PM All Quizzes
Q1: ......... is Well documented approach used in most government projects
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) Design Build .
C) Turnkey.
D) BOT.
Q2: .......... Documents how procurement will be executed,monitored and controlled, and closed.
A) procurement statement of work.
B) Procurement management plan.
C) request for proposals.
D) invitation for bids.
Q3: .......... Is a meeting between the buyer and prospective sellers before submittal of bid proposals.It is used to ensure that prospective sellers have thorough and common understanding of procurement requirements
A) Procurement negotiations.
B) Bidder conference.
C) request for proposals.
D) invitation for bids.
Q4: .......... Is used to rate sellers’ proposals
A) make or buy decision.
B) Source selection criteria.
C) request for proposals.
D) invitation for bids.
Q5: ........... , a well-known motivational theorist, stated people can’t ascend to the next level of needs until the levels below have been fulfilled.:
A) Theory Y.
B) Herzberg’s theory.
C) Maslow’s hierarchy.
D) Theory X
Q6: ........... Approach is suitable for Low risk projects:
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) Design Build .
C) Turnkey.
D) Director labor force.
Q7: ........... Approach is suitable when the project is clearly definable, design is completed, time need not be shortened:
A) Design Build .
B) Turnkey.
C) Design-Bid-Build.
D) All of them.
Q8: ........... Approach is used mostly for repetitive typical work:
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) BOT .
C) Turnkey.
D) Director labor force.
Q9: ...........approach is suitable when the changes are unlikely to occur during project implementation:
A) Design Build .
B) Turnkey.
C) Design-Bid-Build.
D) All of them.
Q10: .........is the scope of work to be done for each procurement
A) procurement statement of work.
B) make or buy decision.
C) request for proposals.
D) invitation for bids.
Q11: .........is used to determine if the internal resource will complete the work or any of the work will be outsourced
A) procurement statement of work.
B) make or buy decision.
C) request for proposals.
D) invitation for bids.
Q12: A crew is used to cut and bent steel reinforcement, if the steel quantity is 16 tons and the production rate of the crew is measured as 1 crew.hour/ton. Assume 8-working hours per day, what is the duration to cut and bent the steel?
A) 3 days.
B) 1 day.
C) 2 days.
D) 4 days.
Q13: A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an example of a:
A) Discretionary Dependency.
B) External dependency.
C) Mandatory dependency.
D) Scope dependency.
Q14: A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work and the project manager has little authority to properly assign resources. What form of organization must the project manager be working in?
A) Functional.
B) Matrix.
C) Coordinator.
D) projectized.
Q15: A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that many people are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the power to give direction to the team member?
A) The project manager .
B) The functional manager .
C) The team.
D) Tight matrix.
Q16: A stakeholders engagement matrix could be used to identify:
A) communication gaps.
B) stakeholders skills.
C) Additional stakeholders.
D) relationship between stakeholders.
Q17: A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the work. What is the BEST solution for the project manager?.
A) Consult with the functional manager to determine project completion incentives for the team member.
B) Obtain a new resource more skilled in a development work.
C) Arrange for the team member to get training.
D) Allocate some of the project schedule reserve.
Q18: All of the following are examples of project’s secondary objectives except:
A) Transfer of technology.
B) Involvement of client in contract management.
C) Training of the client's staff.
D) Project Scope
Q19: All of the following are tasks of the Identify Stakeholders process EXCEPT?
A) Identify people that could impact the project
B) document information regarding stakeholders. .
C) analyze stakeholders interest and influence
D) develop strategies to engage stakeholders.
Q20: All of the following are tasks of the Manage Stakeholders engagement process EXCEPT?
A) Analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding stakeholders potential impact on project success.
B) Clarifying and resolving issues that have been identified.
C) anticipating future problems that may be raised by stakeholders
D) Engaging stakeholders at appropriate project stages.
Q21: An activity has an (ES) of day 3, a (LS) of day 13, an (EF) of day 9, and a (LF) of day 19. The activity:
A) Is progressing well.
B) Has a lag.
C) Is critical.
D) Is not critical.
Q22: Assume that an activity has 8 days TF and 5 days FF, what is the impact on the succeeding activity and the project completion date if this activity is delayed by 9 days?
A) No impact on the project or the succeeding activities.
B) Project will be delayed by 1 day and succeeding activity will be delayed by 4 days.
C) No impact on the project and the succeeding activity will be delayed by 1 day.
D) The project will be delayed by 4 days and the succeeding activity will be delayed by 1 day.
Q23: Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include confronting, smoothing, forcing, and :
A) Withdrawing .
B) Directing .
C) Organizing.
D) Controlling.
Q24: Identifying stakeholders is done for the first time .......:
A) At the start of the project.
B) in the middle of the project.
C) at the end of the project
D) during the close-out phase
Q25: If the level of stakeholder authority or ability to impose (“power”) and its level of concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes are high and high;respectively.Then this stakehokder can be classified according to power interest grid as:
A) keep satisified
B) manage closely.
C) monitor
D) keep informed
Q26: In ........ Approach is suitable for fast track projects:
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) BOT .
C) Design build.
D) Director labor force.
Q27: In ..........approach, Design and implementation are usually performed by two different parties who interact directly and separately with the owner
A) Director labor force .
B) Design Build .
C) Turnkey.
D) Design-Bid-Build.
Q28: In ..........approach, Design does not benefit from implementer expertise
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) Design Build .
C) Turnkey.
D) BOT.
Q29: In ..........approach, the design has to be completed before implementation can start.
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) Design Build .
C) Turnkey.
D) BOT.
Q30: In ..........approach,The contractor performs both the design and the implementation :
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) BOT .
C) Turnkey.
D) Director labor force.
Q31: In ..........approach,The owner performs both the design and the implementation :
A) Design-Bid-Build .
B) Design Build .
C) Turnkey.
D) Director labor force.
Q32: In which contract of the followings, the final project price is known at tender?
A) Cost-reimbursable.
B) target cost.
C) lump sum.
D) all of them
Q33: Of the following needs, which one is ranked highest according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
A) Psychological satisfaction
B) Attainment of survival
C) Need for association.
D) Esteem.
Q34: Plan procurement management process includes:
A) Agreements.
B) Selecting contract type..
C) Selecting sellers.
D) All of them.
Q35: The output of Plan procurement management process includes:
A) make or buy decision.
B) agreement.
C) Procurement documents update.
D) all of them
Q36: The main factors influence the choice of a given contract are:
A) the incentive.
B) risk sharing.
C) flexibility.
D) all of them
Q37: sellers’ selection criteria may include:
A) technical capability.
B) financial capacity.
C) management approach.
D) All of them.
Q38: The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically (………) during the initial stages and gets progressively (………) as the project progresses.
A) highest, higher.
B) Lowest, lower.
C) Highest, lower.
D) lowest, higher.
Q39: The grouping of project elements by deliverables is known as what?
A) The code of accounts
B) The work package
C) The work breakdown structure
D) The work breakdown dictionary
Q40: The management theory that states that all people can direct their efforts is:
A) Theory Y.
B) Herzberg’s theory.
C) Maslow’s hierarchy.
D) Theory X.
Q41: There are two activities on your schedule, which are: 1) Install server in lab 2) Move server into the data center. However, the second task can’t start until the server has run in the lab for 5 days without failure. This is an example of what?
A) Fast Track
B) Lead
C) Lag.
D) Crashing.
Q42: What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he/she says, “Let’s see what everyone thinks, and try to reach a consensus توافق”?
A) Forcing.
B) Smoothing .
C) Compromise.
D) collaborating.
Q43: which of the following best describes decomposition?
A) Waiting for a task to expire so that it can be break down into smaller tasks.
B) Taking a deliverable and breaking it down into smaller work packages so that it can be organized and planned.
C) categorizing work packages.
D) Dividing work packages into deliverables that can planned for.
Q44: Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will generate the MOST lasting solution?
A) Forcing.
B) Smoothing .
C) Compromise.
D) Problem solving.
Q45: Which of the following is a tool used to classify stakeholders?
A) stakeholders register.
B) power/interest grid.
C) Gantt chart.
D) Decomposition.
Q46: Which of the following is NOT a task in the Identify stakeholders process?
A) Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact the project.
B) Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could be impacted by the project.
C) Analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding stakeholders interests.
D) Develop appropriate management strategy to effectively engage stakeholders.
Q47: Which of the following is NOT true about Identify Stakeholders process?
A) it is a one-time activity in the project.
B) stakeholders are identified.
C) stakeholders impacts are analyzed.
D) it is a continuous activity.
Q48: Which of the following is NOT true about the stakeholders engagement assessment matrix?
A) it documents the current engagement of stakeholders
B) it identifies communication gaps..
C) it documents the desired engagement of stakeholders.
D) it is used to identify stakeholders.
Q49: Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization?
A) The project manager
B) The functional manager.
C) The team.
D) They all share power.
Q50: You are installing the tiles on one floor and then the next floor, if only one crew is available, which type of relationship is used between the tiles’ installation activities of the two floors?
A) Finish-to-Start.
B) Start-to-Start.
C) No relationship.
D) Finish-to-Finish.
Q51: You are the project manager for a software project. You have worked with the team to create the project schedule, perform critical path analysis and calculated the values of Early and Late Start, Early and Late Finish as well as Float. Which activities in the project cannot slip without making the project late?
A) Activities with biggest difference between ES and LF
B) The activity with most lag
C) All the activities on the critical path
D) Every activity that slips delays the project
Q52: Your project team is working on the network diagram to calculate the float. Which of the following is the formula they should be using,
A) Late Finish – Late Start or Early Finish – Early Start
B) Late Start – Late Finish
C) Early Start – Early Finish
D) Late Finish – Early Finish or Late Start – Early Start
Q53: During......... phase, the project team investigates alternate design solutions, materials and systems.
A) Schematic Design
B) Design development
C) procurement
D) close out
Q54: The advertising for contractors and review of contractors’ bids occurs during..............phase.
A) Design
B) Conceptual planning
C) Construction
D) Procurement
Q55: ..................is responsible for the overall coordination of the project
A) owner
B) desiner
C) project manager
D) governmental agencies
Q56: In capitalism countries, most of industries facilities are .................. funded.
A) public
B) private
C) PPP
D) BOT
Q57: The most important decision from project’s conceptual planning is...............
A) proceed the project or not
B) doing the project scheduling
C) identifying project stakeholders
D) identifying project participants
Q58: In most cases, the prime contractor divides the work among many specialty contractors called ..................
A) sub contractor
B) consultant
C) lobbies
D) stakeholders
Q59: The bulk of the owner’s funds will be spent during........phase.
A) Design
B) construction
C) procurement
D) close out
Q60: Customers, suppliers, end users and government agencies can be classified as .......of a project.
A) participants
B) stakeholders
C) consultants
D) contractors
Q61: During. ........phase, the actual activity costs and durations could be recorded and compared with that was planned.
A) construction
B) design
C) procurement
D) close out
Q62: During...... stage, the owner hires key consultants to select the project site, and establish a preliminary estimate, schedule, and program.
A) schematic design
B) conceptual planning
C) procurement
D) design development
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