2DD MCQ Oral Biology

A vibrant illustration depicting various aspects of oral biology, including cells, salivary glands, and a detailed cellular diagram, in an educational style.

Explore Oral Biology: Test Your Knowledge

Engage with our comprehensive quiz on oral biology, covering key concepts from cellular structure to salivary gland functionality. This interactive quiz is designed to test and enhance your understanding of the intricate details of oral biology.

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340 Questions85 MinutesCreated by LearningCell123
A sequence of changes from fertilization of the ovum to maturity:
σ½ Growth of an organism
σ½ Fertilization
σ¾ Development of an organism
σ½ Ovulation
A physiological process by which an organism become larger is:
σ¾ Growth of an organism
σ½ Fertilization
σ½ Development of an organism
σ½ Ovulation
All are fundamental studies of living organism in biology, except:
σ¾ Functions
σ½ Growth/development
σ½ Origin/Evolution
σ½ Cell metabolism
Equilibrium is required for all the living organism to:
σ½ Cell building block
σ½ Immune-recognition
σ½ Cell to cell contact
σ¾ Maintain homeostasis
______ is required for cell metabolism and biochemistry:
σ½ Cell wall
σ¾ Energy
σ½ Cell division
σ½ Ionic exchange
Genetic information of one living organism passed on from cell to cell in the form of:
σ½ Protein synthesis
σ¾ DNA
σ½ Cell metabolism
σ½ RNA
7. Genetic information passed on from cell to cell during cellular division is call:
σ½ Cell evolution
σ¾ Cell heredity
σ½ Cell equilibrium
σ½ Cell bio chemistry
Engine of biological diversity for all living organism to adapt and survive is call:
σ¾ Cell evolution
σ½ Cell heredity
σ½ Cell equilibrium
σ½ Cell bio chemistry
Bacterial is classified as:
σ½ Archaea
σ½ Eukaryotic cell
σ¾ Prokaryotic cell
σ½ Advanced organism
Multicellular organism such as human, animals, and plant are classified as:
σ½ Single-celled organism
σ¾ Eukaryotic cell
σ½ Prokaryotic cell
σ½ Archaea
______ is the largest salivary gland of the oral cavity:
σ½ Lacrimal gland
σ¾ Parotid gland
σ½ Submandibular
σ½ Adrenal gland
Majority of serous saliva is secreted from:
σ½ Submandibular gland
σ½ Sublingual gland
σ¾ Parotid gland
σ½ None of the above
Majority of mucous saliva is secreted from:
σ½ Submandibular gland
σ¾ Sublingual gland
σ½ Parotid gland
σ½ None of the above
Glands such as, pituitary, thyroid, adrenal are categorized as:
σ½ Major glands
σ½ Exocrine glands
σ½ Minor glands
σ¾ Endocrine glands
All are exocrine glands, except:
σ¾ Parathyroid gland
σ½ Sweat gland
σ½ Sebaceous gland
σ½ Lacrimal gland
All are the 3 types of fluid secretion by exocrine gland, except:
σ¾ Merocrine secretion
σ½ Holocrine secretion
σ½ Meibomian secretion
σ½ Apocrine secretion
60-70% of total saliva is secreted from:
σ½ Parotid glands
σ¾ Submandibular glands
σ½ Sublingual glands
σ½ Thyroid glands
Mucous acini are the specialized cell of:
σ½ Mucoserous secreting gland
σ¾ Mucous secreting gland
σ½ Serous secreting gland
σ½ None of the above
The statement below described about the function of cell-cell tight junction:
σ¾ Prevent the leakage of the lumen content to the intercellular spaces
σ½ Regulate the passage of materials from the lumen to the intercellular
σ½ Hold adjacent cells together or cell-cell adhesion
σ½ Cell to basement membrane attachment
Secretory cells attached to the basement membrane by:
σ½ Intercellular canaliculus
σ½ Adherent junction
σ½ Tight junction
σ¾ Hemidesmosomes
Functions of Striated Duct of the salivary gland:
σ½ Reabsorbing Na+ and Cl−
σ½ Secreting K+ into the saliva
σ½ Making hypotonic saliva
σ¾ All of the above
The statement below described about the function of myoepithelial:
σ½ Reabsorbing Na+ and Cl−
σ¾ Support and promote secretion of the salivary gland
σ½ Electrolyte exchange
σ½ Secretion of proteins
The statement below described about morphology of mucous acini:
σ¾ Elongated pyramidal cells with pale vacuolated cytoplasm, basally located nuclei
σ½ Support and promote secretion of the salivary gland
σ½ These cells produce low proteins
σ½ Cluster of pyramidal cells with a broad base on the basement membrane
The statement below described about morphology of myoepithelial:
σ½ locates between the basal plasma membrane and the acinar basement membrane
σ½ Support and promote secretion of the salivary gland
σ¾ Stellate morphology with elongated cell body and flattened cell nucleus
σ½ Subject to neural and endocrine regulation
What is Stomodeum:
σ½ Precursor of the epithelia and glands of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract
σ½ Inner layer of the gastrula
σ½ Germ layer that arises during gastrulation
σ¾ Precursor of the mouth and the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
26. Bacterial is classified as:
σ½ Archaea
σ½ Eukaryotic cell
σ¾ Prokaryotic cell
σ½ Advanced organism
The 3 major salivary glands are:
σ½ Parotid, submandibular, Low labial
σ½ Sublingual gland
σ½ Adrenal, thyroid, lacrimal
σ¾ Parotid, submandibular, sublingual
Major duct of parotid gland:
σ¾ Stenson’s duct
σ½ Wharton’s duct
σ½ Bartholin’s duct
σ½ Lacrimal’s duct
Major duct of submandibular gland:
σ½ Stenson’s duct
σ¾ Wharton’s duct
σ½ Bartholin’s duct
σ½ Lacrimal’s duct
Major duct of Sublingual gland:
σ½ Stenson’s duct
σ½ Wharton’s duct
σ¾ Bartholin’s duct
σ½ Lacrimal’s duct
Most of the hard palate and all of the soft palate from the:
σ½ Primary palate
σ¾ Secondary palate
σ½ Assessor palate
σ½ All are corrected
In humans, which branchial arch rudimentary is:
σ½ 2nd
σ½ 4th
σ¾ 5th
σ½ 6th
The name of the first branchial arch is:
σ¾ Mandibular arch
σ½ Hyoid arch
σ½ Maxillary arch
σ½ All are corrected
The name of the second branchial arch is:
σ½ Maxillary arch
σ½ Mandibular arch
σ¾ Hyoid arch
σ½ All are corrected
Median rhomboid glossitis is:
σ½ Caused by persistence of tuberculum impar
σ½ Red and rhomboidal smooth zone of the tongue
σ½ Found in midline in front of the foramen cecum
σ¾ All are corrected
6. Dental lamina is formed when:
σ½ The embryo is 3weeks old
σ½ The embryo is 4weeks old
σ½ The embryo is 5weeks old
σ½ The embryo is 6weeks old
After fertilization of ovum series of cell division give rise to an egg cell mass called:
σ½ Placenta
σ¾ Morula
σ½ Embryo
σ½ Embryonic disc
Hertwig's root sheath consists of:
σ¾ The outer and inner enamel epithelium only
σ½ The stratum intermedium
σ½ The stellate reticulum
σ½ All are corrected
9. The term for a fertilized egg from conception until the end of two months development:
σ¾ Embryo
σ½ Zygote
σ½ Fetus
σ½ Ovary
In human’s fertilization normally occurs in:
σ½ uterus vagina
σ¾ fallopian tube
σ½ zona pellucida
σ½ ovary
After ovulation the ovum can be fertilized for about:
σ½ 5-10 hours
σ½ More than 48 hours
σ½ 4-20 hours
σ½ 1-3 hours
σ½ 24-48 hours
One of the following represents the correct order of prenatal development:
σ½ Preimplantation, fetal, embryonic
σ¾ Preimplantation, embryonic, fetal
σ½ fetal, preimplantation, embryonic
σ½ fetal, embryonic, preimplantation
One of the following should a woman avoid while she is pregnant:
σ½ Smoking cigarettes
σ½ Being under 20 and over 40 years of age
σ½ Not having adequate prenatal medical supervision
σ¾ All of these
One of the following characterize prenatal development It is:
σ½ The shortest stage of the human life span
σ½ A highly critical stage in human development
σ½ The stage during which most development occurs at the most rapid rate in the human life span
σ¾ All are corrected
The following are all derived from the stomodeal ectoderm such as:
σ¾ Salivary glands, anterior pituitary gland and enamel organs
σ½ Enamel dentin and major salivary glands
σ½ Cementum, anterior pituitary gland and stratum intermedium
σ½ Dental lamina, dental papilla and dental sac
One of the following does contribute to the formation of the upper lip:
σ½ Lateral nasal process
σ¾ Two maxillary processes and medial nasal process
σ½ Medial nasal process
σ½ First branchial arch
An oblique facial cleft is formed when the:
σ½ Due to the rupture of the buccopharyngeal membrane
σ½ Maxillary process fails to fuse with the mandibular processes
σ¾ Maxillary process fails to fuse with the lateral and medial nasal process
σ½ Medial nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process
The extrinsic muscles of the tongue:
σ½ Develop from the maxillary process
σ¾ Develop from occipital myotomes
σ½ Develop from tuberculum impar
σ½ Develop from the second branchial arch
The following embryonic structures contribute to the formation of lower lip:
σ½ Maxillary process
σ½ Maxillary and medial nasal processes
σ½ Medial and lateral nasal processes
σ¾ Two mandibular processes
Palatal processes of the maxilla are derived from:
σ¾ Horizontal process of the maxillary prominences
σ½ Mandibular processes
σ½ Copula of His
σ½ Medial nasal process
The maxillary processes:
σ½ Are covered with endoderm
σ¾ Are derived from the first pharyngeal arch
σ½ Form the primary palate
σ½ Form the entire upper lip
A unilateral cleft lip is formed when:
σ½ The palatal shelves remain in a vertical position
σ½ The bucco-nasal membrane ruptures
σ¾ One maxillary process fails to fuse with the medial nasal process
σ½ One lateral nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process
The soft palate develops from:
σ½ Primary palate
σ¾ Palatal processes fused with the nasal septum
σ½ Medial nasal process
σ½ Palatal processes which are not fused with nasal septum
Branchial arches sharing in tongue development are:
σ½ First and second
σ½ First
σ½ Second and third
σ¾ First, third and fourth
25. The Stomodeum is lined by:
σ½ Endoderm
σ½ Mesoderm
σ¾ Ectoderm
σ½ Endoderm and Mesoderm
The palatal shelves:
σ½ Develop from the lateral nasal processes
σ½ From the primary palate
σ½ Develop from the medial nasal processes
σ¾ Develop from the maxillary prominences
The extrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by:
σ½ Trigeminal nerve
σ½ Hypoglossal nerve
σ½ Facial nerve
σ½ Lingual nerve
Secondary palate is:
σ½ 1st branchial arch
σ½ 2nd branchial arch
σ½ 3rd branchial arch
σ¾ Characterized by the formation of two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominences
The muscles of mastication are derived from:
σ½ Occipital myotomes
σ½ 3rd branchial arch
σ¾ The first pharyngeal arch
σ½ 2nd branchial arch
The palate is derived from three primordia:
σ½ Fronto- nasal process
σ½ Lateral nasal process
σ½ 3rd branchial arch
σ¾ An median palatine process and a pair of lateral palatine processes
Tongue begins to develop at:
σ½ 6th wiu
σ½ 11th wiu
σ¾ 4th wiu
σ½ 8th wiu
First branchial arch is supplied by:
σ¾ Facial nerve (VII)
σ½ Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
σ½ Hypoglossal nerve
σ½ Mandibular nerve
The nerve of the third branchial arch is:
σ¾ The glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
σ½ The facial (VII) nerve
σ½ Two branches of the vagus (X) nerve
σ½ The superior laryngeal nerves
Neural crest cells are a temporary group of cells unique to vertebrates that arise from the embryonic ectoderm cell layer, and in turn give rise to A diverse cell lineage including:
σ½ Bone, dentine and cartilage
σ½ Enamel, dentine and bone
σ½ Sensory cells, enamel and dentine
σ¾ Craniofacial cartilage and bone, smooth muscle, peripheral and enteric neurons
The inferior parathyroid gland originates from:
σ½ First pharyngeal pouch
σ½ First pharyngeal cleft
σ¾ Third pharyngeal pouch
σ¾ Fourth pharyngeal pouch
The development of secondary palate begins from:
σ½ 3-4 WIU
σ½ 4 -5 WIU
σ½ 15-16 WIU
σ½ 6-9 WIU
37. The occipital somite’s myotomes give rise to:
σ½ Muscles of mastication
σ½ Muscles of the lip
σ½ Muscles of the tongue
σ½ Muscles of the cheek
The malleus of inner ear originates from:
σ½ Condylar cartilage
σ½ Coronoid cartilage
σ¾ Meckel’s cartilage
σ½ All are corrected
The statements about the branchial apparatus are true except:
σ½ The arches are composed of a mesenchymal core that is covered externally by ectoderm and internally by endoderm
σ½ The mesenchymal core is derived not only from intraembryonic mesoderm, but also from neural crest cells
σ¾ The second arch grows over the third and fourth on the side of the neck to create the cervical sinus
σ½ Each arch contains an aortic arch, cartilage, a nerve, and striated muscles
Pharyngeal pouches:
σ¾ Separate the branchial arches internally
σ¾ Separate the branchial arches externally
σ½ Give rise to structures such as the external acoustic meatus
σ½ All are corrected
Facial swellings refer to:
σ½ The five facial primordia which form the eyes, nose, mouth and jaw
σ½ The five prominences that are apparent following proliferation and migration of neural crest cells
σ¾ The two mandibular prominences, the two maxillary prominences and the frontonasal prominence
σ½ All are corrected
Concerning cleft lips and cleft palates:
σ½ They are not very common
σ½ Cleft lips result from the incomplete (or nonexistent) fusion of the mandibular prominence and the fused medial nasal prominences
σ¾ They can be either unilateral or bilateral
σ½ Cleft palate is always found with a cleft lip
An oblique facial cleft is the result of:
σ½ Excessive proliferation of the lateral nasal processes
σ¾ Incomplete or complete lack of fusion of the lateral nasal processes and the maxillary swelling
σ½ Abnormal fusion of the two frontonasal processes
σ½ Fusion of the maxillary and mandibular swellings unilaterally
Cleft palate may result from all of the following except
σ½ Deficiency in crest derived mesenchyme
σ½ Lack of shelf movement
σ¾ Lack of fusion of the primary with the secondary palate
σ½ Reduced epithelial adhesiveness of the palatal shelves
Formation of the nose includes:
σ½ Formation of nasal placodes on the maxillary prominences of the face
σ½ The formation of a single nasal placode that later becomes partitioned
σ¾ The progression from nasal placode to nasal pit to a nasal cavity (or nostril)
σ½ All are corrected
Concerning teratogens and their effect on fetal development:
σ½ Drugs, food additives and even caffeine can all serve as teratogens
σ½ Maternal smoking during pregnancy can cause intrauterine growth retardation
σ½ Moderate consumption of alcohol by the mother during pregnancy can produce fetal alcohol effects
σ¾ All are corrected
Concerning the palate, all of the following are true, except:
σ½ Bone gradually develops in the primary palate which lodges the incisor teeth in adults
σ½ The posterior parts of the secondary palate do not ossify but extend posteriorly beyond the nasal septum to form the soft palate
σ¾ Excessive growth of the soft palate can result in the formation of a soft tissue projection called the uvula that can block the oropharynx
σ½ All are corrected
All of the following anomalies of the head and neck, except:
σ½ Branchial sinuses result from failure of the second pharyngeal groove and cervical sinus to obliterate
σ½ A branchial fistula refers to a canal that has both an internal and external opening such as the side of the neck
σ¾ Branchial fistulas result from persistence of the first pharyngeal membrane and the second pharyngeal groove
σ½ Branchial cysts result from persistence of remnants of the second pharyngeal groove and the cervical sinus
Concerning the tongue:
σ½ The anterior two-thirds is innervated by a branch of the nerve of the first pharyngeal arch
σ½ Most of the taste buds in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are innervated by the chorda tympani branch of Cranial nerf VII
σ½ The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the posterior third of the tongue as well as the circumvallate papillae
σ¾ All are corrected
All of the structure is the tooth crown except:
σ½ Enamel
σ¾ Cementum
σ½ Pulp
σ½ Dentine
The following induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts:
σ½ Stratum intermedium
σ½ Reduced enamel epithelium
σ¾ Inner enamel epithelium
σ¾ Outer enamel epithelium
No basal lamina is found between the cells of the:
σ¾ Stratum intermedium and inner enamel epithelium
σ½ Outer enamel epithelium and the dental sac
σ½ Inner layer of Hertwig's root sheath and the dental papilla
σ½ Inner enamel epithelium and the dental papilla
All of the following is a functional activity of the enamel organ, except:
σ½ Inducing the differentiation of Odontoblasts
σ½ Secretion of enamel matrix
σ½ Maturation of enamel
σ¾ Formation of cementum
All of the following is derived from the enamel organ except:
σ½ Stellate reticulum
σ½ Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
σ¾ Odontoblasts
σ½ Ameloblasts
Dental follicle cells:
σ½ Differentiate into the ameloblast layer
σ½ Differentiate into the odontoblast layer
σ½ Are found within the enamel organ
σ¾ Migrate to dentin surface of the root and differentiate into the cementoblast
56. The down growth of an epithelial thickening buccal to the dental lamina is known as:
σ¾ Vestibular lamina
σ½ Linguo-alveolar Sulcus
σ½ Lateral dental lamina
σ½ Successional dental lamina
The dental lamina is induced to proliferate into a tooth bud by the:
σ½ Basement membrane
σ½ Nerve endings
σ¾ Ecto-mesenchyme
σ½ Oral epithelium
Calcified tissues of the tooth are derived from:
σ½ Ectoderm only
σ½ Entoderm only
σ½ Mesoderm only
σ¾ Ectoderm and Mesoderm
The number of roots that are formed is determined by the:
Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the enamel organ
Number of medial in growths at the epithelial diaphragm
Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the dental sac
Thickness of the cervical loop
All of the following are involved in the formation of a tooth except:
σ½ Epithelial root sheath
Successional lamina
σ½ Dental lamina
Vestibular lamina
The cell rests of Malassez are derivatives of:
Cervical ameloblasts
σ½ Outer enamel epithelium
Dental papilla
Epithelial root sheath
Odontogenesis of the primary dentition begins between:
The sixth and seventh week
The fifth and sixth week
The seventh and eighth week
The fourth and fifth week
By the 6th week of tooth development, the oral epithelium is:
σ¾ 2-3 layers thickness
σ¾ 3-4 layers thickness
σ¾ 4-5 layers thickness
σ¾ 2-5 layers thickness
The vestibular lamina gives rise to:
σ½ The alveolodental sulcus
σ½ The alveolobuccal sulcus
σ½ The alveololingual sulcus
σ½ The alveologingival sulcus
The ectomesenchymal cell condensation just beneath the enamel organ is called:
σ½ Dental sac
σ¾ Dental follicle
σ½ pulp
σ½ Dental papilla
Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchyme:
σ¾ Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ
σ¾ Labial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ¾ Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ¾ Distal to the developing primary tooth germ
The region where the inner and outer enamel epithelium meets at the rim of the enamel organ is known as:
Zone of Flection
Cervical loop
Epithelial Diaphragm
Hertwing's root Sheath
Odontoblasts start their secretory activity:
σ¾ Before enamel matrix production enamel matrix production
σ¾ After enamel matrix production
σ¾ During enamel matrix production
σ½ During and after enamel matrix production
The epithelial rests in the periodontal ligament are derived from:
Dental pulp
Hertwing's epithelial root sheath
Vestibular lamina
Dental sac
Appositional stage is confined to:
σ½ Cap stage
σ½ Bud stage
σ½ Bell stage
σ½ Dental lamina
Concrescence usually occurs with:
σ¾ Permanent maxillary molars
σ¾ Permanent maxillary premolars
σ¾ Permanent mandibular premolars
σ¾ Permanent mandibular molars
Supernumerary roots occur mainly with:
σ½ Permanent third molars
σ½ Permanent second molars
σ½ Permanent first molars
σ½ Permanent second premolars
Enamel pearls occur in:
 Apical third of molars roots
σ½ Furcation area of molars
σ¾ Cervical third of molars roots
σ½ Furcation area of premolars
The Hertwing's epithelial root sheath is composed of:
σ¾ Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium
σ½ Inner enamel epithelium and stratum intermedium
σ½ Outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum
σ½ Stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium
Inner enamel epithelium:
σ½ Consists of a single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells
σ½ Consists of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells
σ½ Consists of a single layer of polyhedral epithelial cells
σ½ Consists of a single layer of polygonal epithelial cells
The dental sac is:
σ½ The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding Enamel organ
σ½ The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding dental papilla
σ¾ The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla
σ½ All are corrected
The Hertwig epithelial root sheath can't be seen as a continuous layer in the developing root because:
σ½ The rapid epithelial sheath proliferation
σ½ The dentin formation
σ¾ The rapid epithelial sheath destruction after dentin formation
σ½ All are corrected
If Hertwig's epithelial root sheath does not disintegrate:
σ¾ No cementum will be formed on the radicular dentin
σ½ It is likely that some of the enamel will be resorbed
σ½ The apical end of the junctional epithelium will lie occlusal to the cemento-enamel junction
σ½ Predentine will form on the outer surface of the radicular dentin
The reduced enamel epithelium is derived from:
σ½ Maturative ameloblasts and stratum intermedium
σ½ Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer dental epithelium
σ½ Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and inner epithelium
σ¾ Protective ameloblasts, stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer enamel epithelium
One of the following indicates the major components of a tooth germ:
σ½ The dental lamina, the stellate reticulum and the stratum intermedium
σ¾ The dental organ, the dental papilla and the dental sac
σ½ The dental pulp, the dental sac and the dental lamina
σ½ The cervical loop, Hertwig's sheath and the inner enamel epithelium
All of the following is the ectodermal in origin, except:
σ¾ Epithelial rests of Malassez
σ½ Anterior pituitary gland
σ½ Stellate reticulum
σ½ Enamel spindles
The last hard dental tissue to be deposited is:
σ¾ Enamel
σ½ Outer layers of cementum
σ½ Mantle dentin
σ½ Primary dentin
One of the following is associated with an erupted tooth:
σ½ Outer Enamel epithelium
σ¾ Cervical loop
σ½ Epithelial rests of Malassez
σ½ Stratum intermedium
All of the following is a bout of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath except:
σ½ It lacks a stellate reticulum
σ½ It is derived from stomodeal ectoderm
σ½ Its remnants form epithelial rests
σ¾ It remains intact until a layer of cementum has been formed
One group of structures is entirely derived from the dental sac:
σ½ Dentin, pulp, cementum
σ½ Cementum, alveolar bone, pulp
σ½ Cementum, enamel, pulp
σ¾ Periodontal ligament, cementum, alveolar bone
The development of the root begins when:
σ½ The inner and outer dental epithelium reaching the future CEJ
σ¾ The crown is completely formed
σ½ The development of the supporting bone begins
σ½ The development of the periodontal ligament begins
The function of the inner enamel epithelium is:
σ¾ Exerts organization influence on the dental papilla cells
σ½ Lays down dentin matrix
σ½ Protects the enamel after eruption
σ½ Provides the enamel organs with alkaline phosphatase
The apposition stage of tooth development begins:
σ½ The root of the tooth begins to develop
σ½ The first layer of dentine is deposited
σ½ When the first layer of enamel lay down
σ¾ The enamel, cementum and dentin are secreted in layers
All the statement about epithelial diaphragm except:
σ½ It produces narrowing of the wide cervical opening
σ½ Its proliferation is accompanied by proliferation of pulp cells
σ½ adjacent to diaphragm
σ¾ Its growing end is located coronal to the root sheath
σ½ It grows in a horizontal plane
The mesenchymal cells lying adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium:
σ½ Differentiate into ameloblasts
σ¾ Differentiate into odontoblasts
σ½ Are under the influence of stellate reticulum
σ½ Become markedly folded
Advanced bell stage of tooth development refers to:
σ½ Histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation
σ½ Initiation and Proliferation
σ½ Mesenchymal condensation
σ¾ Apposition of dental tissues
The epithelial component of the tooth germ is known as:
σ½ Dental lamina
σ½ Dental Papilla
σ¾ Enamel organ
σ½ Dental follicle
All of the following is a part of the tooth germ except:
σ½ Dental papilla
σ½ Dental follicle
σ½ Dental lamina
σ½ Dental organ
In a developing tooth, if Hertwig's sheath and the epithelial diaphragm were failed to form, the resulting tooth would exhibit:
σ¾ No radicular dentin
σ½ Malformed or fused roots
σ½ Acellular, but no cellular, cementum
σ½ Defective enamel in the cervical region
One of the following is a component of tooth germ:
σ½ Lateral dental lamina
σ½ Successional lamina
σ½ Vestibular lamina
σ¾ Dental sac
All the statement about early dental development, except:
σ½ Cap stage is accomplished by unequal growth in different parts
σ¾ In the cap stage the inner and outer enamel epithelial cells are completely alike
σ½ The transition from cap stage to bell stage is particularly marked by the full differentiation of stellate reticulum
σ½ The dental papilla and the dental sac develop in the cap stage
Concrescence is:
σ½ An extra root or accessory roots in a formed tooth
σ½ Distorted root or roots in a formed tooth
σ¾ A union of root structure of two or more teeth through cementum only
σ½ A spherical projection on the cemental root surface
One of the following Which of induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts is:
σ½ Stratum intermedium
σ½ Reduced enamel epithelium
σ¾ Inner enamel epithelium
σ¾ Outer enamel epithelium
The enamel organ:
σ½ Develops from cells in the dental follicle
σ½ Is a completely connective tissue structure
σ¾ Is a completely epithelial structure
σ½ Is highly vascular, as ameloblasts require an enriched environment
The Hertwig epithelial root sheath of disintegrates:
σ½ After odontoblastic differentiation and before dentin matrix formation
σ¾ After odontoblastic differentiation and dentin matrix deposition
σ½ Before odontoblastic differentiation
σ½ After cementum formation
All of the following is a function of dental sac except:
σ¾ Nutrition of enamel organ
σ½ Formation of cementum
σ½ Formation of periodontal ligamen
σ½ Formation of supporting alveolar bone
The stratum intermedium:
σ½ Lies between outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum
σ½ Is a transient structure
σ½ Is rich in mucopolysaccharides
σ¾ Plays important role in enamel calcification
A layer of cells that seems to be essential to enamel formation but do actually secrete the enamel except:
σ½ Outer enamel epithelium
σ¾ Stratum intermedium
σ½ Reduced dental epithelium
σ½ Vestibular lamina
The dental lamina initiating the permanent molars develops:
σ½ As successional lamina
σ¾ As a distal extension of the dental lamina
σ½ As lateral dental lamina
σ½ As vestibular lamina
The embryo's stomodeum is lined by:
σ¾ Ectoderm
σ¾ Endoderm
σ¾ Mesoderm
σ¾ Ectomesenchyme
Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchym at:
σ¾ Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ
σ¾ Labial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ¾ Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ¾ Distal to the developing primary tooth germ
Appositional stage is confined from:
σ½ Cap stage
σ½ Bud stage
σ½ Bell stage
σ½ Dental lamina
The following is component of the enamel organ except:
σ½ Ameloblasts
σ¾ Odontoblasts
σ½ Outer enamel epithelium
σ½ Stratum intermedium
The following Which contain blood vessels is:
σ½ Cartilage
σ½ Enamel
σ½ Dental lamina
σ½ Dental sac
The tooth germ is composed of:
σ¾ Dental papilla, dental sac, enamel organ
σ½ Dental follicle, dental lamina, vestibular lamina
σ½ Dental papilla, dental lamina, dental organ
σ½ Dental organ, dental follicle, dental lamina
If the process of morphogenesis is disturbed:
σ¾ Changes will occur in the shape of crown and root
σ½ Enamel formation will be abnormal
σ½ Dentin formation will be abnormal
σ½ Absence of cementum
The dental lamina:
σ½ Breaks at the cap stage
σ½ Has no branching
σ½ Has no remnants
σ¾ Develops from the oral epithelium
All of the following is part of the tooth germ except:
σ½ Dental papilla
σ½ Dental follicle
σ¾ Dental lamina
σ½ Enamel organ
The dental sac plays an important role in the formation of all of the following except:
σ½ Periodontal ligament
σ¾ Dentin of the root
σ½ Alveolar bone proper
σ½ Cementum
The origin of enamel is:
σ½ Endoderm
σ½ Mesoderm
σ½ Ectoderm
σ½ Ectomesenchyme
The dental sac gives rise to:
σ¾ Cementoblasts and periodontal ligament
σ½ Periodontal ligament and dental pulp
σ½ Dental pulp and attachment epithelium
σ½ Odontoblasts and Cementoblasts
Fluorosis is caused by:
σ½ Decrease in Fluoride
σ½ Increase in Fluoride
σ½ Normal levels of Fluoride
σ½ Is Inherited
The number of baby teeth is:
σ½ 32
σ½ 22
σ½ 20
σ½ 23
The number of permanent teeth is:
σ½ 20
σ½ 30
σ½ 36
σ¾ 32
The number of permanent teeth is:
σ½ 20
σ½ 30
σ½ 36
σ¾ 32
One of the following causes the discolorations of teeth is:
σ½ Penicillin
σ½ Flagyl
σ¾ Tetracycline
σ½ Gentamycin
One of the following is important for the development of teeth is:
σ½ Vitamin B12
σ¾ Calcium
σ½ Vitamin B6
σ½ Iron
The bud stage of tooth development occurs at:
σ½ The beginning of the tenth week
σ½ The beginning of the ninth week
σ½ The beginning of the eighth week
σ½ The beginning of the seventh week
The cap stage occurs between the:
σ¾ Ninth and tenth week of prenatal development
σ½ Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development
σ½ Thirteenth and fourteenth week of prenatal development
σ½ Sixteenth and seventeenth week of prenatal development
The bell stage occurs between the:
σ½ Twenty and Twenty-first week of prenatal development
σ½ Thirty and forty weeks of prenatal development
σ½ Fifty and sixty weeks of prenatal development
σ¾ Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development
Passive eruption is:
σ½ Growth in the length of the root
σ¾ Apical migration of the junctional epithelium
σ½ Deposition of bone at the fundus
σ½ The formation of cellular cementum
All of the following does occur during the eruptive phase, except:
σ½ Dentin deposition
σ½ Narrowing of apical foramen
σ½ Increased thickness of cementum
σ¾ Enamel formation
During the pre-eruptive phase of tooth eruption:
σ½ Cementoblasts begin to secrete cementoid
σ½ The apical foramen is beginning to close
σ¾ The developed tooth at the bell stage lies within a crypt of bone
σ½ The root is formed
One of the following occurs during the pre-eruptive phase of a tooth:
Differentiation of the stratum intermedium
Formation of the dental sac
σ½ Formation of stellate reticulum
Maturation of enamel
Active eruption of the tooth:
σ¾ Begins as soon as the roots have begun to develop
σ½ Begins when the apical cementum is deposited on the roots of the tooth
σ½ Begins as the occlusal tip starts moving towards the occlusal plane
σ½ Continues until exposure of the cementum has occurred
Actual eruptive movements of tooth occur mainly in a:
σ½ Horizontal direction
σ½ Complex pattern
σ¾ Axial direction
σ½ Rotational direction
All of the following does occur in the active phase of tooth eruption, except:
σ½ Organization of a periodontal ligament from the dental follicle
σ½ Gradual separation of attachment epithelium from the enamel surface
σ½ Root formation
σ¾ Occlusal wear
The most likely factor responsible for tooth eruption is:
σ½ Vascular pressure
σ¾ The developing periodontal ligament
σ½ Bone growth
σ½ The growing root
All of the following statements about the eruption of a permanent tooth and the exfoliation of its predecessor are true, except:
σ¾ Prior to eruption, the crown permanent tooth is completely formed
σ½ Resorption of deciduous roots is an intermittent process
σ½ Earliest resorption of deciduous roots is on root surface of the permanent tooth
σ½ Eruptive movements of the permanent tooth may not be solely responsible for deciduous root resorption
When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attachment epithelial cuff is composed of epithelium derived from:
σ½ Dental lamina
σ½ Epithelial rests of Malassez
σ¾ Reduced dental epithelium
σ½ Epithelial root sheath of Hertwig's
In the post-eruptive phase, a tooth undergoes primarily:
σ½ Rotational movement
σ½ Movements in a distal direction
σ½ Movements in an apical direction
σ¾ Movements in an axial and mesial direction
During tooth eruption, the permanent successors of the primary teeth move occlusal and
σ½ Mesial
σ¾ Buccal
σ¾ Lingual
σ¾ Distal
During tooth eruption into the oral cavity, what happens to the epithelial covering of the enamel:
σ½ It remains as the primary cuticle
σ¾ It units with the oral epithelium and then degenerates
σ½ It is replaced by oral epithelium and then degenerates
σ½ It units with the oral epithelium and becomes primary cuticle
Eruptive phase:
σ½ Accompanied by bleeding of the gingival
σ½ No discomfort or pain
σ¾ Eruptive teeth move at different speeds, at different times
σ½ Has only axial occlusal movement
Histological changes occurring during the eruptive phase:
σ½ Root formation only
σ½ Formation of the attachment apparatus only
σ¾ Dento-gingival junction appearance only
σ½ All are corrected
One of the following is true about ankylosis:
σ½ Is a union of the tooth with the periodontal ligament
σ½ Ankylosed teeth do not show Howship's lacunae on the root
σ¾ Is a bony union between the alveolar bone and the roots of teeth
σ½ The active eruption of an ankylosed tooth continues
Shedding is predominantly the:
σ½ Physiologic loss of impacted teeth
σ½ Physiologic loss of non-vital teeth
σ½ Physiologic loss of permanent teeth
σ½ Physiologic loss of primary teeth
All the statement below is true about the classification of taste, except:
σ½ The four familiar categories are sweet, salty, sour, and bitter
σ½ There has recently been discovered an "umami" receptor on the tongue
σ¾ A component that can be reliably identified in isolation can be identified in multiple component mixtures
σ½ People sometimes identify multiple component solutions as a single component
The little bumps can see on someone's tongue are:
σ½ Taste buds
σ¾ Papillae
σ½ Gustatory pimples
σ½ Latin papilla
Taste buds contain:
σ½ Olfactory receptors
σ½ Papillae
σ¾ Microvilli
σ½ All of are corrected
The map of taste buds for:
σ½ Sweet are on the tip and sour is behind of the tongue
σ½ Salt is on either side of the front of the tongue
σ½ Bitter are on way in the back of the tongue;
σ¾ All of are corrected
The density of taste buds is highest:
σ½ At infancy
σ½ In the teen years
σ¾ Around age 40
σ¾ Around age 65
The taste sensations appear to be located from the parts of:
σ¾ The mouth's entire surface
σ½ The mouth containing taste buds
σ½ The mouth containing functioning taste buds
σ½ The mouth containing functioning taste buds that connect to sensory nerves
The cranial nerve supplies to muscles of mastication is:
σ¾ V (trigeminal)
σ½ X (vagus)
σ½ VII (facial)
σ½ III (oculomotor)
One of muscles of mastication arise from the zygomatic arch and inserts on ramus of the mandible is:
σ¾ Masseter
σ½ Lateral pterygoid
σ½ Medial pterygoid
σ½ Temporalis
All of the muscles mastication is involved in closing the mandible except:
σ¾ Lateral pterygoid
σ½ Masseter
σ½ Masseter and temporalis
σ½ Both the medial and lateral pterygoids
The medial pterygoid follows the same angle as masseter arising from the medial pterygoid plate, where does it attach on the mandible at:
σ¾ Ramus and angle
σ½ Coronoid process
σ½ Condyloid process
σ½ Mental protuberance
Regarding deglutition:
σ½ Contraction of cricopharyngeal
σ¾ Soft palate moves upward
σ½ Co-ordinated reflex
σ½ Inspiration cessation
Another term for the deglutition of food is:
σ½ Digestion
σ½ Ingestion
σ¾ Swallowing
σ½ Peristalsis
Pharyngeal mucosa is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerves because it develops from the:
σ½ First pharyngeal arch
σ½ Second pharyngeal arch
σ½ Third pharyngeal arch
σ½ Fourth pharyngeal arch
The embryological origin of the hyoid bone is:
σ½ The first pharyngeal arc
σ½ The first and second pharyngeal arches
σ½ The second pharyngeal arch
σ¾ The second and third pharyngeal arches
The muscles are derived from the first brachial arch:
σ½ The muscles of mastication
σ¾ The muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric
σ½ The muscles of mastication and anterior and posterior bellies of digastric
σ½ The muscles of mastication, anterior and posterior bellies of digastric and geniohyoid
In patient with reduced salivary flow the carious incidence is:
σ¾ More than the patient with normal salivary flow
σ½ Less than the patient with normal salivary flow
σ½ Unaffected
σ½ All of are corrected
Widely accepted theory of dental caries is:
σ½ Proteolytic theory
σ½ Proteolytic chelation theory
σ¾ Acidogenic theory
σ½ Autoimmune theory
Streptococcus mutants is involved in dental caries initiation Other bacteria also involved is:
σ½ S sarcinus
σ½ S macae
σ¾ S sanguis
σ½ S salivary
The dietary carbohydrate most likely involved in etiology of dental caries is:
σ½ Glucose
σ¾ Sucrose
σ½ Dextran
σ½ Polysaccharide
Bacteria responsible for initiation of caries is:
σ½ Actinomycosis
σ¾ Streptococcus mutants
σ½ Lactobacillus
σ½ Streptococcus viridian
The pH at which initiation of caries begins is:
σ½ 43- 45
σ½ 52- 55
σ½ 49- 51
σ½ 35- 45
Oral foci of Miller's are seen in:
σ¾ Dental caries
σ½ Lichen planus
σ½ Herpes simple
σ½ Syphilis
The tooth in permanent dentition is the most susceptible to dental caries is:
σ½ Maxillary first premolar
σ½ Mandibular first molar
σ½ Maxillary second molar
σ½ Mandibular second molar
Turbid dentin in carious tooth is all except:
σ½ Zone of bacterial invasion
σ½ Zone which cannot be remineralizer
σ½ Zone in which collagen is irreversibly denatured
σ¾ Zone that need not be removed before restoration
Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces acid and it:
σ¾ Forms a gelatinous matrix
σ½ Metabolizes substrate from saliva
σ½ Derives energy from enamel constituents
σ½ Lives symbiotically with lactobacillus
Miller put forth the acidogenic theory of dental caries in the year:
σ¾ 1890
σ½ 1920
σ½ 1924
σ½ 1980
For a bacterium to be seriously considered in the etiology of dental caries, it must:
σ¾ Exist regularly in the dental plaque
σ½ Produce extracellular amylopectin
σ½ Be lethal for gnotobiotic animals
σ½ Produce intracellular dextran’s
Initiation of dental caries depends on:
σ½ formation of large amount of acid
σ½ Availability of carbohydrate food
σ½ Viscosity of saliva
σ¾ Localization of acid over tooth surface
The caries, all are true except:
σ¾ Lactobacillus is the main causative organism in plaque
σ½ Smooth surface caries occurs due to streptococcus mutans
σ½ Pit and fissure caries can be prevented by using pit and fissure sealants
σ½ Fluorides help in reducing caries incidence
The lateral spread of dental caries is facilitated mostly by the:
σ½ Enamel spindles
σ¾ Dentinoenamel junction
σ½ Enamel lamellae
σ½ Striae of Retzius
The probable reasons for a high incidence of dental caries in the teenage population relates most directly to:
σ½ Rapid growth
σ¾ Frequency of sucrose intake
σ½ Negligence in visiting the dentist
σ½ Carelessness in oral hygiene habits
Chemico-parasitic theory of dental caries is proposed by:
σ½ GV Black
σ¾ Miller
σ½ Gottlieb
σ½ Schwartz
The following organisms is found in deep carious lesions rather than in incipient lesions is:
σ½ Streptococci
σ¾ Lactobacilli
σ½ Veillonella
σ½ Bacteroides
The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a:
σ½ Significant increase in number of oral bacteria
σ¾ Shift towards more acidogenic microflora
σ½ Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria
σ½ shift towards more aerobic microflora
Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to:
σ½ Destructive potential of Streptococcus mutans
σ½ Destructive potential of Lactobacillus acidophilus
σ¾ Lateral spread of caries along DEJ and weakening of the outer covering enamel
σ½ Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process
Initiation of caries by Streptococcus mutans is by the production of the:
σ½ Dextranase and soluble dextran
σ¾ Insoluble dextran and glycosyl transferase
σ½ Soluble dextran and glycosyl transferase
σ½ All of are corrected
Caries associated with pre-eruptive enamel hypoplasia:
σ½ Secondary caries
σ½ Chronic caries
σ½ Occult caries
σ½ Incipient caries
Pure mucous salivary gland is:
σ½ Parotid gland
σ½ Major sublingual glands
σ¾ Glossopalatine gland
σ½ Submandibular gland
The secretions of salivary glands are:
σ½ Exocrine and holocrine
σ¾ Exocrine and merocrine
σ½ Exocrine and apocrine
σ½ Endocrine and merocrine
Which minor salivary glands are purely serous:
σ¾ Lingual glands of Von Ebner
σ¾ Lingual glands of Blandin Nuhn
σ½ Palatine gland
σ½ Labial and buccal glands
All of the following is true of parotid glands, except:
σ½ Stenson's duct opens in the cheek opposite maxillary second molar
σ½ Predominantly serous gland
σ½ Long, branching intercalated ducts are present
σ¾ Serous demilunes cap mucous secretory units
The salivary gland is:
σ½ Developed from 6th to 12th week and the glandular tissue continues to enlarge until birth
σ½ 5th to 10th week and the glandular tissue continues to enlarge until birth
σ½ The average person produces approximately 05 L – 15 L per day
σ¾ All are corrected
Normal function of saliva:
σ½ Antimicrobial, enables speech articulation, immunity mediator
σ½ Cellular maintenance, enables swallowing, hydrating–moisturizing
σ½ Cleansing, lubrication, digestion, enables tasting
σ¾ All are corrected
Minor salivary glands are found throughout the mouth:
σ½ Tongue dorsum and ventral, Lips
σ½ Alveolar mucosa of palate, cheeks
σ½ Buccal mucosa, Floor of the mouth
σ¾ All are corrected
The three major salivary glands are:
σ½ Minor salivary glands, Von Ebner's, thyroid
σ¾ Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular
σ½ Thyroid, parotid, sublingual
σ½ Submandibular, gingival cervicular fluid and parotid,
Function of gingival cervicular fluid is:
σ½ Protective flow towards oral cavity washes out potentially harmful cells and molecules
σ½ Antibacterial immunoglobulins, Rather response to inflamation
σ½ Calcium assists pellicle and plaque fromation but may contribute to calculus formation
σ¾ All are corrected
Functions of the digestive system are:
σ½ Prehension, ingestion, deglutition
σ½ Absorption of nutrients, mastication
σ½ Undigested food products
σ¾ All are corrected
Component of mastication are:
σ½ Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate, pharynx
σ½ Teeth, nasal cavity, lip, tongue, palate
σ¾ Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate
σ½ All are corrected
Complete tongue activity occurs in:
σ½ Sleeping, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking
σ¾ Jaw movements, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking
σ½ Jaw movements, laughing, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking
σ½ All are corrected
Chewing sequence could be divided into:
σ½ Preparatory series
σ½ Reduction series
σ½ Pre-swallow series
σ¾ All are corrected
Deglutition is the complex process that:
σ½ Moves bolus of food, water and saliva from mouth through pharynx into esophagus and then to stomach
σ½ The muscles of mouth, pharynx, larynx and esophagus coordinate properly in a complex process; to move food and liquid into stomach
σ½ The airway is protected by correct movement of larynx, so that food and liquid not enter the airway
σ¾ All are corrected
The 3 stages of Deglutition are:
σ½ Oral phase, laryngeal phase, stomach phase
σ¾ Oral phase, pharyngeal phase, esophageal phase
σ½ Oral phase, lung phase, pharyngeal phase
σ½ All are corrected
First stage of deglutition is:
σ½ Voluntary and initiate deglutition process
σ½ A mass of chewed, moistened food, a bolus, is moved to the back of the oral cavity by the tongue
σ½ The lip and buccal muscles help keep bolus from dispersing
σ¾ All are corrected
Second stage of deglutition is:
σ½ Involuntary rapid and the entire process occurs in less than 2 seconds
σ½ The bolus is propelled by pumping action of tongue base and constriction of pharyngeal muscles
σ½ Start from the upper esophageal sphincter into the esophagus
σ¾ All are corrected
Deglutition problem can lead to:
σ½ Coughing,
σ½ Airway obstruction pneumonia
σ½ Even death
σ¾ All are corrected
Taste Buds are located:
σ½ Soft palate, inner surface of the cheeks
σ½ Epiglottis of the larynx, pharynx,
σ½ Most on the tongue
σ¾ All are corrected
The papillae that is projections on the tongue called:
σ½ Filiform papillae
σ½ Fungiform papillae
σ½ Circumvallate papillae
σ¾ All are corrected
Each taste bud consists of:
σ½ 50-80 epithelial cells
σ¾ 40 -100 epithelial cells
σ½ 45-90 epithelial cells
σ½ All are corrected
Taste Bud major types Cells:
σ½ Supporting cells, receptor cells, epithelial cells
σ½ Supporting cells, receptor cells, basal cells
σ½ Supporting cells, basal cells, epithelial cells
σ½ All are corrected
Four basic qualities:
σ½ Sweet
σ½ Sour
σ½ Salty, bitter
σ¾ All are corrected
Dental caries can be classified with respect to the site of the lesion:
σ½ Pit or fissure caries
σ½ Smooth surface, root surface caries
σ½ Recurrent caries
σ¾ All are corrected
The major component of dental plaque is:
σ½ Materia alba, lactic acid
σ½ Desquamated epithelial cells
σ¾ Microorganism
σ½ Salivary contents
Third stage of deglutition is:
σ½ The stage is involuntary, during 8-20 seconds
σ½ Start from the upper esophageal sphincter
σ½ The bolus passes into stomach at the lower esophageal sphincter
σ¾ All are corrected
Taste bud is:
σ½ Receptor organs of taste, located primarily in the oral cavity
σ½ Approximately, 10,000 of taste buds are present in young adults
σ½ The number of taste buds begins declining rapidly by age 50
σ¾ . All are corrected
The primary cause of periodontal disease is:
σ½ Food habits
σ½ Life style
σ¾ Bacterial plaque
σ½ Systemic disease
Senile carious lesions are most commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the teeth:
σ¾ Pits and fissures, proximal caries
σ½ Occlusal, incisor, facial and lingual embrasures
σ½ Inclined plane of cusps
σ½ Root surfaces of teeth
Periodontium which includes?
σ½ Gingival
σ½ Periodontal ligament
σ½ Alveolar bone
σ½ Cementum
σ¾ All of above
How many types of intra oral tissue?
σ¾ 2
σ¾ 3
σ¾ 4
σ¾ 5
What is the outcome of repair?
σ½ To restore functions
σ½ To restore tissue continuity
σ½ To restore functions and tissue continuity
σ¾ To restore functions and tissue continuity, but with distortion or normal architecture.
What is the outcome of regeneration?
σ½ The outcome of regeneration is no different from repair
σ½ The outcome of regeneration is different from repair
σ¾ It is the response of tissue destroyed by an insult to a complete restoration of tissue architecture and functions.
σ½ None of above
He biggest different of outcome between repair and regeneration on tissue is tissue scaring.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
σ½ Tissue function
σ½ Distortion of connective tissue
Cells responsible for repair and regeneration consist of?
σ½ Mesenchymal cells and Parenchymal cells of the injury organs
σ½ Endothelial cells and Platelets
σ½ Macrophages
σ½ Platelets
σ¾ All of above
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: FGF, fibroblast growth factor.?
σ¾ Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ½ Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ½ Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ½ Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ½ Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: EGF, Epithermal growth factor?
σ½ Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ¾ Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ½ Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ½ Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ½ Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: PDGF, Platelet derived growth factor?
σ½ Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ½ Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ¾ Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ½ Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ½ Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: KGF, Keratinocyte growth factor?
σ½ Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ½ Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ½ Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ¾ Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ½ Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: VEGF, Vascular endothelial growth factor?
σ½ Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ½ Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ½ Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ½ Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ¾ Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: TGF-b, Transforming growth factor b.?
σ¾ Promotion of wound healing.
σ½ Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ½ Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ½ Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ½ Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
There are two major factors influence repair and regeneration?
σ¾ Systemic and local factors
σ½ Nutrition and infection
σ½ Metabolic and would characteristic like size and location
σ½ Hormonal and mobility
What are the 4 steps of responses of mucosa to damage?
σ¾ Hemostasis, Inflammatory response, Proliferation, and Wound contraction
σ½ Inflammatory response, Hemostasis, Proliferation, and Wound contraction
σ½ Proliferation, Inflammatory response, Hemostasis, and Wound contraction
σ½ Wound contraction, Hemostasis, Inflammatory response, and Proliferation
The process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product such as a protein?
σ¾ Gene expression
σ½ Transcription
σ½ Transcription factor
σ½ Transcription regulation
σ½ Response element
The process of making messenger RNA (mRNA) from a DNA template by RNA polymerase?
σ½ Gene expression
σ¾ Transcription
σ¾ Transcription factor
σ¾ Transcription regulation
σ½ Response element
A protein that binds to DNA and regulates gene expression by promoting or suppressing transcription?
σ½ Gene expression
σ½ Transcription
σ¾ Transcription factor
σ¾ Transcription regulation
σ½ Response element
Controlling the rate of gene transcription for example by helping or hindering RNA polymerase binding to DNA?
σ½ Gene expression
σ½ Transcription
σ½ Transcription factor
σ½ Transcription regulation
σ½ Response element
Activation, or promotion – increase the rate of gene transcription?
σ¾ Upregulation
σ¾ Downregulation
σ½ Coactivator
σ½ Coapressor
Repression, or suppression – decrease the rate of gene transcription?
σ½ Upregulation
σ¾ Downregulation
σ½ Coactivator
σ½ Corepressor
A protein that works with transcription factors to increase the rate of gene transcription?
σ½ Upregulation
σ½ Downregulation
σ¾ Coactivator
σ½ Corepressor
A protein that works with transcription factors to decrease the rate of gene transcription?
σ½ Upregulation
σ½ Downregulation
σ½ Coactivator
σ¾ Corepressor
A specific sequence of DNA that a transcription factor binds to?
σ½ Gene expression
σ½ Transcription
σ½ Transcription factor
σ½ Transcription regulation
σ¾ Response element
Protein synthesis consist of 2 steps. What are they, and where do they take place?
σ¾ Transcription occurs in nucleolus, and translation occurs in cytoplasm
σ½ Transcription occurs in cytoplasm, and translation occurs in nucleolus
σ½ Transcription and translation both occurs in nucleolus
σ½ Transcription and translation both occurs in cytoplasm
How many protein structure were classified?
σ½ 1.
σ½ 2.
σ½ 3.
σ½ 4.
Transcription factors sometime is called ?
σ½ Sequence-specific RNA-binding factors
σ¾ Sequence-specific DNA-binding factors
σ½ Sequence-specific mRNA-binding factors
σ½ Sequence-specific tRNA-binding factors
Transcription factors is a protein that control the rate of transcription of genetic information from?
σ¾ DNA to RNA
σ½ RNA to DNA
σ½ DNA to mRNA
σ½ DNA to tRNA
What are the function of transcription factors?
σ¾ Regulate gene expression
σ½ Coactivator
σ½ Co-enhancer
σ½ Regulate in between coactivator and co-enhancer
Event during or following protein translation ?
σ½ Proteolysis and post-translatoinal modification
σ½ Proteolysis and modification
σ¾ Proteolysis and protein folding
σ½ Post-translational modification and protein folding
A growth factor is a naturally occurring substance capable of stimulating cellular growth, proliferation, healing, and cellular differentiation. Usually it is a protein or a steroid hormone.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Growth factor is sometimes used interchangeably among scientists with the term?
σ½ Protein
σ½ Hormone
σ½ Vitamin
σ¾ Cytokine
Growth factors are proteins that regulate many aspects of cellular function, including survival, proliferation, migration and differentiation.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Growth factors and their receptors can be grouped into ‘families,’ based upon shared features of ?
σ¾ Amino acid sequence
σ½ Structural of protein folding
σ½ Anatomy of protein
σ½ Protein sequence
Growth factors and their receptors can be grouped into ‘superfamilies,’ based upon shared features of ?
σ½ Amino acid sequence
σ¾ Structural of protein folding
σ½ Anatomy of protein
σ½ Protein sequence
What do Growth Factors Do?
σ½ Repair damaged cells
σ½ Enhance cellular proliferation
σ½ Maintain optimum function of the target organ
σ½ Rejuvenate aging tissues
σ¾ All above
Cre-Lox recombination is a site-specific recombinase technology, used to carry out deletions, insertions, translocations and inversions at specific sites?
σ½ In target cell
σ½ In target animal
σ¾ In DNA
σ½ In RNA
σ½ Inside of cellular cytoplasm
Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) is a type of immunoprecipitation experimental technique used to investigate the interaction between?
σ½ Proteins and DNA outside the cell
σ½ Proteins and RNA
σ½ DNA and RNA
σ½ RNA and DNA
σ¾ Proteins and DNA in the cell
An undifferentiated cell of a multicellular organism which is capable of giving rise to indefinitely more cells of the same type, and from which certain other kinds of cell arise by differentiation.?
σ½ iPSc: Induced pluri-potent stem cells
σ½ MSCs: Mesenchymal stem cells
σ½ ESCs: Embryonic stem cells
σ¾ Stem cells
Stem cell hierarchy from top to bottom?
σ¾ Totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, unipotent
σ½ Totipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, unipotent
σ½ Totipotent, pluripotent, unipotent, multipotent
σ½ Unipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, totipotent
σ½ Unipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, totipotent
Embryonic stem cells are derived from embryos at a developmental stage before the time that implantation would normally occur in?
σ½ Oviduct
σ¾ Uterus
σ½ Placenta
σ½ Vagina
σ½ In vitro fertilization
The first differentiation event in humans occurs at approximately ------ days of development, when an outer layer of cells committed to becoming part of the placenta (the trophectoderm) separates from the inner cell mass (ICM). ?
σ½ 1-3 day
σ½ 3-5 day
σ½ 5-7 day
σ½ 10-14 day
The ICM, inner cell mass, cells have the potential to generate any cell type of the body, after implantation, they are -------------- as they differentiate to other cell types with more limited developmental potential. ?
σ¾ Quickly depleted
σ½ Change
σ½ No change
σ¾ Quickly deleted
If the ICM, inner cell mass, is removed from its normal embryonic environment and cultured under appropriate conditions, the ICM-derived cells can ------------------------------------------- indefinitely and still maintain the developmental potential to form any cell type of the body?
σ¾ Continue to proliferate and replicate themselves
σ½ Differentiate in to any cell types of the body
σ½ Growth and produce more different kind of cell types in the body
σ½ Still alive and growth well under appropriate conditions
Why embryonic stem cells were banned for basic research?
σ½ High cost
σ½ Risk of cancer
σ¾ Violation ethic issue
σ½ All of above
What is Yamanaka’s factors
σ¾ Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, C-Myc
σ½ Oct4, Sox4, Klf2, C-Myc
σ½ Oct2, Sox2, Klf4, C-Myc
σ½ Oct2, Sox4, Klf2, C-Myc
What are the gold standard transcription factors using for generating iPSc?
σ½ Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, C-Myc
σ½ Oct2, Sox4, Klf4, Lin28
σ¾ Oct4, Sox2, Nanog, Lin28
σ½ Oct4, Sox4, Nanog, Lin28
What are the criteria for achieving to generate iPSc?
σ½ A stable change in the nucleus of a mature cell
σ½ Cell can divides through mitosis
σ½ Cell be maintained and replicated
σ½ An unstable change in the nucleus of a mature cells but can be maintained and replicated through cell division, mitosis.
σ¾ Cell able to maintain and replication their stable change in cellular nucleus when their undergo mitosis.
Why generation of iPSc is so attractive to scientist worldwide?
σ½ No controversial in term of ethical issue, and ready for use
σ½ Generation of patient-specific cell line and immune match
σ½ No concern on cancer risk, and cheap
σ½ Ease to perform with no risk of cancer and ethical issue
σ¾ Every patient could generation their own cell line without concern of ethical issue and immune rejection.
When the first mouse iPSc were generated and published?
σ½ 2005
σ½ 2006
σ½ 2007
σ½ 2008
When the first human iPSc were generated and published?
σ½ 2005
σ½ 2006
σ½ 2007
σ½ 2008
Why transcription factors is the most import key to generate iPSc, cell reprogramming?
σ½ They can control cell division
σ¾ They can control gene expression
σ½ They can regulate cell signalling
σ½ They can regulate gene expression through cell signalling during cell division
Why transcription factor C-Myc is no longer use for generating iPSc?
σ½ It is difficult to obtain from nature
σ½ It is difficult to work with other transcription factors
σ½ It is less effective
σ½ It is not only less effective, but difficult to work with other transcription factors, and reported to generate cancer in some cases
σ¾ It is reported to generate cancer in some cases
Who are/ is the pioneer of generating iPSc?
σ½ Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and his students
σ½ Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and his wife
σ¾ Prof. Shinya Yamanaka
σ½ Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and Sir John Gurdon
Work flow of generating iPSc?
σ½ Isolate and culture host cell, using lentinovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
σ¾ Isolate and culture host cell, using retrovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
σ½ Isolate and culture host cell, using adenovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
σ½ Isolate and culture host cell, using transcription factors, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
Mesenchymal stem cells are multi-potent stem cells which is able to differentiate to adult cell like?
σ¾ Bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, and neurons
σ½ Bone, liver, fat, skin, and muscle
σ½ Bone, cartilage, and neurons
σ½ Cartilage, fat, muscle
σ½ Liver, skin, bone, and cartilage
Mesenchymal stem cells is derived from bone marrow. So they can differentiate into hematopoietic cell line.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
Mesenchymal stem cells can be extract from many types of tissue, but the most commence one is bone marrow.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Mesenchymal stem cells can be extracted from marrow and non-marrow.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Non-marrow origin mesenchymal stem cells EXCLUDE ?
σ½ Placenta, and umbilical cord blood
σ½ Adipose, and muscle
σ½ Dental pulp
σ¾ Embryo
Morphology of mesenchymal stem cells ?
σ¾ Fibroblast-like
σ½ Collagen-like
σ½ Neuron-like
σ½ Poly-conic-like
In order to identify multi-potency stem cells, ones has to undergo cellar differentiation EXCLUDE?
σ½ Bone
σ½ Cartilage
σ½ Fat
σ¾ Skin
σ½ Neuron
Mesenchymal stem cells have been confirmed able to differentiated into neuron cell with function?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
What is the biggest conflict of using embryonic stem cells?
σ½ Cell source
σ½ Price and outcome
σ¾ Ethic
σ½ Market
What is the biggest conflict of using induced pluri-potent stem cells?
σ½ Immune rejection
σ½ Reprogram efficiency
σ¾ Cancer cause
σ½ Insertion of transcription factors
What is the biggest conflict of using mesenchymal stem cells?
σ½ Homogenous nature
Heterogenous nature
σ½ Cancer cause
σ½ Ethic
What is the hierarchy of embryonic stem cells?
σ¾ Toti-potent
σ½ Pluri-potent
σ½ Multi-potent
σ½ Uni-potent
What is the hierarchy of induced pluripotent stem cells?
σ½ Toti-potent
σ½ Pluri-potent
σ½ Multi-potent
σ½ Uni-potent
What is the hierarchy of mesenchymal stem cells?
σ½ Toti-potent
σ½ Pluri-potent
σ¾ Multi-potent
σ½ Uni-potent
Embryonic stem cells were banned for basic research practice because it is an unethical practice. Moreover, it cannot create patient-match specific cell line.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
The biggest concern of using iPSc as a regenerative tool is the possible of cancer provoke due to infection of transcription factors.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
The disadvantage of mesenchymal stem cells is that this stem cells are heterogenous in nature which hard to purify.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Embryonic stem cells are derived from embryos at a developmental stage before the time that implantation would normally occur in the uterus. Normally, it takes about 10 days.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
The inner cell mass cells have the potential to generate any cell type of the body, but after implantation, they are quickly depleted as they differentiate to other cell types with more limited developmental potential. ?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Because ES cells can proliferate without limit and can contribute to any cell type, human ES cells offer an unprecedented access to tissues from the human body. ?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
ES will support clinical research on the differentiation and function of human tissues and provide material for testing that may improve the safety and efficacy of human drugs ?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
Some important human diseases are caused by the death or dysfunction of one or a few cell types, e.g., insulin-producing cells in diabetes or dopaminergic neurons in Parkinson's disease. Therefore, understanding and using stem cells as tool to study this disease model provide a better understand this dysfunction of cell types.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
A growth factor is a naturally occurring substance capable of stimulating cellular growth, proliferation, healing, and cellular differentiation.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Growth factors typically act as signalling molecules between cells. Examples are cytokines and hormones that bind to specific receptors on the cytoplasm of their target cells.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
Cytokines are a broad and loose category of long big proteins (~5–20 kDa) that are important in cell signalling.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
Growth factor is sometimes used interchangeably among scientists with the term cytokine.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Growth factor is sometimes used interchangeably among scientists with the term transcription factors.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
Growth factors and their receptors can be grouped into ‘families,’ based upon shared features of size and location, and into ‘superfamilies,’ based upon shared their functions.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
In transcription an mRNA chain is generated, with both strands of the DNA double helix in the genome as a template.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
Transcription can be divided into 3 stages: initiation, elongation, and termination, each regulated by a large number of proteins such as transcription factors?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
Transcription factor sometimes is called sequence-specific DNA-binding factor.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Transcription factor is a protein that controls the rate of transcription of genetic information from messenger RNA to DNA, by binding to a specific ribosomes.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
IPSCs were reprogrammed to an embryonic stem cell-like state by introducing genes important for maintaining the essential properties of embryonic stem cells (ESCs). ?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Ethical issues associated with the production of ESCs do apply to iPSCs, which offer a controversial strategy to generate patient-specific stem cell lines.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
One strategy to accomplish this goal is nuclear reprogramming, a technique that involves experimentally inducing a stable change in the nucleus of a mature cell that can then be maintained and replicated as the cell divides through mitosis. ?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Four transcription factors (Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and c-Myc) sometimes is called Yamanaka’s factors.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Yamanaka’s factors were chosen because they were known to be involved in the maintenance of pluripotency, which is the capability to generate all other cell types of the body
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Retroviruses used to deliver the four transcription factors in the earliest studies is safe to generating iPSCs.?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
All four factors are absolutely necessary. In particular, the gene c-Myc is known to promote tumor growth in some cases, which would not affect iPSC usefulness in transplantation therapies. ?
σ½ True
σ¾ False
IPSc provided unlimited supplies of ________ cells could be used to generate transplants without the risk of immune rejection.?
σ¾ Autologous.
σ½ Xenologous.
σ½ Allologous.
Upon introduction of reprogramming factors, cells begin to form colonies that resemble pluripotent stem cells, which can be isolated based on their:?
σ½ Morphology.
σ½ Conditions that select for their growth.
σ½ Through expression of surface markers.
σ½ Reporter genes.
σ¾ All are corrects.
IPSc were generated by:?
σ½ From adult cells.
σ¾ Introduced Yamanaka’s factors into adult cells.
σ½ Growth factors.
σ½ All of above.
Yamanaka’s factors were used to generating iPSc in 1st generation because:?
σ½ They are ease to use.
σ½ There is no better way.
σ½ They were reported to able to express gene that like embryonic stem cells.
σ¾ All are corrects.
In the future, possible dentist can use dental pulp stem cells, 3rd mandibular molar, in cell bank due to their pluri-potent.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
In our blood, there is a small amount of stem cells which are ready to be differentiate to any cell type under the control of growth factors.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
Yamanaka’s factors were used to generating iPSc in 1st generation because:?
σ½ They are ease to use.
σ½ There is no better way.
σ½ They were reported to able to express gene that like embryonic stem cells.
σ¾ All are corrects.
In the future, possible dentist can use dental pulp stem cells, 3rd mandibular molar, in cell bank due to their pluri-potent.?
σ¾ True
The main reason for formation of scale is due to detraction of connective tissue.?
σ¾ True
σ½ False
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