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Pharma

Atropine overdose can be complicated all of the following manifestations EXCEPT:

Dryness of mouth

Retention of urine

Tachycardia

Miosis

Blurred vision (cycloplegia)

Which of the following pairs of drug and its property is TRUE?

Neostigmine ---------is neuromuscular blocking agent.

Atropine-----------is selective muscarinic (m2) receptor blocker.

Scoplamine------- is used in the management of motion sickness.

Bethanechol---------is rapidly hydrolyzed by cholinesterase enzyme.

Echothiophate-------is a cycloplegic agent.

Which of the following drugs can produce broncodilation tachycardia and hypotention?

Adrenaline (epinephrine).

Noradrenaline (norepinephrine).

Isoproterenol.

Dobutamine.

Dopamine.

Beta adrenergic blocking drugs are used in the management of all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

Hypertension.

Hypothyroidism.

Angina pectoris.

Essential tremor.

Cardiac arrhythmia

The drug of the first choice in the management of anaphytactic shock is:

Epinephrine.

Dopamine.

Hydrocortisone.

Phenylephrine.

Dobutamine.

Long action Drug to treat glaucoma:

Ecothiophate

carbecan

Pilocarpine

Which of the following is mismatched

Epinephrine--->anaphylactic shock

Phenylephrine-----> nasal stuffness

Metoprolol----> vasospastic angina

Case qus for a Patient who was affected by organophosphate, which of the following is not a result:

Weakness in muscles

Incontinence

Bronchodilation

Bronchoconstricion

Which of these drugs can be used to treat glaucoma:

neostigmine

timolol

echothiophat

Pilocarpine

All are correct

Irreversible inhibition of the bone marrow is an adverse effect to:

Benzathine penicillin

Clarithromycin

Trimethoprim

Gentamycin

Chloramphenicol

All of the following actions could be a cause of treatment failure with antimicrobial agents except:

The patient is male

The dose used is lower than required

The patient is on another drug or steroid therapy

The duration of therapy is short and insufficient

Drug resistance

Which of the following antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of hepatic disease:

Erythromycin

Neomycin

Doxycycline

Chloramphenicol

Azithromycin

A patient presented with cough and greenish sputum, fever and difficulty in breathing for the last three days, the diagnosis was established by the culture as having mycoplasma, the best therapy for that is:

Ciprofloxacin

Amoxicillin

Co-trimoxazole

Clarithromycin

Gentamycin

Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting bacterial:

Protein synthesis

Nucleic acid synthesis

Cell membrane function

Cell wall synthesis

More than one mentioned mechanism

Clindamycin:

Has excellent penetration to the bone

Can rarely cause gastrointestinal problems

Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

Contraindicated in patients allergic to penicillin

Is the most common drug used to treat pseudomembranous colitis

A lady on antibiotics, suddenly developed severe diarrhea due to clostridium difficile, which of the following antibiotics is effective in the treatment of the condition

Clindamycin

Ampicillin

Metronidazole

Doxycycline

Penicillin V

A young man presented to you complaining of dysuria with frequency of micturition for the last 3 days urine culture show pseudomonas aeruginosa, the best drug to be given to treat this patient is:

Ciprofloxacin

Vancomycin

Benzathine penicillin

Clarithromycin

Co-trimazole

All of the following are adverse effects of cephalosporin EXCEPT:

False positive glucose test in urine

Bleeding

Thrombocytopenia

Irreversible bone marrow suppression

Combination of two or more antibiotics may lead to:

Potentiation of the effects of drugs used in combination

Delay the development of drug resistance

All mentioned statements are correct

Broader suppression of normal flora

Increase the possibilities of side effects

Azithromycin:

Is highly active against respiratory infections due to H.influenzae

Inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria

Is characterized by all mentioned statements

Is given orally and once per day

Is less active against streptococcal infections than erythromycin

Which of the following penicillin drugs is resistant to gastric acid:

Penicillin G

Ureidopenicillins

Benzathine penicillin

Phenoxymethyl penicillin

None of the listed drugs

Which of the following statements regarding penicillin G is correct:

It is active against aerobic infections

It is used in the treatment of infection in men only

It is contraindicated in the treatment of girls with tonsillitis

It is contraindicated in boys aged 10 years and younger

It should be combined with other drugs for treatment of meningitis

Cephalosporin antibiotics are divided into generations according to:

Time of discovery

Cost of the drug

Administration methods

Manufacturer preferences

Sensitivity of microorganisms

Which of the following drugs considered bactericidal in its action

Rifampicin

Penicillin G

All mentioned drugs

Cefuroxime (cephalosporin)

Co-trimoxazole

Which of the following statements regarding ampicillin is correct:

It’s not destroyed by the beta lactamase enzyme

Its a narrow spectrum penicillin

It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

Its highly effective against salmonella and shigella infections

Its better absorbed than amoxicillin

Ototoxicity is recognized adverse effect of all of the following drugs except:

Streptomycin

Gentamycin

None of the drug mentioned

Aztreonam

Tobramycin

Metronidazole is active against all of the following except:

Gram positive and gram negative anaerobic bacilli

Entamoeba histolytica

Dlostridium difficile

Giardia lamblia

Streptococcal infections

A patient is allergic to penicillin, with high risk of anaphylactic shock, can be given instead:

Benzathine penicillin

Amoxicillin

Cephalosporin drugs

Clarithromycin

Peniciilin V

The following adverse effects may occur with the use of erythromycin except:

Jaundice

Acute cholestatic hepatitis

Cardiac arrhythmia if given with pro-arrhythmic drugs

Abdominal pain

Nephrotoxicity

Chloramphenicol:

Can be bactericidal or bacteriostatic in its action

May cause irreversible aplastic anemia

is effective against most anaerobic infections

Is administered intravenously

All statements mentioned are correct

All the following can cause wrong diagnosis except:

The patient is male

Lower dose than required

Compliance

Headache, dizziness and vertigo might be an adverse effect of which of the following:

cholarmphenicol

ciprofloxacin

gentamycin

Chemoprophylaxix is related to all those diseases except

HIV (AIDs patients)

A boy who has irritation on his left forearm because of staphylococcus aureus. Which penicillin is the best to be given?

Flucloxacillin

A disease showed enlargment of bowel, ulcerative colitis, could be treated by:

co-trimoxazol

sulphasalazine

sulfaamide

Atropine overdose can be complicated all of the following manifestations

EXCEPT:

Dryness of mouth

Retention of urine

Tachycardia

Miosis

Blurred vision (cycloplegia)

Which of the following pairs of drug and its property is TRUE?

Neostigmine ---------is neuromuscular blocking agent.

Atropine-----------is selective muscarinic (m2) receptor blocker.

Scoplamine------- is used in the management of motion sickness.

Bethanechol---------is rapidly hydrolyzed by cholinesterase enzyme.

Echothiophate-------is a cycloplegic agent.

Which of the following drugs can produce broncodilation tachycardia and

Hypotention?

Adrenaline (epinephrine).

Noradrenaline (norepinephrine).

Isoproterenol.

Dobutamine.

Dopamine.

Beta adrenergic blocking drugs are used in the management of all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

Hypertension.

Hypothyroidism.

Angina pectoris.

Essential tremor.

Cardiac arrhythmia.

The drug of the first choice in the management of anaphytactic shock is:

Epinephrine.

Dopamine.

Hydrocortisone.

Phenylephrine.

Dobutamine.

The intensity (magnitude) and direction of drug action correlate in a predictable by way the:

Lipid/water partition coefficient (LWPC) of the drug.

Potency of the drug.

Molecular weight of the drug.

Administered dose of the drug.

Efficacy of the drug.

If a 5mg dose of drug X produce the same magnitude of effects as drug Y at a dose of 20mg. Via a similar mechanism of action. It can be concluded that:

Drug Y is associated with a wider therapeutic index compared to drug X.

Drug X is more efficacious than drug Y.

Risk of toxicity induced by drug Y is higher than that of drug X.

Drug X is less potent than drug Y.

None of the listed conclusions is correct.

First pass hepatic effect refers to:

Liver metabolism of drugs delivered via the portal vein.

Activation of drugs by hepatic enzymes.

Storage of drugs in the liver.

Biliary excretion of drugs.

Liver metabolism of drugs delivered via the hepatic artery.

First-order elimination process:

Is characterized by drug dose-dependent half-life of elimination (T1/2e).

Applies to a limited number of drugs in clinical practice.

Is not applicable to the rate of drug metabolism (biotransformation).

Proceeds at rates dependent on drug concentration.

Is characterized by all listed features.

Biotransformation (metabolism) of drugs usually results in products that are likely to:

Have wide tissue distribution.

Produce severe side effects.

Be inactive pharmacologically.

Interact with target receptors similar to the parent drug.

Be more effective than parent drug.

When drugs are administered orally:

Active transport is the main mechanism of drug absorption.

Tthe stomach is the major site of absorption.

Gastric emptying does not effects the rate of drug absorption.

The pharmacological response tend to be rapid.

Incomplete absorption is likely consequence.

Drug interaction with target receptor:

Depends on chemical structures of both the drug and the receptor.

Can lead sometimes to G protein activation.

Is likely to be followed by a specific cellular response.

Can be inhibited by selected antagonists.

Is characterized by all of the listed facts.

Drug administered rectally are:

Not subjected to first pass hepatic effect.

Characterized by predictable pattern of absorption.

In general no favored by the patients.

Likely to be complicated with severe vomiting.

Characterized by all of the listed facts.

Which of the following statements is true about drug binding to plasma proteins:

Binding is an irreversible process.

Bound drug is pharmacologically inactive.

Drug-protein complex is effectively excreted in urine.

Drugs are mainly bound to plasma globulin.

None of the listed statements.

Which of the following is the most frequent mechanism of drug transport across biological membranes?

Passive diffusion.

Active transport.

Filtration.

Carrier-mediated process.

All of the listed mechanism have comparable frequency.

Which of the following process is considered a pharmacokinetic process in pharmacology?

Drug transport across biological membranes.

Drug-receptor interaction.

Dose-response relationships.

Mechanism of drug action.

Toxicological response of drugs.

The elimination half-life (T1/2e) of the drug:

Is likely to reflect the duration of drug action.

Is correlated with the elimination rate constant (Ke) of drug.

Is useful for the estimation of dose interval (T).

Cannot be estimated for drugs eliminated via zero-order kinetics.

Is associated by all of the listed facts.

For drug with half-life elimination (T1/2e) of 250 minutes administered by I.V. Infusion the therapeutic plasma steady state concentration (Css) “95% of the theoretical value” is expected to be achieved at:

67 minutes.

20 hours.

12 hours.

2days.

One week.

If administration of ammonium chloride as a weak acid increases the urinary clearance of drug X. It is reasonable that this drug(X) is:

Weak acid.

Weak base.

Strong acid.

Strong base.

Neutral compound.

If 88% of a drug dose is eliminated, via first-order kinetics, in 120 hours then the half-life of elimination (T1/2e) is expected to be:

15 hours.

40 hours.

60 hours.

120 hours.

Greater than 120 hours.

A pharmacological response might be delayed, reduced, or blocked by all of the following, EXCEPT:

Drug that goes rapid distribution.

A drug that does not get its site of action.

Abnormal target receptor.

Lack of absorption at site of administration.

The drug that is not soluble in water.

Aspirin is a weak organic acid with a pKa of 3.5 what % of a given dose of aspirin will be unionized at stomach pH of 2.5?

10%

50%

90%

99%

Drugs that are highly bound (greater than 90%) to plasma protein are likely to:

Be associated with large volume of distribution (Vd).

Have very short half-life off elimination (T1/2e).

Be associated with wide therapeutic index (TI).

Have short duration of action.

Be characterized by low renal clearance values.

Drugs associated with high efficacy are characterized by:

Small therapeutic dose.

High therapeutic dose.

Low therapeutic indices.

High bioavailability.

None of the listed characteristics.

Intravenous route of drug administration is associated with:

Absence of an absorption process.

High risk of systemic toxicity.

Rapid response.

Potential risks of topical and systemic infections.

All of the listed features.

Which of the following is the expected loading dose (Dl) of a drug having volume of distribution (Vd) value of 150 liter, if desired plasma concentration is

5 microgram/ml?

225 mg

450 mg

750 mg

1.5 mg

5.0 mg

The therapeutic index (TI) of a drug reflects its:

Efficacy.

Duration of action.

Relative safety.

Onset of effect.

Potency.

Pharmacodynamics deals with all of the following processes EXCEPT:

Mechanism of drug action.

Drug interaction with its specific receptor.

Dose-response relationships.

Mmechanism of drug excretion.

Toxicological responses of drugs.

Estimation of the maintenance (Dm) of drug depends on all of the following

EXCEPT:

The dose interval (T).

The desired plasma steady state concentration (Css).

The absorption rate constant (Ka).

The drug Bioavailability (F).

Systemic clearance (CL).

All of the following are excitatory CNS neurotransmitters, EXCEPT:

Acetylcholine.

Norepinephrine.

Dopamine.

GABA.

Glutamate

All of the following are therapeutic uses of the benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:

Anxiety disorders.

Skeletal muscle spasm.

Sleep disorders “insomnia”.

Preanesthetic medication.

Ethanol and barbiturate overdose.

All the following are regarded as mechanisms of action of CNS drugs,

EXCEPT:

Blockade of neurotransmitter synthesis.

Interference of with storage of neurotransmitters.

Stimulation of metabolism of neurotransmitters.

Stimulation of release of neurotransmitters.

Interaction with specific postsynaptic receptors.

Hypertensive reactions (cheese reaction) in responsible to food of high

Tramine contact is a common complication of treatment with:

Phenelizine.

Imipramine.

Proxetine.

Clozapine.

Aripiprazole.

The biological abnormality in the Pathophysiology of depression:

Dopamine and serotonin excess.

Norepinephrine and serotonin efficiency.

Dopamine deficiency.

Acetylcholine excess.

None of the listed.

Chloropromazine as an antipsychotic drug is characterized by its:

Dopamine-receptors blocking activity in the brain.

5-HT-receptors blocking activity in the brain.

Blockade of cholinergic transmission.

+adrenergic and histamine-1receptors blocking effects.

All of the listed statements are correct.

Imipramine as a tricyclic anti-depressant can produce the following adverse drug reactions EXCEPT:

Nocturnal enuresis.

Dry mouth.

Tachycardia.

Sedation.

Sexual dysfunction.

Long action Drug to treat glaucoma:

Ecothiophate

carbecan

Pilocarpine

Which of the following is not a target for drugs affecting neurons:

Synthesis of a new neurotransmitters

Decrease neurotransmitters release

Decrease neurotransmitters re-uptake

Increase neurotransmitters release

Which of the following is true regarding cetuximab:

It is a monoclonal antibody that binds EGFR

It inhibits tumor growth through binding to EGF

It is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor of EGF

It is a monoclonal antibody that binds EGF

Which of the following is the most common side effect of erythromycin

Hepatotoxicity

GIT disturbance

Skin rash

Teeth discoloration

Which of the following is not an effect of angiotensin II

Decreases sympathetic activity

Causes general vasoconstriction

Enhances ADH release

Enhances aldosterone release

Kd is related to:

Efficacy

Potency

Absorption

Half life

All of the above

Which of the following routes of administration undergoes 3rst pass metabolism:

Rectal

Intramuscular

Subcutaneous

Penicillin can cause all of the following except:

Hypersensitivity

Nephritis

Hepatotoxicity

Angioedema

Salt overload

Cephalosporines:

Can be given to a pregnant woman

Active against G- bacteria

Can be given IV only

Inhibit the protein synthesis

Which of the following is wrong about cyanide intoxication

Activated charcoal very effective in this situation

Sodium nitrite may be used

Which of the following is true about isopropyl alcohol intoxication

No antidote is required

Fomepeizole inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

Which of the following describes cytotoxic anticancer drugs the best

They act through inhibiting DNA synthesis

Have less side effects in comparison to molecular targeted therapy

Affects highly proliferating cancer cells and not normal cells

All of the following are related to pharmacodynamics except:

Protein binding

Efficacy

Potency

Tolerance

Which of the following is wrong

Hemodialysis can be used for all kinds of intoxications

Urinary Alkalinization using phenolbarbital is useful to enhance the elimination

Which of the following is false:

Acyclovir is used to treat all kinds of herpetic infections.

Acyclovir can only be given orally

Which of the following drugs targets erythrocytic stage:

Artemicin

Chloroquine

MeAoquine

Quinine

All of the choices are correct

Which anti-helminth drug is used to treat Cestodes?

Albendazole

Mebendazole

Ivermectin

Fluoroquinolones inhibit which of the following enzymes:

DNA gyrase

Adenylate synthase

DNA polymerase

Which of the following is true about 5-FU

It is usually administered with leucovorin

M phase speci3c

Exerts its activity through guanine neucleotides

Active in cells active in producing aldehyde dehydrogenase

Which of the following matches is wrong,

Bimatoprost - used for narrow angle glaucoma.

Misoprostol - GI protection..

Alprostadil - Treatment congenital heart disease..

Lubiprostane - constapition

Epoprosteno l- treatment pulmonary hypertension

Which of the following combinations is true.

Atropine is a nonselective antimuscarinic agent

Bethanechol stimulates adrenaline release.

Physostigmine is a reversible receptor inhibitor

Which of the following is wrong regarding NSAIDs

They inhibit prostaglandine synthesis.

Inhibitleukotriene synthesis.

Decrease free radicals.

Interfere with Ca mediated intracellular events

Which of the following is true regarding chemotherapeutic agent.

It is more effective to combine a microbistatic with a microbicidal drug.

Drug mechanism of action and dosage determine its microbicidal potential

We give antiviral drug when we have:

More than 10 patient

Asplenic state

None of the above

Which mechanism of action we use for prophylactic from

InAuenza A not for treatment :

Inhibition of uncoating of the virus

Inhibit the M channel

Inhibiting the activity of neuraminidase

Competes with deoxyguanosine triphosphate (dGTP)

All of the following actions of anti-helminthics except?

Block microtubules assembly

Neuromuscular junction blockage

Hyperpolarization

Decrease Ca entry

Methods for testing new drug combination:

Diagnostic trials

Screening trials

Quality of life

Genetic studies

All of the above

Which of the following isn’t the justi3cation of medical research?

It contributes to community health

It contributes to the medical progress

Discovering new ways of bene3ting the human health

Elevation of suffering

Increase the 3nance of the drug companies

Which is true about phase 2 in clinical trials:

80 people are monitored

Evaluate the bene3t risk ratio relationship and you have to compare it with other drugs or other combinations of drugs

Determine the mechanism of action, metabolism, side effects and the effectiveness

Monitor the effectiveness of the drug, is it effective or not, at the same time evaluate the safety

Which one of the following anti-fungal drugs can cause an increase in androgenic and estrogenic disturbances?

Amphotericin b

Ketoconazole

Nystatin

Terbina3ne

Which one of the following anti-fungal drugs can use for oral candidiasis

Amphotericin b

Ketoconazole

Nystatin

Terbinafine

Ocular procedure should be monitored with the use of:

Chloroquine

MeAoquine

Quinine

Plaquenil

Drug that can’t be taken with milk?

Tetracycline

Macrolides

Cephalosporins

Amoxicillin

Which drug of the following can cause nausea, tinnitus, vertigo and photosensitivity?

Chloroquine

MeAoquine

Quinine

Primaquine

Which one of the following drugs is ABSOLUTE cos-2 selective?

Aspirin

Celecoxib

None of the above

The life saving measure in treatment of acetaminophen toxicity is:

Alkalinzation of urine

N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine

N-acetylcysteine administration

All of the following NSAID drugs have an effect on peripheral tissues except:

Celecoxib

Aspirin

Acetaminophen

Acetaminophen:

Has weak anti-inAammatory activity.

Does not affect platelet function or increase bleeding time

Inhibits prostaglandins synthesis in the CNS

All of the above

Which of those deals with pharmacokinetics:-

Signal trAnswerduction

Moving across biological membrane

What is the ED (50)?

Give 50 % of the response

Median therapeutic dose

Median theraputic index

Estimation of the maintenance Dose depend on all of the following except:

Rate of absorbtion

Css

Systemic clearance

Drugs associated with high efficiency are characterized by:

High bioavailability

Small therapeutic dose

Low therapeutic index

High therputic dose

None of the above

Administration of ammonium chloride, as a weak acid increases urinary clearnence of a drug. It is reasonable to assume that this drug is :

Strong acid

Strong base

Neutral compound

Weak acid

Weak Base

What is the mecanisim that is responsible for absorbtion in the GIT?

Active trAnswerport

Passive diffusion

The oral rout of drug adminstraion tend to be associated with all of the following except:

Poor compliance

Relative safety

Rapid response

Convenience

Incomplete absorption

Which of the following is the loading dose of a IV drug having a volume of distribution of 150L, if the desired plasma concentration is 15mg/L?

75mg

150mg

2.25 mg

5 g

Other than this

The therapeutic index of a drug reflect its:

Safety

Duration of action

Efficacy

Onset of action

Potency

1st hepatic metabolism may occur when drug is given:

Intramuscular

Sublingual

Rectal

Subcuteanous

None of the above

The variation in pharmacological responses to drugs among individuals can be attributed to: +drug – drug interaction

Sex

Diet

Age

All of the above

Aspirin is a weak organic acid with pKa of 3.5, what percentage of a given dose will be unionized at stomach pH of 2.5:

10%

50%

90%

99%

Which of the following is true about drug absorption from GIT:

Passive diffusion is the principle mechanism of drug absorption

The stomach is the major site of drug absorption

Gastric emptying doesn’t affect the rate of drug absorption

Intestinal motility has no effect on the rate or extent of drug absorption

All of the above

Which of the following is correct about bound protein:

Binding is mainly done by globulins

The bound drug is pharmacologically ineffective

Drugs having low potency are characterized by

High therapeutic doses

Low therapeutic dose

Low therapeutic index

High bioavailability

All of the above

Which of the following is true about first order kinetics:

Most of drugs follow it

Effected by concentration of the drug

All of the above

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