Micro exam 2023 part 1
Micro Exam 2023: Part 1
Test your knowledge on microbiology with our comprehensive quiz designed for students and professionals alike. With 30 challenging questions, delve into various topics including pathogens, fungal infections, and resistance phenotypes.
Key Features:
- 30 expertly crafted questions
- Immediate feedback on your answers
- Perfect for reviewing your microbiology knowledge
Choose strict anaerobic microorganisms most commonly found in the large intestine of a healthy individual:
Eubacterium, Enterococcus, Porphyromonas
Blastocystis, Bacteroides, Trichomonas
Propionibacterium, Streptococcus, Acinetobacter
Corynebacterium, Staphylococcus, Candida
Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, Prevotella
Which of the resistance phenotypes refers to MRSA?:
Susceptible to penicillin G, aminopenicillins, ureidopenicillins, and carbapenems
Susceptible to vancomycin
Resistant to amoxicillin, cloxacillin, and imipenem
Resistant to natural penicillins and aminopenicillins, susceptible to IIIrd generation of cephalosporins
Resistant to all penicillins, susceptible to carbapenems
Which marker/s is/are directly detected in the patient's serum in the diagnosis of fungal invasive infections:
Candida – galaktomannan
Aspergillus – galaktomannan
Cryptococcus neoformans – capsular polysaccharides
Candida-mannan
Cryptococcus neoformans – pseudohyphae in direct microscopy
Choose the incorrect statement regarding dimorphic fungi:
Are responsible mostly for superficial and localized infections
Yeast forms occur in infected tissue
Laboratory diagnostic is based on microscopic observation and culturing
Coccidioides immitis is one of its representatives
Found in the environment in endemic countries
Choose the incorrect statement regarding aflatoxins:
Are carcinogenic
Are found in peanuts and cereal grains
Brain is its primary target organ
Are the cause of mycotoxicoses
Are produced I.a. by Aspergillus spp
Choose the correct statement regarding syphilis:
Is caused by spirochetes (30μm – 60 μm) observed by dark-field microscopy
Penicillin is a drug of choice used to treat the infection
Humans are the only natural hosts of T. pallidum
Treponema carateum is its etiological factor
Serology is very sensitive in the primary stages of the disease
Aseptic meningitis is caused by:
Borrelia burgdorferi
E.coli
Haemophilus influenzae
S.pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Choose the correct statement regarding cholera:
Etiological agent: facultatively anaerobic Gram-negative rods
The exotoxin leading to hypersecretion of water and electrolytes is responsible for the clinical manifestation of the disease
Affects only immunocompromised individuals
Spreads mainly via contaminated water and contaminated food products
Antibiotic therapy plays a minor role, azithromycin is mainly used
Which of the following statements refers to CPE-NDM strains:
Are mostly the cause of infections within ambulatory patients
Produces D class of carbapenemases
Treatment management of infections mainly includes glycopeptides
Are an alert pathogens which transmission requires strict sanitary management in health-care facilities
Are susceptible to carbapenems
Asymptomatic bacteriuria:
Requires treatment regardless of the patients' risk factors
It’s a significant bacteriuria without clinical symptoms of UTI
Is caused most commonly by non-fermentative Gram-negative rods
Is often observed in long-term catheterized patients
Always treated in pregnant women
Bite wound infections are caused by the etiological agents listed below except:
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
Bacteroides sp
Actinomyces israeli
Streptococcus gr. viridans
MRSA
Choose incorrect statement regarding CMV infections:
Virus causes lifelong infection
Virus is not transmitted sexually
Virus is present in blood, organ transplants, and all secretions
In premature infants, may cause pneumonia as a consequence of perinatal infection
Is the cause of I.a. cytomegaly
Choose the most common etiological agents of hospital-acquired pneumonia in ICU patients:
Moraxella catarrhalis
Mycobacterium avium
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Acinetobacter baumannii
Echinocandins:
Bind to ergosterol causing direct oxidative membrane damage
Are not active against Candida glabrata and Candida krusei
Inhibit 1,3 – beta-glucan synthesis in fungal cell membrane
Are active against Cryptococcus neoformans
Inhibit 1,3 – beta-glucan synthesis in fungal cell wall
Which toxin is associated with hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS):
Verotoxin of Escherichia coli
Cytotoxin of Clostridium difficile
Enterotoxin of Bacillus cereus
Enterotoxin of Clostridium perfringens
Enterotoxin of S. aureus
Superficial and cutaneous fungal infections are caused by:
Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans
Candida, Malassezia furfur, Trichophyton
Anaplasma, Sporothrix schenckii
Pneumocystis jiroveci, Trichosporon
Zygomycetes
Choose nonsuppurative disease following streptococcal pharyngitis:
Peptic ulcers
Meningitis
Lobar pneumonia
Gastroenteritis
Rheumatic fever
The properties of alcohols include:
Toxicity
Sporicidal activity
Bactericidal activity
Activity against prions
Activity against viruses
Tick-borne diseases include:
Campylobacteriosis, tularemia
Tularemia, infectious mononucleosis
Erysipeloid, Q fever
Spring-summer encephalitis, Lyme disease
Pasteurellosis, Legionnaires’ disease
Clinical diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis requires the following criteria (choose correct):
Blastospores and invasive forms of fungus in direct smear
Fishy odor of vaginal discharge
Clue cells in direct smear
White, "cottage cheese-like" vaginal discharge
Green and frothy vaginal discharge
Drug of choice for the treatment of erysipelas in penicillin-allergic patients includes:
Clarithromycin
Trimethoprim
Meropenem
Amoxicillin
Nystatin
Available vaccines containing anatoxin are those against:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Clostridium tetani
Salmonella Typhi, Vibrio cholerae
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Haemophilus influenzae
Vibrio cholerae, Neisseria meningitidis
Which of the following statement/s refer/s to Helicobacter pylori:
Localized stomach tissue damage is mediated by mucinase, phospholipases, and vacuolating cytotoxin A
Humans are its primary reservoirs
Biopsy specimens are tested for the presence of bacterial urease activity
Guillain–Barre syndrome may be the consequence of infection
Amoxicillin and ciprofloxacin are used for treatment
Which of the following spread via droplet-route:
Measles
Ebola virus
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Bartonella henselae
Legionella pneumophila
Choose correct statement regarding antiviral therapy:
Interferons activate viral protein synthesis in infected host cells
Ribavirin is active against RSV and Lassa virus
Amantadine is a nucleoside analogue used to treat Influenza A infection
Ribavirin is an HIV protease inhibitor
Acyclovir is active only against HHV-1, cannot be used in the treatment of herpes meningoencephalitis
Choose correct statement:
H. Influenzae is never the cause of arthritis
LSP core antigen induces meningeal inflammation in humans
Epiglottitis is mostly caused by nonencapsulated strains of H. influenzae
Most of Haemophilus influenzae type b invasive infections occur in children who are not vaccinated
Haemophilus ducreyi causes sexually transmitted infection characterized by the painless papule with the erythematous base
Choose incorrect statement regarding Lactobacillus:
Is facultatively or strictly anaerobic bacterium
Are found as part of the microbiota of mouth, stomach, intestines, and genitourinary tract
Strains are used as probiotics
Is susceptible to vancomycin
May cause transient bacteremia from genitourinary source after gynecologic procedures
Choose correct regarding whooping cough:
Infection is caused by rapidly growing, microaerophilic bacteria
Disease spreads by infectious aerosols
Systemic toxicity is mediated by pertactin
Detection of IgG and IgA can be used as confirmatory tests
Disease is most common in the vaccinated population of young children and young adults
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