E175 SYSTEM QUIZ 1
E175 System Quiz
Test your knowledge on the E175 aircraft systems with this comprehensive quiz! Designed for aviation enthusiasts and professionals alike, our quiz will challenge your understanding of the electrical, hydraulic, and fire protection systems of the E175.
In this quiz, you will:
- Explore 60 detailed questions
- Assess your knowledge of essential aircraft systems
- Enhance your preparation for certification tests
What happen if a generating (IDG) source fails?
You must manually connect the bus ties.
Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation
System logic will isolate the affected system.
You must turn off the TRU of the affected system.
What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
High oil temperature
High oil pressure
Low oil pressure
High oil temperature and Low oil pressure
What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Units?
To convert 115 VAC to 24 VDC
To convert 28 VDC to 115 VAC
To convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC
To convert US Dollars to Brazilian Reals
How long will the aircraft’s batteries last with no recharging?
5 Minutes
10 Minutes
12 Minutes
30 Minutes
With both IDG’s and the APU generator off-line, and the AC Bus Tie set to “Auto” the RAT will power the AC Standby Bus via the AC Essential Bus.
True
False
What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?
For APU start when batteries < 22.5 VDC
If Batt temp is < -20 C
If OAT is < -20 C
For APU start when batteries < 22.5 VDC and If Batt temp is < -20 C
During an electrical emergency, the Batteries Supply essential loads for:
30 Minutes
45 Minutes
10 Minutes
5 Minutes
What is the purpose of the collector box?
Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine
Transfers fuel between tanks
Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling
Maintains fuel level in the collector box
If there is a 500-pound (low) fuel imbalance in the left wing which of the following is the correct procedure to accomplish?
Turn the X-feed switch in the LOW 2 position.
Turn the X-feed switch in the LOW 1 position.
Reduce power on the left engine
Increase power on the right engine
APU normally gets its fuel from:
Left wing tank via the left collector box
Right wing tank via the right collector box
Left surge tank
Right surge tank
What is the power source for engine fire protection?
DC ESS BUS
HOT BATT BUS
AC ESS BUS
Respective DC BUS
What Indications are presented for a valid fire detection test?
Master Warning Flashers illuminate, Fire Bell, Triple chime.
Associated EICAS Messages, Fire Handles Illuminated, APU and Cargo guarded switch lights illuminated, FIRE inverse video message in ITT gauge.
EICAS message Fire test OK presented.
Master Warning Flashers illuminate, Fire Bell, Triple chime & Associated EICAS Messages, Fire Handles Illuminated, APU and Cargo guarded switch lights illuminated, FIRE inverse video message in ITT gauge.
How many smoke detectors are in the cargo compartments?
1 in each compartment
3 in the forward cargo and 2 in the aft cargo bay
2 in the forward cargo and 3 in the aft cargo bay.
None of the above
How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?
1 high-rate and 1 low-rate bottle used for each compartment
1 high-rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle used for both compartments
1 high-rate for the FWD compartment and 1 low rate bottle for the AFT compartment
1 low-rate bottle for the FWD compartment and 1 high-rate bottle for the AFT compartment.
To discharge the fire bottle into the engine, pulling the Fire Extinguishing Handle is all that is required.
True
False
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
Only on the ground
Only in the air
In the air or on the ground
In the air or on the ground
The APU fire extinguisher will automatically discharge one minute after a fire is detected?
True
False
What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Recirculation fan shuts off
Ventilation outflow valve closes
The FWD cargo smoke fire extinguishing button illuminates
All of the above
What system use hydraulic power? ( SNLWTF )
Flight controls, Spoilers, Landing gear
Slats, Flaps, Stab Trim
Nose wheel steering, Wheel brakes, Thrust reversers
Flight controls, Spoilers, Landing gear,Nose wheel steering, Wheel brakes, Thrust reversers
What is the PTU?
Mechanical pump that HYD 2 power to provide HYD 1 pressure
Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure
Mechanical pump that provides pressure to HYD 3 system
Electric pump that transfers fluid from HYD 1 system to HYD 2 system
During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the “AUTO” position with the flaps out of zero, the PTU:
Provides added fluid to system 2 in case of a leak
Provides system logic for the PTU to activate the PTU if engine 2 fails or engine 2 EDP fails and gear lever is selected UP OR DOWN
Provides system logic for the PTU to activate the PTU if engine 1 fails or engine 1 EDP fails.
Why does electrical hydraulic pump 2 automatically come on after number one engine is started and the parking brake is released?
To provide nose wheel steering and inboard breaks during single engine taxi.
To allow hydraulic fluid in system 2 to get warmed up before engine 2 started.
To provide positive feel for the flight controls during the flight controls check with a single engine.
All of the above.
Hydraulic system 3 has an Unloader Valve and a Flow Limiter Valve. When are they used?
They are used on the ground before engine start to keep from draining the batteries.
They are used in flight to keep the flight controls from experiencing hydraulic surges.
They are used only in an electrical emergency to avoid overwhelming the RAT.
They are used to release excessive pressure in the hydraulic system after engine shutdown
Hydraulic system 1 and 2 engine pump shutoff valve buttons do what when pressed?
Shots off the engine driven pump.
Closes the hydraulic shut off valve, isolating the respective engine driven pump from the associated hydraulic system reservoir.
None of the above
All of the above
In flight with the hydraulic selector knob's in “AUTO”, when will the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?
During wind shear to provide maximum flight control effectiveness.
If the EDP or Engine fails or flaps selected to any position greater than zero degrees.
During icing condition to keep the fluid warm.
During icing condition to keep the fluid warm.
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
No, you must be descend to 10,000 or and MSA, whichever is higher
No, if one fails the outflow valve will close and the cabin will rise at 2000 FPM
Yes, up to FL240
Yes, up to FL310
The pressurization system consist of:
An outflow valve, ram air ejection valve, and a cabin pressure controller.
A static pressure port, an outflow valve, secondary outflow valve, and a cabin pressure controller.
A negative outflow valve, pressure relief valve, cabin pressure controller.
A cabin outflow valve, a static pressure port, a negative pressure relief valve, a positive pressure relief valve, and a cabin pressure controller.
What happens when the dump button is pressed?
Commands both ECS packs 0FF
Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 feet at a rate of 2000 fpm
Closes the outflow valve to capture present pressure
Commands both ECS packs 0FF and Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 feet at a rate of 2000 fpm
The emergency ram air valve opens when?
When #1 is off and the ram air pressure is greater than cabin pressure.
In flight at more then 25,000 feet and one pack is off.
When number #2 pack is off and the ram air pressure is greater than cabin pressure.
In flight less than 25,000 feet and both packs are off and failed.
What services are anti-iced?
Wing, slats 2, 3, and 4
Horizontal tail
Engine cowl lip
Wing, slats 2, 3, and 4 and Engine cowl lip
ICING” on the MCDU is set to “OFF” and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?
Not until 1200 ft or 7 minutes after takeoff (Whichever happens first)
Not until 1700 ft or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
The deicing system will turn on at 40 kts wheel seed
The deicing system is always on
How long will the de-icing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?
2 minutes
5 minutes
7 minutes
9 minutes
Both ice detectors must be operable for detecting ice condition and activating engine and wing anti-ice.
True
False
If an engine fails does the opposite wing receive ice protection?
Yes. The cross bleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings
Yes. The wing receives bleed air from the wind milling engine
Yes. The Wing receives believe air from the APU
No. The opposite wing is not deiced
When do the smart probes heat?
When ALL is selected on the MCDU
When ENG is selected on the MCDU
When the ice detectors detect ice
When an engine is running
What is ATTCS?
Automatic take-off Thrust Control System, Provides maximum thrust reserve in the event of engine failure.
Automatic take-off Thrust Control system, selects optimum thrust for a current weight.
Automatic take-off Thrust Control system, selects optimum thrust for current OAT.
Automatic take-off Thrust Control system, selects optimum thrust for current runway.
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Only in the air for a hot start, hung start, or no light-off
Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start, or no light-off
Only on the ground for a hot start
Only in the Air for a hot start
What is the priority for the trim system?
Captain, First Officer, Autopilot, Back-up
Autopilot, Captain, First Officer, Back up
Back-up, Autopilot, Captain, First Officer
Back-up, Captain, First Officer, Autopilot
What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?
Horizontal stab dream operates at LO RATE
Slat/flap System operates at LO RATE
Slat/flap position is limited to “3” to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
All of the above
The primary flight control electronics are composed of what two complimentary parts?
Actuator Control Electronic (ACE) and Rotary Variable Displacement Transducers (RVDT)
Flight Control Modules (DFM And Power Drive Units (PDU))
Primary Actuator Control Electronics (P-ACE) and flight control modules (FCM)
The flight controls system provides what two modes of operation?
On and Stand By
Normal and Direct
On and Direct
What would cause an FCM to go to the Direct Mode?
Loss of airspeed data
Loss of control surface position feedback
Weight on wheels sensing ground
The autopilot automatically disengages when?
Manual pitch trim switches are activated
Control column shakers are activated
Either aileron or elevator control system disconnect
All of the above
How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up?
DUs 1&2, IESS, clock,MCDU 2, CCD1
DUs 2&3, IESS, clock,MCDU 2, CCD1
DUs 2&3, IESS, clock,MCDU 1, CCD2
DUs 1&2, IESS, clock,MCDU 2, CCD1
The company policy minimum engagement altitude for the autopilot after takeoff?
200 feet AGL
400 feet AGL
600 feet AGL
1000 feet AGL
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