Cardiac quiz 1

Which of the following is an etiology of secondary hypertension?
A) Essential hypertension
B) Primary hyperaldosteronism
C) Obesity
D) Family history of hypertension
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hypertension?
A) Fatigue and weakness
B) Polyuria
C) Visual disturbances
D) Weight gain
Which of the following is a test used to diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism?
A) Renal ultrasound
B) Fasting blood glucose test
C) Echocardiogram
D) Plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) test
Which of the following tests is used to diagnose pheochromocytoma?
A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
B) Renal ultrasound
C) Plasma metanephrine levels
D) Lumbar puncture
Which of the following tests is used to diagnose Cushing's syndrome?
A) Complete blood count (CBC)
B) Thyroid function tests
C) 24-hour urine cortisol test
D) Liver function tests
Which of the following medications is an Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor?
A) Amlodipine
B) Losartan
C) Metoprolol
D) Lisinopril
Which of the following medications is a combination of an Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB) and a Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB)?
A) Amlodipine
B) Valsartan
C) Olmesartan
D) Telmisartan
Which of the following medications is a non-selective beta-blocker?
A) Metoprolol
B) Atenolol
C) Propranolol
D) Nebivolol
Which of the following medications is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker?
A) Amlodipine
B) Nifedipine
C) Verapamil
D) Diltiazem
Which of the following medications is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker?( multiple answer)
A) Verapamil
B) Diltiazem
C) Amlodipine
D) Nifedipine
Which of the following medications is a loop diuretic?
A) Furosemide
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) Spironolactone
D) Metolazone
Which of the following medications is a thiazide diuretic?
A) Furosemide
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) Spironolactone
D) Metolazone
Which of the following medications is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Furosemide
C) Spironolactone
D) Metolazone
What is the pharmacological treatment of hypertensive crisis?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Nitroglycerin
What is the recommended treatment for hypertension in pregnancy?
A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Beta-blockers
What is the common etiology of secondary hyperlipidemia?
A) Genetic mutations
B) Sedentary lifestyle
C) Obesity
D) Underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism)
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of familial hypercholesterolemia?
A) Xanthomas
B) Hypertension
C) Polyuria
D) Abdominal pain
Which of the following medications belongs to the group of fibrates, commonly used for lowering lipid levels?
A) Atorvastatin
B) Ezetimibe
C) Fenofibrate
D) Rosuvastatin
Which of the following medications belongs to the group of resins, commonly used for lowering lipid levels?
A) Lovastatin
B) Colesevelam
C) Gemfibrozil
D) Simvastatin
Which of the following medications belongs to the group of lipid-lowering drugs known as cholesterol absorption inhibitors?
A) Atorvastatin
B) Fenofibrate
C) Colesevelam
D) Ezetimibe
What are the underlying causes of heart failure due to systolic dysfunction?
A) Diastolic dysfunction
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Valvular heart disease
What are the underlying causes of heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Hypertension
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Valvular heart disease
What are the underlying causes of heart failure due to high output status?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Valvular heart disease
C) Anemia
D) Myocarditis
Which of the following are clinical manifestations of heart failure?
A) Fatigue, dyspnea, and peripheral edema
B) Hypertension and tachycardia
C) Chest pain and palpitations
D) Weight loss and increased appetite
What is the Framingham criteria used for in relation to heart failure?
A) Diagnosing heart failure based on clinical criteria
B) Assessing the severity of heart failure symptoms
C) Predicting the risk of developing heart failure
D) Monitoring the response to heart failure treatment
Which of the following is a common cause of right-sided heart failure?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Hypertension
C) Chronic lung disease
D) Aortic valve stenosis
What is the medical treatment of acute heart failure?
A) Beta-blockers
) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)
C) Diuretics
D) Calcium channel blockers
In addition to standard pharmacological treatment, which medication is commonly used in the management of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) to reduce morbidity and mortality?
A) Sacubitril/valsartan (ARNI)
B) Digoxin
C) Spironolactone
D) Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine
Which of the following are the precipitating factors of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
A) Excessive fluid intake
B) Prolonged physical exertion
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Hypovolemia
What is the role of positive inotropes in the management of acute decompensated heart failure?
A) Increase heart rate
B) Improve cardiac contractility
C) Reduce peripheral vascular resistance
D) Promote diuresis
Which of the following treatment strategies is considered a first-line intervention for the management of acute pulmonary edema?
A) Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
B) Administration of intravenous vasodilators
C) Ultrafiltration
D) Placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)
Which of the following is an etiology of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Left ventricular failure
C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D) Pulmonary embolism
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of stable angina?
A) Severe chest pain at rest
B) Chest pain occurring during physical activity or emotional stress
C) Sharp, stabbing pain lasting for hours
D) Sudden onset of chest pain with shortness of breath
Which of the following findings on physical examination is associated with stable angina?
A) Jugular venous distention
B) S3 gallop
C) S4 gallop
D) Pericardial friction rub
Which of the following imaging studies is considered the gold standard for assessing coronary artery disease (CAD) and can provide information about the severity and extent of blockages?
A) Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE)
B) Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
C) Coronary angiography
D) Cardiac computed tomography (CT) scan
What is the definition of coronary revascularization?
A) A surgical procedure to remove blockages in the coronary arteries
B) The administration of medication to improve blood flow to the coronary arteries
C) A non-invasive procedure to widen narrowed coronary arteries using a balloon catheter
D) A procedure to restore blood flow to the heart by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries
What are the clinical manifestations of acute coronary syndrome?
A) Sudden onset of chest pain, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis (excessive sweating)
B) Gradual onset of leg pain, swelling, and discoloration
C) Recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and bloating
D) Persistent headache, dizziness, and blurred vision
Which of the following is a differential diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome?
A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
B) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
C) Migraine headache
D) Pulmonary embolism (PE)
What are the clinical manifestations of myocarditis?
A) Chest pain, fatigue, and shortness of breath
B) Abdominal pain and diarrhea
C) Joint pain and muscle weakness
D) Headache and dizziness
Which of the following diagnostic modalities is considered the gold standard for diagnosing myocarditis?
A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
B) Echocardiogram
C) Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D) Endomyocardial biopsy
Which of the following is a first line pharmacological treatment option for myocarditis?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B) Beta-blockers
C) Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
D) Anticoagulants
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of pericarditis?
A) Chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration
B) Shortness of breath and cough
C) Abdominal pain and bloating
D) Numbness and tingling in the extremities
Which diagnostic test is most sensitive for detecting pericarditis?
A) Echocardiography
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) Computed tomography (CT) scan
D) Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (CMR)
What is the surgical treatment of pericarditis?
A) Pericardiocentesis
B) Pericardial window
C) Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery
D) Percutaneous balloon pericardiotomy
Which of the following bacteria can be found on the native valve in cases of infective endocarditis?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Escherichia coli
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the following bacteria can be found on the prosthetic valve in cases of infective endocarditis?
A) Streptococcus viridans
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Among the following complex surgical procedures, which one carries the highest risk for the development of infective endocarditis?
A) Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery
B) Total hip replacement surgery
C) Kidney transplantation
D) Lung lobectomy
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation commonly observed in patients with infective endocarditis?
A) Painful oral ulcers
B) Peripheral edema
C) Cough and shortness of breath
D) Painless skin nodules
What is the purpose of Modified Duke's criteria in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis?
A) To assess the severity of the infection
B) To determine the causative organism
C) To guide the choice of antibiotic treatment
D) To provide a standardized approach for diagnosis
What is the purpose of the pathological criteria in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis?
A) To assess the severity of the infection
B) To determine the causative organism
C) To evaluate the structural changes in the heart valves
D) To provide a standardized approach for diagnosis
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