old woman with hypertension and a past history of an ectopic pregnancy 18 years earlier comes to your office and reports one episode of unprotected sexual intercourse 6 days ago. Her last menstrual period was normal and occurred 2 weeks earlier. She is concerned about unintended pregnancy and asks you about the “Morning After” pill. She reports no other complaints, has been healthy recently, and her hypertension has been well controlled. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. Which of the following factors in this patient would be a relative contraindication to prescribing hormonal emergency contraception?

A 43-year-old female with history of hepatitis C, alcohol use and cirrhosis is admitted to the hospital for severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98.2°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min and blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg supine. Her lungs are clear to auscultation. She has mild epigastric tenderness, but there is no abdominal distention. Extremities have no edema. Her laboratory profile shows: Blood PH 7.49, PaO2 100 mmHg, PaCO2 41 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L, Sodium 138 mEq/L, Potassium 3.0 mEq/L, Chloride 95 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for the patient's alkalosis?

A 43-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of progressively worsening abdominal pain over the past 2 days. The pain is constant and radiates to his back. He also describes nausea and vomiting and states he usually drinks six pack of beer daily, but has not had a drink for 2 days. His BP is 144/75 mm Hg, HR is 101 beats per minute, temperature is 99.8°F, and RR is 14 breaths per minute. He is lying on his side with his knees flexed. Examination shows voluntary guarding and tenderness to palpation of his epigastrium. Laboratory results reveal WBC 10,500/μL, hematocrit 51%, platelets 225/μL, and lipase 620 IU. An abdominal radiograph reveals a nonspecific bowel gas pattern. There is no free air under the diaphragm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 44-year-old woman is recovering from a mild episode of acute ascending cholangitis secondary to choledocholithiasis. When seen initially, she had a spiking fever, leukocytosis, and a very high alkaline phosphatase; however, all these findings subsided rapidly after she was placed on IV antibiotics. A sonogram of the right upper quadrant on the day of admission showed the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder, but the diameter of the biliary ducts was normal. It was assumed that she had passed a common duct stone, and plans to do an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) were canceled. While awaiting elective cholecystectomy, she again developed a fever and leukocytosis, and her liver function tests showed minimal elevation of her bilirubin (to 2.5 mg/dL) and alkaline phosphatase (to 115 U/L). A repeat sonogram shows no changes in her biliary ducts, but now there is a 6-cm abscess in the right lobe of the liver. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this new development? 

A 45-year-old G2P2 female presents for annual examination. She reports regular menstrual cycles lasting 3 to 5 days. She exercises 5 times per week and reports no difficulty sleeping. Her weight is stable 140 lbs and she is 5 ft 8 in tall. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies are normal with the exception of a TSH value of 6.6 mU/L (normal 0.4-4.0 mU/L). Which of the following represents the best option for management of this patient’s elevated TSH?

A 45-year-old male comes to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath that began 3 hours ago. He also has a nonproductive cough, a low-grade fever and right-sided chest pain that worsen with inspiration. He denies coughing up blood, wheezing, palpitations, leg pain or swelling of his lower extremities. He recently returned home from a trip to Singapore. He has a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. His takes fosinopril, metformin and glyburide. He doesn't use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. His temperature is 98.0°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 128/min, respirations are 32/min, and O2 saturation is 84% on room air. Physical examination shows a slightly obese man in acute respiratory distress. He is alert and cooperative without any cyanosis or jaundice. He has a slightly displaced apical impulse with a S4. Chest-x ray shows mild cardiomegaly with no infiltrates. EKG shows sinus tachycardia and left ventricular hypertrophy without ST-T wave changes. His arterial blood gas analysis shows pH 7.52, pCO2 30, pO2 55, HC03 22. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of pleuritic chest pain. He says he is a heavy smoker and has been having intermittent cough for the past 2 weeks. His blood work is normal and his chest x ray is clear. EKG reveals a normal sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 68. He does have a PR interval > 0.2 seconds. The next step in the management of his arrhythmia is: