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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Take the AFI 36-2626 4N051 Code 05 Quiz

Ready to test your AFI 36-2626 skills? Dive into the 4N051 challenge!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
paper art illustration of medical and quiz elements on sky blue background promoting AFI 36 2626 4N051 Code 05 quiz

This AFI 36-2626 quiz helps you practice 4N051 Code 05 tasks in Air Force Medical Service operations. Work through short, scenario-based items that mirror real procedures, then check your score to spot gaps before the exam. For extra reps, try the AFI 36-2626 practice set.

What does AFI 36-2626 primarily govern?
Personnel evaluation criteria
Enlisted training and upgrade requirements
Physical fitness standards
Security clearance procedures
AFI 36-2626 outlines the policies and procedures for enlisted professional military education and upgrade training. It establishes upgrade training requirements, training records procedures, and responsibilities for trainers, supervisors, and training managers. This publication is the authoritative source for enlisted career development.
Which career field code corresponds to Aerospace Medical Service apprentice?
4N151
4N051
4N071
4A051
The code 4N051 identifies the Aerospace Medical Service apprentice skill level in the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) structure. '4N' denotes the medical service career field and '051' denotes the apprentice level. This is the entry-level designation before qualification upgrades.
In 4N051 Code 05, what does '05' signify?
Incentive training phase
Apprentice training phase
Qualification (journeyman) upgrade
Initial technical school enrollment
The '05' in 4N051 denotes the qualification (journeyman) upgrade level, which follows the apprentice (3-level) training. It indicates the individual has met the skill and knowledge requirements to perform duties without close supervision. Code 05 is the first operational qualification level.
Who is responsible for maintaining individual training records for 4N051 personnel?
Base Education Office
Immediate supervisor
Airman's?? commander
Unit Training Manager (UTM)
The Unit Training Manager (UTM) is designated by AFI 36-2626 as responsible for maintaining, filing, and updating training records for all assigned personnel. This ensures standardization and accountability. Supervisors and trainers assist but the UTM holds primary responsibility.
Minimum time-in-training for upgrade from apprentice to journeyman for 4N051 is how many months?
6 months
3 months
12 months
9 months
AFI 36-2626 establishes a 9-month minimum time-in-training requirement before an apprentice may upgrade to journeyman status, ensuring sufficient practical experience. This period allows completion of on-the-job training tasks and CDC requirements. Extensions may be granted by the commander if necessary.
What does CDC stand for in enlisted upgrade training?
Certification Development Curriculum
Career Data Component
Career Development Course
Core Duty Checklist
CDC stands for Career Development Course, which is a self-paced, correspondence-style training program aligned to the Specialty Training Standards (STS). CDCs provide the knowledge base needed for job performance and are mandatory for upgrade. They are tracked in AFTR and MICT.
Which system is primarily used to track individual training tasks and completion status?
Management Internal Control Toolset (MICT)
Defense Integrated Training Network (DITN)
Training Business Area (TBA)
Air Force Enterprise Virtual Education Center (AFVEC)
MICT is the centralized system used by UTMs to manage, assign, and track on-the-job training tasks and CDC status for all enlisted personnel. It interfaces with AFTR to maintain records. AFI 36-2626 references MICT for program management.
Who formally certifies a trainee's performance of an on-the-job training task?
Certified trainer or qualified individual
Unit Training Manager
Group Commander
Immediate supervisor
Qualified trainers - those designated or certified in their CFETP as task certifiers - validate a trainee's performance and sign off on the task. Supervisors ensure task completion but do not perform the certification role unless specifically qualified. This ensures consistency and competency.
Approximately how many tasks are listed in the Aerospace Medical Service STS for 4N051?
300 tasks
75 tasks
150 tasks
500 tasks
The Specialty Training Standard (STS) for 4N051 typically outlines about 300 tasks that cover knowledge and hands-on skills required for qualification. These tasks are divided into core and additional duties. The STS is maintained by AF/A3M and published in CFETP Part II.
Which form is used to document task certification and progression in AFI 36-2626?
AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action
AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS
AF Form 168, Record of Individual Counseling
AF Form 623a, Training Report - Continuation
AF Form 623a is used as the continuation sheet for AF Form 623, documenting training progress, task certifications, and feedback. It provides space for signatures, dates, and remarks on each task. This form is integral to training records management under AFI 36-2626.
A trainee must complete CDC modules within how many days of enrollment without an approved extension?
120 days
90 days
60 days
150 days
AFI 36-2626 stipulates a 120-day completion window for CDC enrollment, promoting timely knowledge acquisition. Commanders may grant extensions via AF Form 803 for extenuating circumstances. Failure to complete within this period may require de-enrollment and retraining.
What does UTM stand for in Air Force training management?
Unit Talent Manager
Unit Training Manager
Unit Technical Mentor
Unified Task Monitor
UTM stands for Unit Training Manager, the individual appointed to oversee the training program within a squadron or unit. The UTM coordinates scheduling, recordkeeping, and ensures AFI 36-2626 compliance. This role is critical for career development tracking.
Through which portal are CDCs normally ordered and managed?
Air Force Portal Training Library
AFTR system
Air Force Virtual Education Center (AFVEC)
Defense Knowledge Online
AFVEC is the official portal where Airmen enroll in, manage, and track Career Development Courses. It interfaces with AFTR and MICT to update completion status automatically. AFI 36-2626 references AFVEC as the ordering source.
Who has the final authority to approve CDC completion extensions?
Unit Commander
Functional Manager
Wing Training Manager
Unit Training Manager
Commanders are the approval authority for CDC extension requests, ensuring extensions are granted only for valid reasons. They review recommendations from UTMs and supervisors before approving AF Form 803. Command-level oversight maintains program integrity.
At what rank is an Airman considered eligible to serve as a non-supervisory journeyman in 4N051?
Technical Sergeant (E-6)
Master Sergeant (E-7)
Staff Sergeant (E-5)
Senior Airman (E-4)
Staff Sergeants (E-5) are considered the first level of non-supervisory journeymen in enlisted career fields. They have completed upgrade training and obtained the 5-level skill code. Senior Airmen may also hold 5-level, but SSgts carry additional responsibilities.
Which part of the CFETP details qualification training and task breakdowns?
Part I
Appendix A
Appendix B
Part II
CFETP Part II contains the Specialty Training Standard (STS), which lists qualification and upgrade training tasks, core and non-core duties, and training objectives. Part I contains general career field information and policies. Part II is essential for OJT management.
CFETP Part I primarily includes what type of information?
CDC test questions
OJT task performance steps
General career field background and policies
Detailed STS tasks
Part I of the CFETP provides an overview of the career field, including career progression, duty positions, and support information. It sets the foundation for training responsibilities and specialty knowledge. Detailed task lists are reserved for Part II.
After qualification, how long are task certifications valid before requiring re-evaluation?
24 months
6 months
12 months
36 months
AFI 36-2626 requires task certifications to be renewed every 24 months to ensure continued proficiency. This 2-year interval balances currency with flexibility. Expired tasks must be re-evaluated or retrained.
What is the minimum rank typically required to serve as a designated trainer for 4N051 tasks?
Senior Master Sergeant (E-8)
Technical Sergeant (E-6)
Staff Sergeant (E-5)
Senior Airman (E-4)
Designated trainers are usually Staff Sergeants (E-5) or above who have completed the necessary CDC and OJT qualification requirements. Their rank and experience ensure they can provide accurate instruction. Airmen below E-5 typically require additional certification.
In MICT, what does STS stand for?
Standard Task Schedule
Specialty Training Standard
Skill Tracking System
Service Training Summary
STS refers to the Specialty Training Standard, which outlines all required tasks for each skill level within a career field. MICT uses the STS to generate training requirements and track progress. It ensures trainers and trainees follow standardized guidelines.
Who has authority to approve on-the-job training task waivers?
Unit Training Manager
Squadron Commander
Group Commander
MAJCOM/A3M (Functional Manager)
Task waivers require approval from the MAJCOM functional manager (A3M) to ensure consistency across units. This central office evaluates waiver requests against mission requirements and risk. UTMs recommend but do not approve waivers.
Which report provides a summary of all 4N051 personnel and their CDC completion status?
Qualification Overview Report
Training Status Report
CDC Progress Summary
Student Course Completion File
The Training Status Report aggregates CDC and task completion status for all personnel in a career field. It is generated from MICT and AFTR data. Commanders and UTMs use it to identify training deficiencies and manage resources.
What is the minimum time-in-grade requirement for promotion to Staff Sergeant (E-5) in the 4N0X1 career field?
12 months
18 months
24 months
36 months
Promotion eligibility for E-5 typically requires 18 months time-in-grade as a Senior Airman and completion of all CDC requirements. This aligns with AFI 36-2502 guidelines and AFI 36-2626 references for training completion. Commanders may adjust timelines based on mission needs.
If a trainee fails a CDC examination three times, what is the next action?
Immediate removal from upgrade training
Submit waiver to functional manager
Supervisor writes formal counseling
Re-enroll in the CDC after remedial training
AFI 36-2626 requires a trainee who fails a CDC exam three times to undergo remedial training before re-enrollment. This ensures the individual gains the necessary knowledge base. The UTM coordinates remedial actions and documentation.
CFETP Part II is divided into which two major sections?
On-the-job Training and Formal Schooling
Upgrade Training and CDC Testing
General Information and Specialty Summary
Specialty Training Standard and Career Development Courses
Part II of the CFETP is organized into the STS (Tab A) listing duty tasks and Tab B outlining CDC mapping to tasks. This structure clarifies on-the-job training requirements and associated CDC modules. It ensures cohesive training plans.
What does AFECD stand for?
Air Force Enlisted Competency Descriptor
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
Aerospace Functional Equipment Catalog
Air Force Education Credential Database
The AFECD provides official enlisted AFSC definitions, specialty descriptions, and requirements. It is the authoritative source for classification criteria and is updated annually. CFETP references AFECD specialty duties.
Which AF Form is used to document CDC extension approval?
AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
AF Form 2096, Classification Action
AF Form 803, Career Development Course Extension
AF Form 797, JQS Continuation
AF Form 803 is specifically designated for documenting extensions of CDC enrollment due to personal or mission requirements. It requires commander approval and justification. The UTM files the approved form in the training record.
Who initiates re-enrollment actions for a trainee requiring CDC retraining?
Functional Manager
Trainee themselves
Immediate supervisor
Unit Training Manager
Supervisors identify performance deficiencies and request retraining or re-enrollment in CDC via AFVEC. They recommend remedial actions to the UTM. This collaborative approach ensures targeted skill improvement.
How many days does MICT automatically expire task qualifications after certification?
180 days
730 days
90 days
365 days
MICT is programmed to automatically flag or expire task certifications after 730 days (24 months) to prompt re-evaluation. This supports AFI 36-2626 currency requirements and mitigates skill decay. Automated tracking reduces administrative burden.
What is the Airman Professional Enhancement Program (APEP) designed to do?
Replace formal school attendance
Allow early CDC completion waivers
Offer civilian credential reimbursement
Provide peer-to-peer training opportunities and supplemental instruction
APEP is a base-level initiative that pairs junior and senior Airmen for additional hands-on training opportunities, reinforcing CDC and OJT concepts. It supplements formal training and fosters professional mentoring. AFI 36-2626 encourages APEP to enhance readiness.
After separation, how many years must AFTR records be retained?
10 years
3 years
1 year
5 years
AFI 36-2626 requires that AFTR be maintained for a minimum of 3 years after an Airman's separation to allow verification of training for future employment or benefits. This retention period ensures continuity and accountability. Records older than 3 years may be destroyed per AF records disposition schedules.
What minimum passing score is required on CDC end-of-course examinations for credit?
80%
75%
85%
70%
AFI 36-2626 and CFETP guidance mandate an 80% minimum passing score on CDC end-of-course exams to ensure a solid knowledge foundation. Scores below 80% require remedial training and retesting. This standard promotes proficiency across career fields.
Which CDC course number corresponds to the 5-level (journeyman) curriculum for 4N051?
4N051B
4N051A
4N051D
4N051C
The B suffix denotes the 5-level CDC in the 4N051 career field, as outlined in CFETP Part II. Level 5 courses build upon the Level 3 apprentice curriculum. This numbering convention is standardized across enlisted specialties.
Which MAJCOM office oversees policy for all enlisted specialty training?
AF/A1 (Manpower and Personnel)
AF/A8 (Strategy)
AF/A3M (Manpower, Organization and Training)
AF/A4 (Logistics Operations)
AF/A3M is the Headquarters Air Force directorate responsible for enlisted training policy, Specialty Training Standards, and career field education and training plans. They validate and publish STS updates. CFETP updates flow through this office.
Who has waiver authority for CDC prerequisites in the Medical Service career field?
AFMS Functional Manager
Unit Training Manager
Group Commander
Wing Commander
The Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) Functional Manager holds CDC prerequisite waiver authority to ensure consistency across medical units. This office assesses mission impact and training justification. Local UTMs and commanders recommend but cannot approve these waivers.
What is the maximum CDC enrollment period in MICT before a trainee is automatically de-enrolled?
120 days
90 days
180 days
240 days
MICT is configured to automatically de-enroll trainees from CDC after 180 days to enforce timely completion. Commanders may preemptively grant extensions, but if no action is taken, MICT resets enrollment. This mechanism prevents indefinite CDC status.
Which tab in CFETP Part II lists core and non-core tasks for a career field?
Tab B
Tab C
Tab D
Tab A
Tab A of CFETP Part II contains the Specialty Training Standard, listing all core (mandatory) and non-core tasks for each skill level. Tab B maps CDC modules to STS tasks. This clear separation aids training managers and trainers.
Under what condition can a trainee start CDC enrollment without completing initial skills training?
With a documented waiver from the commander
Never under any circumstances
After supervisor approval only
After 50% of OJT tasks are complete
AFI 36-2626 allows commanders to grant waivers for CDC prerequisites when mission requirements dictate. A formal waiver must be documented on AF Form 803. Without this waiver, trainees must complete all initial tasks first.
How many days does a supervisor have to correct an expired task qualification before it's removed from MICT?
90 days
60 days
120 days
30 days
Once a task qualification expires in MICT (after 24 months), supervisors have a 60-day grace period to retrain and recertify the Airman. If competencies aren't demonstrated within that period, MICT removes the certification and the task must be retrained. This ensures currency.
What does RFS stand for in AFI 36-2626 training terminology?
Request for Service
Recognition of Formal Schooling
Record for Skills
Routine Formal Stipend
RFS stands for Recognition of Formal Schooling, which allows formal school credits to substitute for CDC requirements when coursework covers equivalent material. This prevents redundant training. RFS procedures are detailed in AFI 36-2626.
What may substitute for mandatory CDC enrollment under AFI 36-2626?
Supervisory recommendation
Completion of an equivalent formal school with RFS approval
Self-study without testing
On-the-job training only
Formal schooling judged equivalent to CDC content may substitute for CDC enrollment through the RFS process. The functional manager approves RFS requests. This leverages investment in formal training while maintaining standards.
What is the minimum CDC task knowledge prerequisite before a trainer can certify an STS task?
Supervisor's endorsement
80% on the CDC end-of-course exam covering that task
No prerequisite beyond enrollment
70% aggregated average
To ensure trainers possess sufficient knowledge, AFI 36-2626 requires an 80% passing score on the CDC exam for modules relevant to a specific STS task before certifying trainees. This links cognitive mastery with practical certification. It upholds quality standards.
How should superseded tasks in the STS be handled in MICT?
Annotated as superseded but retained in training history
Deleted immediately
Merged with new tasks without notation
Left unchanged
Superseded tasks must be annotated in MICT as superseded to maintain a complete training history while avoiding current requirement confusion. Deletion is not permitted to preserve past certifications and audits. This practice ensures traceability.
What two components comprise an Air Force Qualification Training Package (QTP)?
Formal school syllabus and STS list
A study guide and a written test
A performance-based training guide and a performance checklist
CDC modules and OJT tasks
A QTP consists of a performance-based training guide detailing step-by-step procedures and a performance checklist to document task proficiency. It is an optional but recommended resource for standardizing OJT and evaluation. AFI 36-2626 endorses QTP use.
How often must a unit conduct training status reviews to ensure compliance?
Monthly
Quarterly
Annually
Semi-annually
AFI 36-2626 mandates monthly training status reviews to promptly identify and correct deficiencies in CDC and OJT completion. Frequent reviews enable timely interventions and maintain readiness. Commanders and UTMs share responsibility for these check-ins.
Which agency validates and publishes updates to the STS?
AF/A3M (Headquarters Air Force Training Policy)
MAJCOM Functional Manager
AETC (Air Education and Training Command)
AFPC (Air Force Personnel Center)
Headquarters Air Force Training Policy (AF/A3M) is the validation and approval authority for STS content and changes. They coordinate updates with MAJCOM functional managers and publish revisions. This centralized control ensures consistency across the force.
Which CDC course number corresponds to the 7-level (craftsman) curriculum for 4N051?
4N051C
4N051B
4N051D
4N051A
The C suffix designates the 7-level CDC for the 4N051 career field, reflecting advanced craftsman-level knowledge requirements. This aligns with CFETP and AFECD nomenclature. Completion is required for promotion eligibility to E-7.
Which part of the CFETP outlines overall career field progression and required developmental education?
CFETP Part I
CFETP Part II
Appendix A
Appendix B
CFETP Part I provides broad career development path information, including skill level progression, correspondence course requirements, and professional education guidelines. It integrates developmental education milestones with AFI 36-2626 policy. Part II focuses on task lists.
How often must CDC proctors be recertified to maintain testing integrity?
Annually
Every five years
Biennially
Every two years
AFI 36-2626 requires CDC proctors to undergo recertification on an annual basis to ensure they are current on testing procedures and security measures. This supports standardization and protects test integrity. Records of recertification are maintained in unit training files.
Which Air Force instruction covers Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) classification criteria?
AFI 36-2626, Enlisted Development Programs
AFI 36-2502, Enlisted Promotion and Selective Retention
AFI 36-2418, The Enlisted Force Structure
AFI 36-2101, Developing and Managing Enlisted Classification
AFI 36-2101 provides the policy and procedures for determining, classifying, and managing AFSCs for enlisted personnel. It defines specialty definitions, classification actions, and reclassification criteria. AFI 36-2626 references it for classification inputs.
Under what condition can Apprentice Level CDC requirements be waived?
Supervisor recommendation only
Unit commander discretion without documentation
Never, apprentice Level CDC cannot be waived
Recognition of equivalent formal schooling with RFS approval
Apprentice Level CDCs may be waived through the Recognition of Formal Schooling process when formal school content is deemed equivalent. The waiver must be documented on AF Form 803 and approved by the AFMS Functional Manager. This provision avoids redundant training.
Who is waiver authority for time-on-station requirements before CDC enrollment in 4N051?
Wing Commander
Group Commander
AFMS Functional Manager
Unit Training Manager
The AFMS Functional Manager authorizes waivers to time-on-station requirements for CDC enrollment in the Aerospace Medical Service career field, ensuring standardized policy application. Commanders and UTMs recommend waivers but do not have the authority to approve.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand AFI 36-2626 Guidelines -

    Learn the key provisions and structure of AFI 36-2626 to ensure compliance with Air Force Medical Service standards.

  2. Identify Air Force Medical Service Operations -

    Recognize essential protocols and procedures used in real-world AMS operations to enhance mission readiness.

  3. Analyze AFDD 4-02 Tactical Medical Tactics -

    Examine the principles of battlefield medical support outlined in AFDD 4-02 and their application to 4N051 Code 05 tasks.

  4. Apply Knowledge in 4N051 Set A Scenarios -

    Use scenario-based questions to practice decision-making and reinforce critical thinking for the 4N051 Code 05 exam.

  5. Evaluate Readiness for AF Medical Service Exam -

    Assess your mastery of essential concepts to identify strengths and areas for improvement ahead of certification.

Cheat Sheet

  1. AFI 36-2626 Core Responsibilities -

    Review the organizational structure and Code 05 duties outlined in AFI 36-2626 to ensure you understand supervisory roles in Air Force Medical Service operations. Remember the mnemonic "PAC": Patient advocacy, Administration oversight, and Compliance monitoring to recall key tasks. Aligning daily duties with these guidelines improves mission effectiveness and exam readiness.

  2. Mastering AFDD 4-02 Tactical Medical Operations -

    Learn the MARCH algorithm (Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Hypothermia) as defined in AFDD 4-02 tactics for battlefield casualty care. Practicing this sequence with scenario drills helps cement reaction patterns under stress. Real-world case studies from Air Force medical journals reinforce technique accuracy.

  3. Efficient Patient Movement & Documentation -

    Memorize transport precedence categories (Urgent, Priority, Routine) and the DD Form 1380 format to streamline patient movement - think "UPR" for quick recall. Accurate documentation in your 4N051 Set A duties not only meets regulatory standards but also enhances continuity of care. Refer to the official Air Force Medical Service directives for sample entries.

  4. Infection Prevention & Sterile Technique -

    Apply the SPAT method (Scrub, Prep, Aseptic field, and Technique) from AFI 36-2626 to maintain sterile environments during invasive procedures. Regularly audit PPE compliance and field sanitation protocols to reduce HAI risk. Incorporate checklists from peer-reviewed military medical publications for consistent practice.

  5. Maintaining Code 05 Readiness Standards -

    Stay current with time-honored recertification cycles and the AF medical service exam blueprint to ace your next assessment. Use the "5-5-5" study plan: five hours weekly, five topic reviews, five practice questions from past 4N051 Set A quizzes. Confidence grows when you track progress against official training objectives.

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