CCNA Final Exam
CCNA Final Exam Quiz
Test your knowledge and skills with our comprehensive CCNA Final Exam Quiz. This quiz comprises 54 challenging questions that cover essential networking concepts and Cisco certification criteria.
Prepare for your CCNA certification by practicing with real exam scenarios:
- Multiple choice questions
- Checkbox selections
- In-depth explanations for each answer
Refer to the exhibit. A network admin is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The admin issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active client is 0?
The Default gateway address is not provided in the pool
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
The ipv6 DHCP pool configuration has no ipv6 address range specified.
The stateis not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless dhcpv6 operation.
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an ipv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
Ip dhcp pool
Ip address dhcp
Service dhcp
Ip helper-address
What kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its ip address lease has expired?
A DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
A DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
A DCHPREQUEST unicast message
A DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
Refer to the exhibit. R1 had been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to recieve an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is recienving the ip address.
R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface G0/1
The ip healpter-address command was applied on the wrong interface
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public ip address of 209.165.200.255/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network admin add to allow this device to be acessed by the Marketing personnel from home?
Ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5 ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
Ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 113 209.165.200.225 443 ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
Ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443 ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
No additional configuration is necessary
What is a disadvantage of NAT
There is no end to end addressing
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the ipv4 packets
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing though a NAT device?
Telnet
IPsec
HTTP
ICMP
DNS
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 host to the internet via the use of a single public ipv4 address
It allows sites to connect IPV6 host to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPV4 addresses
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 network.
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers tha match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and iin what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose Two)
R1 g0/1.12
R1 s0/0/0
R2 s0/0/1
R2 g0/1.20
Inbound
Outbound
Which two packet filters could a network admin use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two)
Destination MAC address
ICMP message type
Computer type
Source tcp hello address
Destination UDP port number
A Network admin is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the It and Gt keywords when filtering packets using and extended ACL. Where would the It or Gt keywords be used?
In and ipv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
In an ipv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
In an ipv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
In an ipv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three)
Access list number 1 and 99
Access list number between 100 and 199
Default gateway address wildcard mask
Destination address and wildcard mask
Source address and wildcard mask
Source subnet mask and wildcard mask
Destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
A network admin is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.1/25, 192.168.1.128/26 and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most effcient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255
0.0.255.255
The computers used by the network admin for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network admin will be allowed TELNET access to the routers? (Choose Two)
Access-class 5 in
Access-list 5 deny any
Access-list standard VTY
Permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
Ip access-group 5 out
Ip access-group 5 in
A Network admin is adding ACL to a nw IPv6 multirouter environment. Which ipv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
Permit ip any any
Permit ip any host ip_address
Permit icmp any any nd-na
Deny ip any any
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network
It has an administrative distance of 1
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
The ip route command was used
The ipv6 route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing tables as IPv4 routes
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16
Child route
Ultimate route
Default route
Level 1 parent route
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two)
Scalability
ISP selection
Speed of convergence
The autonomous system that is used
Campus backbone architecture
Refer to the exibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
Directly attached static route
Recursive static route
Fully specified static route
Floating static route
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 s0/0/0 200
Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 s0/0/0 200
Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 s0/0/0 100
Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 s0/0/0 100
Which summary Ipv6 static route statment can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
Ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 s0/0/0
Ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 s0/0/0
Ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 s0/0/0
Ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 s0/0/0
Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R! Consider the 2001:db8:acad:1::/64 network to be?
1
2
3
4
Which statement is true about the difference between OSFPv2 and OSPFv3?
OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use
OSPFv3 routers use 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form a neighbor adjacencies.
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have echanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They request more information about their databases.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination
Lnk cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination
Cost equals bandwidth
A lower cost inidcates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three)
The link router interface ip addres and subnet mask
The type of network link
The link next-hop ip address
The link bandwidth
The cost of that link
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three)
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router
The link interface subnet masks must match
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (choose two)
RouterA(config)#router ospf 0
RouterA(config)#router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)#network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config-router)#network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)#network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (choose two)
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from the other routers.
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Why would an admin use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses
To determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
To determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
To determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
To determine which ports are functioning
Two employees in the sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
Switchport mode access switchport port-security
Switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict
Switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport mode access
Switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation protect
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
A cable has not been attached to the port
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interace
There is no IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface
What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on f0/8, putting f0/8 in err-disable state
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port f0/8
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port f0/8
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port f0/8
While analyzing log files, a network admin notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors.
All traffic on the error-occuring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.
Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three)
Dynamic desirable - dynamic desirable
Dynamic auto - dynamic auto
Dynamic desirable - dynamic auto
Dynamic desriable - trunk
Access - trunk
Access - dynamic auto
What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two)
Change the native VLAN on both ports
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.
A network admin is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port g1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
Switch(config)#interface g1/1 Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 1
Switch(config)#interface g1/1 Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
Switch(config)#interface g1/1 Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
Switch(config)#interface g1/1 Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1
Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two)
Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN
The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch
High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN
The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)#no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch(config)#no vlan 100
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLAN
A network contains multiple vlans spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast ethernet frame?
All devices in all vlans see the frame
Devices in vlan 20 and the management vlan see the frame
Only devices in vlan 20 see the frame
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANs 10, 30 and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
A configuration for the native vlan is missing
There is no ip address configured for the f0/0 interface
The wrong vlan has been configured on subinterface f0/0.50
The vlan IP addresses should belong to the same subnet
What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring ip address translation?
The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool
The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation
Which command will create a static route on R@ in order to reach PCB?
R2(config)#ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R2(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R2(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R2(config)#ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
Fill in the blank : in IPv6, all routes are level _____ ultimate routes.
3
5
1
8
Fill in the blank : Static routes are configured by the use of the _____ global configuration command
Ip address
Nat static
Ip route
Subnet
Fill in the blank: The OSPF Type 1 packet is the ______ packet
Sup?
Hello
Bye
My man
Fill in the blank: the administrative distance for a static route is ______?
1
2
3
4
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table
The destination MAC address and incoming port
The destination MAC address and the outgoing port
The source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
The source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
The source MAC address and the incoming port
The source MAN address and outgoing port
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exists in the topology?
10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains.
What is the function of the distribution layer?
Fault isolation
Network access to the user
High-speed backbone connectivity
Interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check
Borderless switching
Cut-through switching
Ingress port buffering
Store-and-forward switching
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