Basic(101-150)
Virus and Vaccine Knowledge Quiz
Test your knowledge on viruses, vaccines, and their impact on human health with our comprehensive quiz! This quiz consists of 50 multiple-choice questions designed to challenge your understanding and enhance your learning about infectious diseases and immunization.
With questions covering various aspects of virology and vaccine efficacy, you will gain insights into:
- Common viruses and their treatments
- The role of vaccines in public health
- Symptoms and transmission methods of infectious diseases
Which one of the following viruses is the leading cause of congenital malformations?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Mumps
Orchitis, which may cause sterility, is a possible manifestation of which of the following?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Mumps
Which of the following is a leading cause of pneumonia primarily in infants?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Mumps
Which of the following causes a fatal encephalitis for which a vaccine is available?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Mumps
Traditional vaccination for the common cold is virtually impossible because there are multiple serotypes of which one of the following viruses?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Mumps
Which of the following is available and effective for hepatitis A?
A. Acyclovir
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
Patients should be vaccinated annually for influenza with which of the following vaccines?
A. Immune serum globulin
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
The vaccine for measles is best characterized as a
A. Bacterin
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
Which one of the following would be the treatment of choice for HSV infection?
A. Acyclovir
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Herpes immune globulin
D. Azythromycin
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
Which of the following best describes the presently available vaccine for hepatitis B?
A. Synthetic peptide vaccine
B. Killed virus vaccine
C. Inactivated virus vaccine
D. Live virus vaccine
E. Recombinant viral vaccine
Chicken pox is a common disease of childhood. It is caused by which of the following viruses?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Papillomavirus
Excluding influenza, which one of the following viruses is a common cause of acute respiratory disease?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Papillomavirus
A vaccine is available for one of the most common causes of infantile gastroenteritis. However, it has recently been recalled. The virus is
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Papillomavirus
A child has mononucleosis-like symptoms yet the test for mononucleosis and the EBV titers are negative. One of the causes of heterophile- negative mononucleosis is
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirus
Malaise and fatigue with increased “atypical” lymphocytes and a reactive heterophil antibody test is most commonly caused by
A. Toxoplasma
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Parvovirus
E. Rubella virus
Lethargy, malaise, and fatigue are observed in a patient 2 weeks after eating raw hamburger at a restaurant. The most likely infectious cause is
A. Toxoplasma
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. E. coli
D. Salmonella
E. Clostridium
This virus may be detected by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in a variety of cells of patients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Parvovirus
E. Epstein-Barr virus
What the most appropriate specimen is for the detection of Human papillomavirus
A. Cervical tissue
B. Synovial fluid
C. Blood
D. Skin
What the most appropriate specimen is for the detection of Cytomegalovirus
A. Cervical tissue
B. Synovial fluid
C. Blood
D. Skin
E. Cerebrospinal fluid
What the most appropriate specimen is for the detection of Enterovirus
A. Cervical tissue
B. Synovial fluid
C. Blood
D. Skin
E. Cerebrospinal fluid
What the most appropriate specimen is for the detection of Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
A. Cervical tissue
B. Synovial fluid
C. Blood
D. Skin
E. Cerebrospinal fluid
What the most appropriate specimen is for the detection of Adenovirus 40/41
A. Cervical tissue
B. Synovial fluid
C. Blood
D. Stool
E. Cerebrospinal fluid
Which of the following is transmitted by the fecal-oral route; can be acquired from shellfish; and often causes acute jaundice, diarrhea, and liver function abnormalities?
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus 40/41
C. Norwalk virus
D. Astrovirus
E. Hepatitis A virus
Which of the following is the most common cause of pediatric gastroenteritis? It is difficult to grow in cell culture but can be detected easily by immunologic methods (ELISA).
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus 40/41
C. Norwalk virus
D. Astrovirus
E. Hepatitis A virus
Which of the following is a common cause of epidemic gastroenteritis, particularly aboard cruise ships and in summer camps? It may be detected by ELISA methods or electron microscopy.
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus 40/41
C. Norwalk virus
D. Astrovirus
E. Hepatitis A virus
Which of the following is a cause of mild gastroenteritis? It can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route but not by food consumption.
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus 40/41
C. Norwalk virus
D. Astrovirus
E. Hepatitis A virus
IgM antibody to the viral particle is the method of choice for laboratory diagnosis of which one of the following hepatitis viruses?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E
This virus belongs to the family of flaviviruses and its reservoir is strictly human. Transmission is blood-borne so the blood supply is routinely screened for this virus.
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E
Vaccination for this hepatic disease is with viral surface antigen and usually provides immunity.
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis
This hepatitis virus is a calicivirus. The reservoir is in pigs, and humans acquire it via the fecal-oral route
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis
This hepatitis virus is a defective virus in that it cannot replicate independently without the presence of hepatitis B virus.
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E
This virus is the leading cause of bronchiolitis and community- acquired pneumonia in infants
A. Measles virus
B. Influenza virus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Parainfluenza virus
E. Adenovirus
This is a double-stranded DNA virus. It is responsible for 15% of pediatric respiratory infections and 10 to 15% of acute diarrhea in children.
A. Measles virus
B. Influenza virus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Parainfluenza virus
E. Adenovirus
There are millions of cases of leprosy (Hansen’s disease) worldwide, but predominately in Asia and Africa. The clinical spectrum of Hansen’s disease is best characterized by
A. Immunologic energy
B. Chronic pneumonitis
C. Peripheral neuritis
D. Bacilli in lesions that digest tissues
E. Erythematous lesions resembling concentric circles
A 21-year-old college student complained of malaise, low-grade fever, and a harsh cough, but not of muscle aches and pains. An x-ray revealed a diffuse interstitial pneumonia in the left lobes of the lung. The WBC count was normal. The student has been ill for a week.Based on the information given, the most likely diagnosis is
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Pneumococcal pneumonia
C. Staphylococcal pneumonia
D. Influenza
E. Legionellosis
Based on the information given, which of the following laboratory tests would most rapidly assist you in making the diagnosis?
A. Cold agglutinins
B. Viral culture
C. Complement fixation (CF) test
D. Gram stain of sputum
E. Culture of sputum
Pathogenic mechanisms involved in tuberculosis can be primarily attributed to which of the following?
A. Toxin production by the mycobacteria
B. Specific cell adhesion sites
C. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
D. Humoral immunity
E. Clogging of alveoli by large numbers of acid-fast mycobacteria
Cholera is a toxicogenic dysenteric disease common in many parts of the world. In the treatment of patients who have cholera, the use of a drug that inhibits adenylcyclase would be expected to
A. Kill the patient immediately
B. Eradicate the organism
C. Increase fluid secretion
D. Reduce intestinal motility
E. Block the action of cholera toxin
Symptoms of C. Botulinum food poisoning include double vision, inability to speak, and respiratory paralysis. These symptoms are consistent with
A. Invasion of the gut epithelium by C. botulinum
B. Secretion of an enterotoxin
C. Endotoxin shock
D. Ingestion of a neurotoxin
E. Activation of cyclic AMP
In people who have sickle cell anemia, osteomyelitis usually is associated with which of the following organisms?
A. Micrococcus
B. Escherichia
C. Pseudomonas
D. Salmonella
E. Streptococcus
The treatment of choice for a patient with C. Jejuni enterocolitis is
A. Erythromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ampicillin
D. Pepto-Bismol
E. Campylobacter antitoxin
A 28-year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and symptoms: fever, 104°F (40°C); WBC, 16,000/μL; blood pressure, 90/65 mmHg; a scarlatiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and soles; extreme fatigue; vomiting; and diarrhea.The patient described in the case above most likely has
A. Scalded skin syndrome
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Guillain-Barré syndrome
D. Chickenpox
E. Staphylococcal food poisoning
Culture of the menstrual fluid in the case cited would most likely reveal a predominance of
A. S. aureus
B. S. epidermidis
C. C. perfringens
D. C. difficile
E. Gardnerella vaginalis
The incidence of H. Influenzae meningitis in the general population is less than 1%. If during an epidemic the incidence rose to 3%, the negative predictive value of the LA test would
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Be impossible to calculate
E. Vary as a function of the specificity of the LA test
A 2-year-old infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrome and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Aeromonas
D. E. coli 0157/H7
E. Enterobacter
E. Coli causes disease by a variety of different methods. Which one of the following E. Coli types is characterized by the presence of LT (heat-labile) and ST (heat-stable) proteins?
A. Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC)
D. Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
E. Enterohemolytic (EHEEC)
Human plague can be bubonic or pneumonic. The primary epidemiologic difference between the two clinical forms of plague is
A. Season of the year
B. Route of infection
C. Age of the patient
D. Health of the animal vector
E. Geographic location of the animal vector
A 2-year-old child was admitted to the hospital with acute meningitis. The Gram stain revealed Gram-positive short rods, and the mother indicated that the child had received “all” of the meningitis vaccinations. What is the most likely cause of the disease?
A. N. meningitidis, group A
B. N. meningitidis, group C
C. Listeria
D. S. pneumoniae
E. H. influenzae
The most common portal of entry for C. tetani, the cause of tetanus, is the
A. Skin
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Respiratory tract
D. Genital tract
E. Nasal tract
The most common way in which tuberculosis is acquired is via the
A. Skin
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Respiratory tract
D. Genital tract
E. Nasal tract
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