2DD MCQ Oral Biology

A vibrant illustration depicting various aspects of oral biology, including cells, salivary glands, and a detailed cellular diagram, in an educational style.

Explore Oral Biology: Test Your Knowledge

Engage with our comprehensive quiz on oral biology, covering key concepts from cellular structure to salivary gland functionality. This interactive quiz is designed to test and enhance your understanding of the intricate details of oral biology.

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340 Questions85 MinutesCreated by LearningCell123
A sequence of changes from fertilization of the ovum to maturity:
σ� Growth of an organism
σ� Fertilization
σ� Development of an organism
σ� Ovulation
A physiological process by which an organism become larger is:
σ� Growth of an organism
σ� Fertilization
σ� Development of an organism
σ� Ovulation
All are fundamental studies of living organism in biology, except:
σ� Functions
σ� Growth/development
σ� Origin/Evolution
σ� Cell metabolism
Equilibrium is required for all the living organism to:
σ� Cell building block
σ� Immune-recognition
σ� Cell to cell contact
σ� Maintain homeostasis
______ is required for cell metabolism and biochemistry:
σ� Cell wall
σ� Energy
σ� Cell division
σ� Ionic exchange
Genetic information of one living organism passed on from cell to cell in the form of:
σ� Protein synthesis
σ� DNA
σ� Cell metabolism
σ� RNA
7. Genetic information passed on from cell to cell during cellular division is call:
σ� Cell evolution
σ� Cell heredity
σ� Cell equilibrium
σ� Cell bio chemistry
Engine of biological diversity for all living organism to adapt and survive is call:
σ� Cell evolution
σ� Cell heredity
σ� Cell equilibrium
σ� Cell bio chemistry
Bacterial is classified as:
σ� Archaea
σ� Eukaryotic cell
σ� Prokaryotic cell
σ� Advanced organism
Multicellular organism such as human, animals, and plant are classified as:
σ� Single-celled organism
σ� Eukaryotic cell
σ� Prokaryotic cell
σ� Archaea
______ is the largest salivary gland of the oral cavity:
σ� Lacrimal gland
σ� Parotid gland
σ� Submandibular
σ� Adrenal gland
Majority of serous saliva is secreted from:
σ� Submandibular gland
σ� Sublingual gland
σ� Parotid gland
σ� None of the above
Majority of mucous saliva is secreted from:
σ� Submandibular gland
σ� Sublingual gland
σ� Parotid gland
σ� None of the above
Glands such as, pituitary, thyroid, adrenal are categorized as:
σ� Major glands
σ� Exocrine glands
σ� Minor glands
σ� Endocrine glands
All are exocrine glands, except:
σ� Parathyroid gland
σ� Sweat gland
σ� Sebaceous gland
σ� Lacrimal gland
All are the 3 types of fluid secretion by exocrine gland, except:
σ� Merocrine secretion
σ� Holocrine secretion
σ� Meibomian secretion
σ� Apocrine secretion
60-70% of total saliva is secreted from:
σ� Parotid glands
σ� Submandibular glands
σ� Sublingual glands
σ� Thyroid glands
Mucous acini are the specialized cell of:
σ� Mucoserous secreting gland
σ� Mucous secreting gland
σ� Serous secreting gland
σ� None of the above
The statement below described about the function of cell-cell tight junction:
σ� Prevent the leakage of the lumen content to the intercellular spaces
σ� Regulate the passage of materials from the lumen to the intercellular
σ� Hold adjacent cells together or cell-cell adhesion
σ� Cell to basement membrane attachment
Secretory cells attached to the basement membrane by:
σ� Intercellular canaliculus
σ� Adherent junction
σ� Tight junction
σ� Hemidesmosomes
Functions of Striated Duct of the salivary gland:
σ� Reabsorbing Na+ and Cl−
σ� Secreting K+ into the saliva
σ� Making hypotonic saliva
σ� All of the above
The statement below described about the function of myoepithelial:
σ� Reabsorbing Na+ and Cl−
σ� Support and promote secretion of the salivary gland
σ� Electrolyte exchange
σ� Secretion of proteins
The statement below described about morphology of mucous acini:
σ� Elongated pyramidal cells with pale vacuolated cytoplasm, basally located nuclei
σ� Support and promote secretion of the salivary gland
σ� These cells produce low proteins
σ� Cluster of pyramidal cells with a broad base on the basement membrane
The statement below described about morphology of myoepithelial:
σ� locates between the basal plasma membrane and the acinar basement membrane
σ� Support and promote secretion of the salivary gland
σ� Stellate morphology with elongated cell body and flattened cell nucleus
σ� Subject to neural and endocrine regulation
What is Stomodeum:
σ� Precursor of the epithelia and glands of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract
σ� Inner layer of the gastrula
σ� Germ layer that arises during gastrulation
σ� Precursor of the mouth and the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
26. Bacterial is classified as:
σ� Archaea
σ� Eukaryotic cell
σ� Prokaryotic cell
σ� Advanced organism
The 3 major salivary glands are:
σ� Parotid, submandibular, Low labial
σ� Sublingual gland
σ� Adrenal, thyroid, lacrimal
σ� Parotid, submandibular, sublingual
Major duct of parotid gland:
σ� Stenson’s duct
σ� Wharton’s duct
σ� Bartholin’s duct
σ� Lacrimal’s duct
Major duct of submandibular gland:
σ� Stenson’s duct
σ� Wharton’s duct
σ� Bartholin’s duct
σ� Lacrimal’s duct
Major duct of Sublingual gland:
σ� Stenson’s duct
σ� Wharton’s duct
σ� Bartholin’s duct
σ� Lacrimal’s duct
Most of the hard palate and all of the soft palate from the:
σ� Primary palate
σ� Secondary palate
σ� Assessor palate
σ� All are corrected
In humans, which branchial arch rudimentary is:
σ� 2nd
σ� 4th
σ� 5th
σ� 6th
The name of the first branchial arch is:
σ� Mandibular arch
σ� Hyoid arch
σ� Maxillary arch
σ� All are corrected
The name of the second branchial arch is:
σ� Maxillary arch
σ� Mandibular arch
σ� Hyoid arch
σ� All are corrected
Median rhomboid glossitis is:
σ� Caused by persistence of tuberculum impar
σ� Red and rhomboidal smooth zone of the tongue
σ� Found in midline in front of the foramen cecum
σ� All are corrected
6. Dental lamina is formed when:
σ� The embryo is 3weeks old
σ� The embryo is 4weeks old
σ� The embryo is 5weeks old
σ� The embryo is 6weeks old
After fertilization of ovum series of cell division give rise to an egg cell mass called:
σ� Placenta
σ� Morula
σ� Embryo
σ� Embryonic disc
Hertwig's root sheath consists of:
σ� The outer and inner enamel epithelium only
σ� The stratum intermedium
σ� The stellate reticulum
σ� All are corrected
9. The term for a fertilized egg from conception until the end of two months development:
σ� Embryo
σ� Zygote
σ� Fetus
σ� Ovary
In human’s fertilization normally occurs in:
σ� uterus vagina
σ� fallopian tube
σ� zona pellucida
σ� ovary
After ovulation the ovum can be fertilized for about:
σ� 5-10 hours
σ� More than 48 hours
σ� 4-20 hours
σ� 1-3 hours
σ� 24-48 hours
One of the following represents the correct order of prenatal development:
σ� Preimplantation, fetal, embryonic
σ� Preimplantation, embryonic, fetal
σ� fetal, preimplantation, embryonic
σ� fetal, embryonic, preimplantation
One of the following should a woman avoid while she is pregnant:
σ� Smoking cigarettes
σ� Being under 20 and over 40 years of age
σ� Not having adequate prenatal medical supervision
σ� All of these
One of the following characterize prenatal development It is:
σ� The shortest stage of the human life span
σ� A highly critical stage in human development
σ� The stage during which most development occurs at the most rapid rate in the human life span
σ� All are corrected
The following are all derived from the stomodeal ectoderm such as:
σ� Salivary glands, anterior pituitary gland and enamel organs
σ� Enamel dentin and major salivary glands
σ� Cementum, anterior pituitary gland and stratum intermedium
σ� Dental lamina, dental papilla and dental sac
One of the following does contribute to the formation of the upper lip:
σ� Lateral nasal process
σ� Two maxillary processes and medial nasal process
σ� Medial nasal process
σ� First branchial arch
An oblique facial cleft is formed when the:
σ� Due to the rupture of the buccopharyngeal membrane
σ� Maxillary process fails to fuse with the mandibular processes
σ� Maxillary process fails to fuse with the lateral and medial nasal process
σ� Medial nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process
The extrinsic muscles of the tongue:
σ� Develop from the maxillary process
σ� Develop from occipital myotomes
σ� Develop from tuberculum impar
σ� Develop from the second branchial arch
The following embryonic structures contribute to the formation of lower lip:
σ� Maxillary process
σ� Maxillary and medial nasal processes
σ� Medial and lateral nasal processes
σ� Two mandibular processes
Palatal processes of the maxilla are derived from:
σ� Horizontal process of the maxillary prominences
σ� Mandibular processes
σ� Copula of His
σ� Medial nasal process
The maxillary processes:
σ� Are covered with endoderm
σ� Are derived from the first pharyngeal arch
σ� Form the primary palate
σ� Form the entire upper lip
A unilateral cleft lip is formed when:
σ� The palatal shelves remain in a vertical position
σ� The bucco-nasal membrane ruptures
σ� One maxillary process fails to fuse with the medial nasal process
σ� One lateral nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process
The soft palate develops from:
σ� Primary palate
σ� Palatal processes fused with the nasal septum
σ� Medial nasal process
σ� Palatal processes which are not fused with nasal septum
Branchial arches sharing in tongue development are:
σ� First and second
σ� First
σ� Second and third
σ� First, third and fourth
25. The Stomodeum is lined by:
σ� Endoderm
σ� Mesoderm
σ� Ectoderm
σ� Endoderm and Mesoderm
The palatal shelves:
σ� Develop from the lateral nasal processes
σ� From the primary palate
σ� Develop from the medial nasal processes
σ� Develop from the maxillary prominences
The extrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by:
σ� Trigeminal nerve
σ� Hypoglossal nerve
σ� Facial nerve
σ� Lingual nerve
Secondary palate is:
σ� 1st branchial arch
σ� 2nd branchial arch
σ� 3rd branchial arch
σ� Characterized by the formation of two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominences
The muscles of mastication are derived from:
σ� Occipital myotomes
σ� 3rd branchial arch
σ� The first pharyngeal arch
σ� 2nd branchial arch
The palate is derived from three primordia:
σ� Fronto- nasal process
σ� Lateral nasal process
σ� 3rd branchial arch
σ� An median palatine process and a pair of lateral palatine processes
Tongue begins to develop at:
σ� 6th wiu
σ� 11th wiu
σ� 4th wiu
σ� 8th wiu
First branchial arch is supplied by:
σ� Facial nerve (VII)
σ� Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
σ� Hypoglossal nerve
σ� Mandibular nerve
The nerve of the third branchial arch is:
σ� The glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
σ� The facial (VII) nerve
σ� Two branches of the vagus (X) nerve
σ� The superior laryngeal nerves
Neural crest cells are a temporary group of cells unique to vertebrates that arise from the embryonic ectoderm cell layer, and in turn give rise to A diverse cell lineage including:
σ� Bone, dentine and cartilage
σ� Enamel, dentine and bone
σ� Sensory cells, enamel and dentine
σ� Craniofacial cartilage and bone, smooth muscle, peripheral and enteric neurons
The inferior parathyroid gland originates from:
σ� First pharyngeal pouch
σ� First pharyngeal cleft
σ� Third pharyngeal pouch
σ� Fourth pharyngeal pouch
The development of secondary palate begins from:
σ� 3-4 WIU
σ� 4 -5 WIU
σ� 15-16 WIU
σ� 6-9 WIU
37. The occipital somite’s myotomes give rise to:
σ� Muscles of mastication
σ� Muscles of the lip
σ� Muscles of the tongue
σ� Muscles of the cheek
The malleus of inner ear originates from:
σ� Condylar cartilage
σ� Coronoid cartilage
σ� Meckel’s cartilage
σ� All are corrected
The statements about the branchial apparatus are true except:
σ� The arches are composed of a mesenchymal core that is covered externally by ectoderm and internally by endoderm
σ� The mesenchymal core is derived not only from intraembryonic mesoderm, but also from neural crest cells
σ� The second arch grows over the third and fourth on the side of the neck to create the cervical sinus
σ� Each arch contains an aortic arch, cartilage, a nerve, and striated muscles
Pharyngeal pouches:
σ� Separate the branchial arches internally
σ� Separate the branchial arches externally
σ� Give rise to structures such as the external acoustic meatus
σ� All are corrected
Facial swellings refer to:
σ� The five facial primordia which form the eyes, nose, mouth and jaw
σ� The five prominences that are apparent following proliferation and migration of neural crest cells
σ� The two mandibular prominences, the two maxillary prominences and the frontonasal prominence
σ� All are corrected
Concerning cleft lips and cleft palates:
σ� They are not very common
σ� Cleft lips result from the incomplete (or nonexistent) fusion of the mandibular prominence and the fused medial nasal prominences
σ� They can be either unilateral or bilateral
σ� Cleft palate is always found with a cleft lip
An oblique facial cleft is the result of:
σ� Excessive proliferation of the lateral nasal processes
σ� Incomplete or complete lack of fusion of the lateral nasal processes and the maxillary swelling
σ� Abnormal fusion of the two frontonasal processes
σ� Fusion of the maxillary and mandibular swellings unilaterally
Cleft palate may result from all of the following except
σ� Deficiency in crest derived mesenchyme
σ� Lack of shelf movement
σ� Lack of fusion of the primary with the secondary palate
σ� Reduced epithelial adhesiveness of the palatal shelves
Formation of the nose includes:
σ� Formation of nasal placodes on the maxillary prominences of the face
σ� The formation of a single nasal placode that later becomes partitioned
σ� The progression from nasal placode to nasal pit to a nasal cavity (or nostril)
σ� All are corrected
Concerning teratogens and their effect on fetal development:
σ� Drugs, food additives and even caffeine can all serve as teratogens
σ� Maternal smoking during pregnancy can cause intrauterine growth retardation
σ� Moderate consumption of alcohol by the mother during pregnancy can produce fetal alcohol effects
σ� All are corrected
Concerning the palate, all of the following are true, except:
σ� Bone gradually develops in the primary palate which lodges the incisor teeth in adults
σ� The posterior parts of the secondary palate do not ossify but extend posteriorly beyond the nasal septum to form the soft palate
σ� Excessive growth of the soft palate can result in the formation of a soft tissue projection called the uvula that can block the oropharynx
σ� All are corrected
All of the following anomalies of the head and neck, except:
σ� Branchial sinuses result from failure of the second pharyngeal groove and cervical sinus to obliterate
σ� A branchial fistula refers to a canal that has both an internal and external opening such as the side of the neck
σ� Branchial fistulas result from persistence of the first pharyngeal membrane and the second pharyngeal groove
σ� Branchial cysts result from persistence of remnants of the second pharyngeal groove and the cervical sinus
Concerning the tongue:
σ� The anterior two-thirds is innervated by a branch of the nerve of the first pharyngeal arch
σ� Most of the taste buds in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are innervated by the chorda tympani branch of Cranial nerf VII
σ� The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the posterior third of the tongue as well as the circumvallate papillae
σ� All are corrected
All of the structure is the tooth crown except:
σ� Enamel
σ� Cementum
σ� Pulp
σ� Dentine
The following induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts:
σ� Stratum intermedium
σ� Reduced enamel epithelium
σ� Inner enamel epithelium
σ� Outer enamel epithelium
No basal lamina is found between the cells of the:
σ� Stratum intermedium and inner enamel epithelium
σ� Outer enamel epithelium and the dental sac
σ� Inner layer of Hertwig's root sheath and the dental papilla
σ� Inner enamel epithelium and the dental papilla
All of the following is a functional activity of the enamel organ, except:
σ� Inducing the differentiation of Odontoblasts
σ� Secretion of enamel matrix
σ� Maturation of enamel
σ� Formation of cementum
All of the following is derived from the enamel organ except:
σ� Stellate reticulum
σ� Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
σ� Odontoblasts
σ� Ameloblasts
Dental follicle cells:
σ� Differentiate into the ameloblast layer
σ� Differentiate into the odontoblast layer
σ� Are found within the enamel organ
σ� Migrate to dentin surface of the root and differentiate into the cementoblast
56. The down growth of an epithelial thickening buccal to the dental lamina is known as:
σ� Vestibular lamina
σ� Linguo-alveolar Sulcus
σ� Lateral dental lamina
σ� Successional dental lamina
The dental lamina is induced to proliferate into a tooth bud by the:
σ� Basement membrane
σ� Nerve endings
σ� Ecto-mesenchyme
σ� Oral epithelium
Calcified tissues of the tooth are derived from:
σ� Ectoderm only
σ� Entoderm only
σ� Mesoderm only
σ� Ectoderm and Mesoderm
The number of roots that are formed is determined by the:
Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the enamel organ
Number of medial in growths at the epithelial diaphragm
Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the dental sac
Thickness of the cervical loop
All of the following are involved in the formation of a tooth except:
σ� Epithelial root sheath
Successional lamina
σ� Dental lamina
Vestibular lamina
The cell rests of Malassez are derivatives of:
Cervical ameloblasts
σ� Outer enamel epithelium
Dental papilla
Epithelial root sheath
Odontogenesis of the primary dentition begins between:
The sixth and seventh week
The fifth and sixth week
The seventh and eighth week
The fourth and fifth week
By the 6th week of tooth development, the oral epithelium is:
σ� 2-3 layers thickness
σ� 3-4 layers thickness
σ� 4-5 layers thickness
σ� 2-5 layers thickness
The vestibular lamina gives rise to:
σ� The alveolodental sulcus
σ� The alveolobuccal sulcus
σ� The alveololingual sulcus
σ� The alveologingival sulcus
The ectomesenchymal cell condensation just beneath the enamel organ is called:
σ� Dental sac
σ� Dental follicle
σ� pulp
σ� Dental papilla
Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchyme:
σ� Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ
σ� Labial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ� Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ� Distal to the developing primary tooth germ
The region where the inner and outer enamel epithelium meets at the rim of the enamel organ is known as:
Zone of Flection
Cervical loop
Epithelial Diaphragm
Hertwing's root Sheath
Odontoblasts start their secretory activity:
σ� Before enamel matrix production enamel matrix production
σ� After enamel matrix production
σ� During enamel matrix production
σ� During and after enamel matrix production
The epithelial rests in the periodontal ligament are derived from:
Dental pulp
Hertwing's epithelial root sheath
Vestibular lamina
Dental sac
Appositional stage is confined to:
σ� Cap stage
σ� Bud stage
σ� Bell stage
σ� Dental lamina
Concrescence usually occurs with:
σ� Permanent maxillary molars
σ� Permanent maxillary premolars
σ� Permanent mandibular premolars
σ� Permanent mandibular molars
Supernumerary roots occur mainly with:
σ� Permanent third molars
σ� Permanent second molars
σ� Permanent first molars
σ� Permanent second premolars
Enamel pearls occur in:
 Apical third of molars roots
σ� Furcation area of molars
σ� Cervical third of molars roots
σ� Furcation area of premolars
The Hertwing's epithelial root sheath is composed of:
σ� Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium
σ� Inner enamel epithelium and stratum intermedium
σ� Outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum
σ� Stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium
Inner enamel epithelium:
σ� Consists of a single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells
σ� Consists of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells
σ� Consists of a single layer of polyhedral epithelial cells
σ� Consists of a single layer of polygonal epithelial cells
The dental sac is:
σ� The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding Enamel organ
σ� The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding dental papilla
σ� The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla
σ� All are corrected
The Hertwig epithelial root sheath can't be seen as a continuous layer in the developing root because:
σ� The rapid epithelial sheath proliferation
σ� The dentin formation
σ� The rapid epithelial sheath destruction after dentin formation
σ� All are corrected
If Hertwig's epithelial root sheath does not disintegrate:
σ� No cementum will be formed on the radicular dentin
σ� It is likely that some of the enamel will be resorbed
σ� The apical end of the junctional epithelium will lie occlusal to the cemento-enamel junction
σ� Predentine will form on the outer surface of the radicular dentin
The reduced enamel epithelium is derived from:
σ� Maturative ameloblasts and stratum intermedium
σ� Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer dental epithelium
σ� Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and inner epithelium
σ� Protective ameloblasts, stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer enamel epithelium
One of the following indicates the major components of a tooth germ:
σ� The dental lamina, the stellate reticulum and the stratum intermedium
σ� The dental organ, the dental papilla and the dental sac
σ� The dental pulp, the dental sac and the dental lamina
σ� The cervical loop, Hertwig's sheath and the inner enamel epithelium
All of the following is the ectodermal in origin, except:
σ� Epithelial rests of Malassez
σ� Anterior pituitary gland
σ� Stellate reticulum
σ� Enamel spindles
The last hard dental tissue to be deposited is:
σ� Enamel
σ� Outer layers of cementum
σ� Mantle dentin
σ� Primary dentin
One of the following is associated with an erupted tooth:
σ� Outer Enamel epithelium
σ� Cervical loop
σ� Epithelial rests of Malassez
σ� Stratum intermedium
All of the following is a bout of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath except:
σ� It lacks a stellate reticulum
σ� It is derived from stomodeal ectoderm
σ� Its remnants form epithelial rests
σ� It remains intact until a layer of cementum has been formed
One group of structures is entirely derived from the dental sac:
σ� Dentin, pulp, cementum
σ� Cementum, alveolar bone, pulp
σ� Cementum, enamel, pulp
σ� Periodontal ligament, cementum, alveolar bone
The development of the root begins when:
σ� The inner and outer dental epithelium reaching the future CEJ
σ� The crown is completely formed
σ� The development of the supporting bone begins
σ� The development of the periodontal ligament begins
The function of the inner enamel epithelium is:
σ� Exerts organization influence on the dental papilla cells
σ� Lays down dentin matrix
σ� Protects the enamel after eruption
σ� Provides the enamel organs with alkaline phosphatase
The apposition stage of tooth development begins:
σ� The root of the tooth begins to develop
σ� The first layer of dentine is deposited
σ� When the first layer of enamel lay down
σ� The enamel, cementum and dentin are secreted in layers
All the statement about epithelial diaphragm except:
σ� It produces narrowing of the wide cervical opening
σ� Its proliferation is accompanied by proliferation of pulp cells
σ� adjacent to diaphragm
σ� Its growing end is located coronal to the root sheath
σ� It grows in a horizontal plane
The mesenchymal cells lying adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium:
σ� Differentiate into ameloblasts
σ� Differentiate into odontoblasts
σ� Are under the influence of stellate reticulum
σ� Become markedly folded
Advanced bell stage of tooth development refers to:
σ� Histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation
σ� Initiation and Proliferation
σ� Mesenchymal condensation
σ� Apposition of dental tissues
The epithelial component of the tooth germ is known as:
σ� Dental lamina
σ� Dental Papilla
σ� Enamel organ
σ� Dental follicle
All of the following is a part of the tooth germ except:
σ� Dental papilla
σ� Dental follicle
σ� Dental lamina
σ� Dental organ
In a developing tooth, if Hertwig's sheath and the epithelial diaphragm were failed to form, the resulting tooth would exhibit:
σ� No radicular dentin
σ� Malformed or fused roots
σ� Acellular, but no cellular, cementum
σ� Defective enamel in the cervical region
One of the following is a component of tooth germ:
σ� Lateral dental lamina
σ� Successional lamina
σ� Vestibular lamina
σ� Dental sac
All the statement about early dental development, except:
σ� Cap stage is accomplished by unequal growth in different parts
σ� In the cap stage the inner and outer enamel epithelial cells are completely alike
σ� The transition from cap stage to bell stage is particularly marked by the full differentiation of stellate reticulum
σ� The dental papilla and the dental sac develop in the cap stage
Concrescence is:
σ� An extra root or accessory roots in a formed tooth
σ� Distorted root or roots in a formed tooth
σ� A union of root structure of two or more teeth through cementum only
σ� A spherical projection on the cemental root surface
One of the following Which of induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts is:
σ� Stratum intermedium
σ� Reduced enamel epithelium
σ� Inner enamel epithelium
σ� Outer enamel epithelium
The enamel organ:
σ� Develops from cells in the dental follicle
σ� Is a completely connective tissue structure
σ� Is a completely epithelial structure
σ� Is highly vascular, as ameloblasts require an enriched environment
The Hertwig epithelial root sheath of disintegrates:
σ� After odontoblastic differentiation and before dentin matrix formation
σ� After odontoblastic differentiation and dentin matrix deposition
σ� Before odontoblastic differentiation
σ� After cementum formation
All of the following is a function of dental sac except:
σ� Nutrition of enamel organ
σ� Formation of cementum
σ� Formation of periodontal ligamen
σ� Formation of supporting alveolar bone
The stratum intermedium:
σ� Lies between outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum
σ� Is a transient structure
σ� Is rich in mucopolysaccharides
σ� Plays important role in enamel calcification
A layer of cells that seems to be essential to enamel formation but do actually secrete the enamel except:
σ� Outer enamel epithelium
σ� Stratum intermedium
σ� Reduced dental epithelium
σ� Vestibular lamina
The dental lamina initiating the permanent molars develops:
σ� As successional lamina
σ� As a distal extension of the dental lamina
σ� As lateral dental lamina
σ� As vestibular lamina
The embryo's stomodeum is lined by:
σ� Ectoderm
σ� Endoderm
σ� Mesoderm
σ� Ectomesenchyme
Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchym at:
σ� Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ
σ� Labial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ� Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ
σ� Distal to the developing primary tooth germ
Appositional stage is confined from:
σ� Cap stage
σ� Bud stage
σ� Bell stage
σ� Dental lamina
The following is component of the enamel organ except:
σ� Ameloblasts
σ� Odontoblasts
σ� Outer enamel epithelium
σ� Stratum intermedium
The following Which contain blood vessels is:
σ� Cartilage
σ� Enamel
σ� Dental lamina
σ� Dental sac
The tooth germ is composed of:
σ� Dental papilla, dental sac, enamel organ
σ� Dental follicle, dental lamina, vestibular lamina
σ� Dental papilla, dental lamina, dental organ
σ� Dental organ, dental follicle, dental lamina
If the process of morphogenesis is disturbed:
σ� Changes will occur in the shape of crown and root
σ� Enamel formation will be abnormal
σ� Dentin formation will be abnormal
σ� Absence of cementum
The dental lamina:
σ� Breaks at the cap stage
σ� Has no branching
σ� Has no remnants
σ� Develops from the oral epithelium
All of the following is part of the tooth germ except:
σ� Dental papilla
σ� Dental follicle
σ� Dental lamina
σ� Enamel organ
The dental sac plays an important role in the formation of all of the following except:
σ� Periodontal ligament
σ� Dentin of the root
σ� Alveolar bone proper
σ� Cementum
The origin of enamel is:
σ� Endoderm
σ� Mesoderm
σ� Ectoderm
σ� Ectomesenchyme
The dental sac gives rise to:
σ� Cementoblasts and periodontal ligament
σ� Periodontal ligament and dental pulp
σ� Dental pulp and attachment epithelium
σ� Odontoblasts and Cementoblasts
Fluorosis is caused by:
σ� Decrease in Fluoride
σ� Increase in Fluoride
σ� Normal levels of Fluoride
σ� Is Inherited
The number of baby teeth is:
σ� 32
σ� 22
σ� 20
σ� 23
The number of permanent teeth is:
σ� 20
σ� 30
σ� 36
σ� 32
The number of permanent teeth is:
σ� 20
σ� 30
σ� 36
σ� 32
One of the following causes the discolorations of teeth is:
σ� Penicillin
σ� Flagyl
σ� Tetracycline
σ� Gentamycin
One of the following is important for the development of teeth is:
σ� Vitamin B12
σ� Calcium
σ� Vitamin B6
σ� Iron
The bud stage of tooth development occurs at:
σ� The beginning of the tenth week
σ� The beginning of the ninth week
σ� The beginning of the eighth week
σ� The beginning of the seventh week
The cap stage occurs between the:
σ� Ninth and tenth week of prenatal development
σ� Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development
σ� Thirteenth and fourteenth week of prenatal development
σ� Sixteenth and seventeenth week of prenatal development
The bell stage occurs between the:
σ� Twenty and Twenty-first week of prenatal development
σ� Thirty and forty weeks of prenatal development
σ� Fifty and sixty weeks of prenatal development
σ� Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development
Passive eruption is:
σ� Growth in the length of the root
σ� Apical migration of the junctional epithelium
σ� Deposition of bone at the fundus
σ� The formation of cellular cementum
All of the following does occur during the eruptive phase, except:
σ� Dentin deposition
σ� Narrowing of apical foramen
σ� Increased thickness of cementum
σ� Enamel formation
During the pre-eruptive phase of tooth eruption:
σ� Cementoblasts begin to secrete cementoid
σ� The apical foramen is beginning to close
σ� The developed tooth at the bell stage lies within a crypt of bone
σ� The root is formed
One of the following occurs during the pre-eruptive phase of a tooth:
Differentiation of the stratum intermedium
Formation of the dental sac
σ� Formation of stellate reticulum
Maturation of enamel
Active eruption of the tooth:
σ� Begins as soon as the roots have begun to develop
σ� Begins when the apical cementum is deposited on the roots of the tooth
σ� Begins as the occlusal tip starts moving towards the occlusal plane
σ� Continues until exposure of the cementum has occurred
Actual eruptive movements of tooth occur mainly in a:
σ� Horizontal direction
σ� Complex pattern
σ� Axial direction
σ� Rotational direction
All of the following does occur in the active phase of tooth eruption, except:
σ� Organization of a periodontal ligament from the dental follicle
σ� Gradual separation of attachment epithelium from the enamel surface
σ� Root formation
σ� Occlusal wear
The most likely factor responsible for tooth eruption is:
σ� Vascular pressure
σ� The developing periodontal ligament
σ� Bone growth
σ� The growing root
All of the following statements about the eruption of a permanent tooth and the exfoliation of its predecessor are true, except:
σ� Prior to eruption, the crown permanent tooth is completely formed
σ� Resorption of deciduous roots is an intermittent process
σ� Earliest resorption of deciduous roots is on root surface of the permanent tooth
σ� Eruptive movements of the permanent tooth may not be solely responsible for deciduous root resorption
When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attachment epithelial cuff is composed of epithelium derived from:
σ� Dental lamina
σ� Epithelial rests of Malassez
σ� Reduced dental epithelium
σ� Epithelial root sheath of Hertwig's
In the post-eruptive phase, a tooth undergoes primarily:
σ� Rotational movement
σ� Movements in a distal direction
σ� Movements in an apical direction
σ� Movements in an axial and mesial direction
During tooth eruption, the permanent successors of the primary teeth move occlusal and
σ� Mesial
σ� Buccal
σ� Lingual
σ� Distal
During tooth eruption into the oral cavity, what happens to the epithelial covering of the enamel:
σ� It remains as the primary cuticle
σ� It units with the oral epithelium and then degenerates
σ� It is replaced by oral epithelium and then degenerates
σ� It units with the oral epithelium and becomes primary cuticle
Eruptive phase:
σ� Accompanied by bleeding of the gingival
σ� No discomfort or pain
σ� Eruptive teeth move at different speeds, at different times
σ� Has only axial occlusal movement
Histological changes occurring during the eruptive phase:
σ� Root formation only
σ� Formation of the attachment apparatus only
σ� Dento-gingival junction appearance only
σ� All are corrected
One of the following is true about ankylosis:
σ� Is a union of the tooth with the periodontal ligament
σ� Ankylosed teeth do not show Howship's lacunae on the root
σ� Is a bony union between the alveolar bone and the roots of teeth
σ� The active eruption of an ankylosed tooth continues
Shedding is predominantly the:
σ� Physiologic loss of impacted teeth
σ� Physiologic loss of non-vital teeth
σ� Physiologic loss of permanent teeth
σ� Physiologic loss of primary teeth
All the statement below is true about the classification of taste, except:
σ� The four familiar categories are sweet, salty, sour, and bitter
σ� There has recently been discovered an "umami" receptor on the tongue
σ� A component that can be reliably identified in isolation can be identified in multiple component mixtures
σ� People sometimes identify multiple component solutions as a single component
The little bumps can see on someone's tongue are:
σ� Taste buds
σ� Papillae
σ� Gustatory pimples
σ� Latin papilla
Taste buds contain:
σ� Olfactory receptors
σ� Papillae
σ� Microvilli
σ� All of are corrected
The map of taste buds for:
σ� Sweet are on the tip and sour is behind of the tongue
σ� Salt is on either side of the front of the tongue
σ� Bitter are on way in the back of the tongue;
σ� All of are corrected
The density of taste buds is highest:
σ� At infancy
σ� In the teen years
σ� Around age 40
σ� Around age 65
The taste sensations appear to be located from the parts of:
σ� The mouth's entire surface
σ� The mouth containing taste buds
σ� The mouth containing functioning taste buds
σ� The mouth containing functioning taste buds that connect to sensory nerves
The cranial nerve supplies to muscles of mastication is:
σ� V (trigeminal)
σ� X (vagus)
σ� VII (facial)
σ� III (oculomotor)
One of muscles of mastication arise from the zygomatic arch and inserts on ramus of the mandible is:
σ� Masseter
σ� Lateral pterygoid
σ� Medial pterygoid
σ� Temporalis
All of the muscles mastication is involved in closing the mandible except:
σ� Lateral pterygoid
σ� Masseter
σ� Masseter and temporalis
σ� Both the medial and lateral pterygoids
The medial pterygoid follows the same angle as masseter arising from the medial pterygoid plate, where does it attach on the mandible at:
σ� Ramus and angle
σ� Coronoid process
σ� Condyloid process
σ� Mental protuberance
Regarding deglutition:
σ� Contraction of cricopharyngeal
σ� Soft palate moves upward
σ� Co-ordinated reflex
σ� Inspiration cessation
Another term for the deglutition of food is:
σ� Digestion
σ� Ingestion
σ� Swallowing
σ� Peristalsis
Pharyngeal mucosa is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerves because it develops from the:
σ� First pharyngeal arch
σ� Second pharyngeal arch
σ� Third pharyngeal arch
σ� Fourth pharyngeal arch
The embryological origin of the hyoid bone is:
σ� The first pharyngeal arc
σ� The first and second pharyngeal arches
σ� The second pharyngeal arch
σ� The second and third pharyngeal arches
The muscles are derived from the first brachial arch:
σ� The muscles of mastication
σ� The muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric
σ� The muscles of mastication and anterior and posterior bellies of digastric
σ� The muscles of mastication, anterior and posterior bellies of digastric and geniohyoid
In patient with reduced salivary flow the carious incidence is:
σ� More than the patient with normal salivary flow
σ� Less than the patient with normal salivary flow
σ� Unaffected
σ� All of are corrected
Widely accepted theory of dental caries is:
σ� Proteolytic theory
σ� Proteolytic chelation theory
σ� Acidogenic theory
σ� Autoimmune theory
Streptococcus mutants is involved in dental caries initiation Other bacteria also involved is:
σ� S sarcinus
σ� S macae
σ� S sanguis
σ� S salivary
The dietary carbohydrate most likely involved in etiology of dental caries is:
σ� Glucose
σ� Sucrose
σ� Dextran
σ� Polysaccharide
Bacteria responsible for initiation of caries is:
σ� Actinomycosis
σ� Streptococcus mutants
σ� Lactobacillus
σ� Streptococcus viridian
The pH at which initiation of caries begins is:
σ� 43- 45
σ� 52- 55
σ� 49- 51
σ� 35- 45
Oral foci of Miller's are seen in:
σ� Dental caries
σ� Lichen planus
σ� Herpes simple
σ� Syphilis
The tooth in permanent dentition is the most susceptible to dental caries is:
σ� Maxillary first premolar
σ� Mandibular first molar
σ� Maxillary second molar
σ� Mandibular second molar
Turbid dentin in carious tooth is all except:
σ� Zone of bacterial invasion
σ� Zone which cannot be remineralizer
σ� Zone in which collagen is irreversibly denatured
σ� Zone that need not be removed before restoration
Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces acid and it:
σ� Forms a gelatinous matrix
σ� Metabolizes substrate from saliva
σ� Derives energy from enamel constituents
σ� Lives symbiotically with lactobacillus
Miller put forth the acidogenic theory of dental caries in the year:
σ� 1890
σ� 1920
σ� 1924
σ� 1980
For a bacterium to be seriously considered in the etiology of dental caries, it must:
σ� Exist regularly in the dental plaque
σ� Produce extracellular amylopectin
σ� Be lethal for gnotobiotic animals
σ� Produce intracellular dextran’s
Initiation of dental caries depends on:
σ� formation of large amount of acid
σ� Availability of carbohydrate food
σ� Viscosity of saliva
σ� Localization of acid over tooth surface
The caries, all are true except:
σ� Lactobacillus is the main causative organism in plaque
σ� Smooth surface caries occurs due to streptococcus mutans
σ� Pit and fissure caries can be prevented by using pit and fissure sealants
σ� Fluorides help in reducing caries incidence
The lateral spread of dental caries is facilitated mostly by the:
σ� Enamel spindles
σ� Dentinoenamel junction
σ� Enamel lamellae
σ� Striae of Retzius
The probable reasons for a high incidence of dental caries in the teenage population relates most directly to:
σ� Rapid growth
σ� Frequency of sucrose intake
σ� Negligence in visiting the dentist
σ� Carelessness in oral hygiene habits
Chemico-parasitic theory of dental caries is proposed by:
σ� GV Black
σ� Miller
σ� Gottlieb
σ� Schwartz
The following organisms is found in deep carious lesions rather than in incipient lesions is:
σ� Streptococci
σ� Lactobacilli
σ� Veillonella
σ� Bacteroides
The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a:
σ� Significant increase in number of oral bacteria
σ� Shift towards more acidogenic microflora
σ� Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria
σ� shift towards more aerobic microflora
Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to:
σ� Destructive potential of Streptococcus mutans
σ� Destructive potential of Lactobacillus acidophilus
σ� Lateral spread of caries along DEJ and weakening of the outer covering enamel
σ� Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process
Initiation of caries by Streptococcus mutans is by the production of the:
σ� Dextranase and soluble dextran
σ� Insoluble dextran and glycosyl transferase
σ� Soluble dextran and glycosyl transferase
σ� All of are corrected
Caries associated with pre-eruptive enamel hypoplasia:
σ� Secondary caries
σ� Chronic caries
σ� Occult caries
σ� Incipient caries
Pure mucous salivary gland is:
σ� Parotid gland
σ� Major sublingual glands
σ� Glossopalatine gland
σ� Submandibular gland
The secretions of salivary glands are:
σ� Exocrine and holocrine
σ� Exocrine and merocrine
σ� Exocrine and apocrine
σ� Endocrine and merocrine
Which minor salivary glands are purely serous:
σ� Lingual glands of Von Ebner
σ� Lingual glands of Blandin Nuhn
σ� Palatine gland
σ� Labial and buccal glands
All of the following is true of parotid glands, except:
σ� Stenson's duct opens in the cheek opposite maxillary second molar
σ� Predominantly serous gland
σ� Long, branching intercalated ducts are present
σ� Serous demilunes cap mucous secretory units
The salivary gland is:
σ� Developed from 6th to 12th week and the glandular tissue continues to enlarge until birth
σ� 5th to 10th week and the glandular tissue continues to enlarge until birth
σ� The average person produces approximately 05 L – 15 L per day
σ� All are corrected
Normal function of saliva:
σ� Antimicrobial, enables speech articulation, immunity mediator
σ� Cellular maintenance, enables swallowing, hydrating–moisturizing
σ� Cleansing, lubrication, digestion, enables tasting
σ� All are corrected
Minor salivary glands are found throughout the mouth:
σ� Tongue dorsum and ventral, Lips
σ� Alveolar mucosa of palate, cheeks
σ� Buccal mucosa, Floor of the mouth
σ� All are corrected
The three major salivary glands are:
σ� Minor salivary glands, Von Ebner's, thyroid
σ� Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular
σ� Thyroid, parotid, sublingual
σ� Submandibular, gingival cervicular fluid and parotid,
Function of gingival cervicular fluid is:
σ� Protective flow towards oral cavity washes out potentially harmful cells and molecules
σ� Antibacterial immunoglobulins, Rather response to inflamation
σ� Calcium assists pellicle and plaque fromation but may contribute to calculus formation
σ� All are corrected
Functions of the digestive system are:
σ� Prehension, ingestion, deglutition
σ� Absorption of nutrients, mastication
σ� Undigested food products
σ� All are corrected
Component of mastication are:
σ� Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate, pharynx
σ� Teeth, nasal cavity, lip, tongue, palate
σ� Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate
σ� All are corrected
Complete tongue activity occurs in:
σ� Sleeping, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking
σ� Jaw movements, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking
σ� Jaw movements, laughing, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking
σ� All are corrected
Chewing sequence could be divided into:
σ� Preparatory series
σ� Reduction series
σ� Pre-swallow series
σ� All are corrected
Deglutition is the complex process that:
σ� Moves bolus of food, water and saliva from mouth through pharynx into esophagus and then to stomach
σ� The muscles of mouth, pharynx, larynx and esophagus coordinate properly in a complex process; to move food and liquid into stomach
σ� The airway is protected by correct movement of larynx, so that food and liquid not enter the airway
σ� All are corrected
The 3 stages of Deglutition are:
σ� Oral phase, laryngeal phase, stomach phase
σ� Oral phase, pharyngeal phase, esophageal phase
σ� Oral phase, lung phase, pharyngeal phase
σ� All are corrected
First stage of deglutition is:
σ� Voluntary and initiate deglutition process
σ� A mass of chewed, moistened food, a bolus, is moved to the back of the oral cavity by the tongue
σ� The lip and buccal muscles help keep bolus from dispersing
σ� All are corrected
Second stage of deglutition is:
σ� Involuntary rapid and the entire process occurs in less than 2 seconds
σ� The bolus is propelled by pumping action of tongue base and constriction of pharyngeal muscles
σ� Start from the upper esophageal sphincter into the esophagus
σ� All are corrected
Deglutition problem can lead to:
σ� Coughing,
σ� Airway obstruction pneumonia
σ� Even death
σ� All are corrected
Taste Buds are located:
σ� Soft palate, inner surface of the cheeks
σ� Epiglottis of the larynx, pharynx,
σ� Most on the tongue
σ� All are corrected
The papillae that is projections on the tongue called:
σ� Filiform papillae
σ� Fungiform papillae
σ� Circumvallate papillae
σ� All are corrected
Each taste bud consists of:
σ� 50-80 epithelial cells
σ� 40 -100 epithelial cells
σ� 45-90 epithelial cells
σ� All are corrected
Taste Bud major types Cells:
σ� Supporting cells, receptor cells, epithelial cells
σ� Supporting cells, receptor cells, basal cells
σ� Supporting cells, basal cells, epithelial cells
σ� All are corrected
Four basic qualities:
σ� Sweet
σ� Sour
σ� Salty, bitter
σ� All are corrected
Dental caries can be classified with respect to the site of the lesion:
σ� Pit or fissure caries
σ� Smooth surface, root surface caries
σ� Recurrent caries
σ� All are corrected
The major component of dental plaque is:
σ� Materia alba, lactic acid
σ� Desquamated epithelial cells
σ� Microorganism
σ� Salivary contents
Third stage of deglutition is:
σ� The stage is involuntary, during 8-20 seconds
σ� Start from the upper esophageal sphincter
σ� The bolus passes into stomach at the lower esophageal sphincter
σ� All are corrected
Taste bud is:
σ� Receptor organs of taste, located primarily in the oral cavity
σ� Approximately, 10,000 of taste buds are present in young adults
σ� The number of taste buds begins declining rapidly by age 50
σ� . All are corrected
The primary cause of periodontal disease is:
σ� Food habits
σ� Life style
σ� Bacterial plaque
σ� Systemic disease
Senile carious lesions are most commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the teeth:
σ� Pits and fissures, proximal caries
σ� Occlusal, incisor, facial and lingual embrasures
σ� Inclined plane of cusps
σ� Root surfaces of teeth
Periodontium which includes?
σ� Gingival
σ� Periodontal ligament
σ� Alveolar bone
σ� Cementum
σ� All of above
How many types of intra oral tissue?
σ� 2
σ� 3
σ� 4
σ� 5
What is the outcome of repair?
σ� To restore functions
σ� To restore tissue continuity
σ� To restore functions and tissue continuity
σ� To restore functions and tissue continuity, but with distortion or normal architecture.
What is the outcome of regeneration?
σ� The outcome of regeneration is no different from repair
σ� The outcome of regeneration is different from repair
σ� It is the response of tissue destroyed by an insult to a complete restoration of tissue architecture and functions.
σ� None of above
He biggest different of outcome between repair and regeneration on tissue is tissue scaring.?
σ� True
σ� False
σ� Tissue function
σ� Distortion of connective tissue
Cells responsible for repair and regeneration consist of?
σ� Mesenchymal cells and Parenchymal cells of the injury organs
σ� Endothelial cells and Platelets
σ� Macrophages
σ� Platelets
σ� All of above
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: FGF, fibroblast growth factor.?
σ� Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ� Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ� Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ� Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ� Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: EGF, Epithermal growth factor?
σ� Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ� Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ� Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ� Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ� Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: PDGF, Platelet derived growth factor?
σ� Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ� Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ� Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ� Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ� Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: KGF, Keratinocyte growth factor?
σ� Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ� Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ� Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ� Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ� Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: VEGF, Vascular endothelial growth factor?
σ� Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.
σ� Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ� Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ� Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ� Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: TGF-b, Transforming growth factor b.?
σ� Promotion of wound healing.
σ� Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing
σ� Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product.
σ� Growth and new generation of keratinocyte
σ� Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells
There are two major factors influence repair and regeneration?
σ� Systemic and local factors
σ� Nutrition and infection
σ� Metabolic and would characteristic like size and location
σ� Hormonal and mobility
What are the 4 steps of responses of mucosa to damage?
σ� Hemostasis, Inflammatory response, Proliferation, and Wound contraction
σ� Inflammatory response, Hemostasis, Proliferation, and Wound contraction
σ� Proliferation, Inflammatory response, Hemostasis, and Wound contraction
σ� Wound contraction, Hemostasis, Inflammatory response, and Proliferation
The process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product such as a protein?
σ� Gene expression
σ� Transcription
σ� Transcription factor
σ� Transcription regulation
σ� Response element
The process of making messenger RNA (mRNA) from a DNA template by RNA polymerase?
σ� Gene expression
σ� Transcription
σ� Transcription factor
σ� Transcription regulation
σ� Response element
A protein that binds to DNA and regulates gene expression by promoting or suppressing transcription?
σ� Gene expression
σ� Transcription
σ� Transcription factor
σ� Transcription regulation
σ� Response element
Controlling the rate of gene transcription for example by helping or hindering RNA polymerase binding to DNA?
σ� Gene expression
σ� Transcription
σ� Transcription factor
σ� Transcription regulation
σ� Response element
Activation, or promotion – increase the rate of gene transcription?
σ� Upregulation
σ� Downregulation
σ� Coactivator
σ� Coapressor
Repression, or suppression – decrease the rate of gene transcription?
σ� Upregulation
σ� Downregulation
σ� Coactivator
σ� Corepressor
A protein that works with transcription factors to increase the rate of gene transcription?
σ� Upregulation
σ� Downregulation
σ� Coactivator
σ� Corepressor
A protein that works with transcription factors to decrease the rate of gene transcription?
σ� Upregulation
σ� Downregulation
σ� Coactivator
σ� Corepressor
A specific sequence of DNA that a transcription factor binds to?
σ� Gene expression
σ� Transcription
σ� Transcription factor
σ� Transcription regulation
σ� Response element
Protein synthesis consist of 2 steps. What are they, and where do they take place?
σ� Transcription occurs in nucleolus, and translation occurs in cytoplasm
σ� Transcription occurs in cytoplasm, and translation occurs in nucleolus
σ� Transcription and translation both occurs in nucleolus
σ� Transcription and translation both occurs in cytoplasm
How many protein structure were classified?
σ� 1.
σ� 2.
σ� 3.
σ� 4.
Transcription factors sometime is called ?
σ� Sequence-specific RNA-binding factors
σ� Sequence-specific DNA-binding factors
σ� Sequence-specific mRNA-binding factors
σ� Sequence-specific tRNA-binding factors
Transcription factors is a protein that control the rate of transcription of genetic information from?
σ� DNA to RNA
σ� RNA to DNA
σ� DNA to mRNA
σ� DNA to tRNA
What are the function of transcription factors?
σ� Regulate gene expression
σ� Coactivator
σ� Co-enhancer
σ� Regulate in between coactivator and co-enhancer
Event during or following protein translation ?
σ� Proteolysis and post-translatoinal modification
σ� Proteolysis and modification
σ� Proteolysis and protein folding
σ� Post-translational modification and protein folding
A growth factor is a naturally occurring substance capable of stimulating cellular growth, proliferation, healing, and cellular differentiation. Usually it is a protein or a steroid hormone.?
σ� True
σ� False
Growth factor is sometimes used interchangeably among scientists with the term?
σ� Protein
σ� Hormone
σ� Vitamin
σ� Cytokine
Growth factors are proteins that regulate many aspects of cellular function, including survival, proliferation, migration and differentiation.?
σ� True
σ� False
Growth factors and their receptors can be grouped into ‘families,’ based upon shared features of ?
σ� Amino acid sequence
σ� Structural of protein folding
σ� Anatomy of protein
σ� Protein sequence
Growth factors and their receptors can be grouped into ‘superfamilies,’ based upon shared features of ?
σ� Amino acid sequence
σ� Structural of protein folding
σ� Anatomy of protein
σ� Protein sequence
What do Growth Factors Do?
σ� Repair damaged cells
σ� Enhance cellular proliferation
σ� Maintain optimum function of the target organ
σ� Rejuvenate aging tissues
σ� All above
Cre-Lox recombination is a site-specific recombinase technology, used to carry out deletions, insertions, translocations and inversions at specific sites?
σ� In target cell
σ� In target animal
σ� In DNA
σ� In RNA
σ� Inside of cellular cytoplasm
Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) is a type of immunoprecipitation experimental technique used to investigate the interaction between?
σ� Proteins and DNA outside the cell
σ� Proteins and RNA
σ� DNA and RNA
σ� RNA and DNA
σ� Proteins and DNA in the cell
An undifferentiated cell of a multicellular organism which is capable of giving rise to indefinitely more cells of the same type, and from which certain other kinds of cell arise by differentiation.?
σ� iPSc: Induced pluri-potent stem cells
σ� MSCs: Mesenchymal stem cells
σ� ESCs: Embryonic stem cells
σ� Stem cells
Stem cell hierarchy from top to bottom?
σ� Totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, unipotent
σ� Totipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, unipotent
σ� Totipotent, pluripotent, unipotent, multipotent
σ� Unipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, totipotent
σ� Unipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, totipotent
Embryonic stem cells are derived from embryos at a developmental stage before the time that implantation would normally occur in?
σ� Oviduct
σ� Uterus
σ� Placenta
σ� Vagina
σ� In vitro fertilization
The first differentiation event in humans occurs at approximately ------ days of development, when an outer layer of cells committed to becoming part of the placenta (the trophectoderm) separates from the inner cell mass (ICM). ?
σ� 1-3 day
σ� 3-5 day
σ� 5-7 day
σ� 10-14 day
The ICM, inner cell mass, cells have the potential to generate any cell type of the body, after implantation, they are -------------- as they differentiate to other cell types with more limited developmental potential. ?
σ� Quickly depleted
σ� Change
σ� No change
σ� Quickly deleted
If the ICM, inner cell mass, is removed from its normal embryonic environment and cultured under appropriate conditions, the ICM-derived cells can ------------------------------------------- indefinitely and still maintain the developmental potential to form any cell type of the body?
σ� Continue to proliferate and replicate themselves
σ� Differentiate in to any cell types of the body
σ� Growth and produce more different kind of cell types in the body
σ� Still alive and growth well under appropriate conditions
Why embryonic stem cells were banned for basic research?
σ� High cost
σ� Risk of cancer
σ� Violation ethic issue
σ� All of above
What is Yamanaka’s factors
σ� Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, C-Myc
σ� Oct4, Sox4, Klf2, C-Myc
σ� Oct2, Sox2, Klf4, C-Myc
σ� Oct2, Sox4, Klf2, C-Myc
What are the gold standard transcription factors using for generating iPSc?
σ� Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, C-Myc
σ� Oct2, Sox4, Klf4, Lin28
σ� Oct4, Sox2, Nanog, Lin28
σ� Oct4, Sox4, Nanog, Lin28
What are the criteria for achieving to generate iPSc?
σ� A stable change in the nucleus of a mature cell
σ� Cell can divides through mitosis
σ� Cell be maintained and replicated
σ� An unstable change in the nucleus of a mature cells but can be maintained and replicated through cell division, mitosis.
σ� Cell able to maintain and replication their stable change in cellular nucleus when their undergo mitosis.
Why generation of iPSc is so attractive to scientist worldwide?
σ� No controversial in term of ethical issue, and ready for use
σ� Generation of patient-specific cell line and immune match
σ� No concern on cancer risk, and cheap
σ� Ease to perform with no risk of cancer and ethical issue
σ� Every patient could generation their own cell line without concern of ethical issue and immune rejection.
When the first mouse iPSc were generated and published?
σ� 2005
σ� 2006
σ� 2007
σ� 2008
When the first human iPSc were generated and published?
σ� 2005
σ� 2006
σ� 2007
σ� 2008
Why transcription factors is the most import key to generate iPSc, cell reprogramming?
σ� They can control cell division
σ� They can control gene expression
σ� They can regulate cell signalling
σ� They can regulate gene expression through cell signalling during cell division
Why transcription factor C-Myc is no longer use for generating iPSc?
σ� It is difficult to obtain from nature
σ� It is difficult to work with other transcription factors
σ� It is less effective
σ� It is not only less effective, but difficult to work with other transcription factors, and reported to generate cancer in some cases
σ� It is reported to generate cancer in some cases
Who are/ is the pioneer of generating iPSc?
σ� Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and his students
σ� Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and his wife
σ� Prof. Shinya Yamanaka
σ� Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and Sir John Gurdon
Work flow of generating iPSc?
σ� Isolate and culture host cell, using lentinovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
σ� Isolate and culture host cell, using retrovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
σ� Isolate and culture host cell, using adenovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
σ� Isolate and culture host cell, using transcription factors, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc.
Mesenchymal stem cells are multi-potent stem cells which is able to differentiate to adult cell like?
σ� Bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, and neurons
σ� Bone, liver, fat, skin, and muscle
σ� Bone, cartilage, and neurons
σ� Cartilage, fat, muscle
σ� Liver, skin, bone, and cartilage
Mesenchymal stem cells is derived from bone marrow. So they can differentiate into hematopoietic cell line.?
σ� True
σ� False
Mesenchymal stem cells can be extract from many types of tissue, but the most commence one is bone marrow.?
σ� True
σ� False
Mesenchymal stem cells can be extracted from marrow and non-marrow.?
σ� True
σ� False
Non-marrow origin mesenchymal stem cells EXCLUDE ?
σ� Placenta, and umbilical cord blood
σ� Adipose, and muscle
σ� Dental pulp
σ� Embryo
Morphology of mesenchymal stem cells ?
σ� Fibroblast-like
σ� Collagen-like
σ� Neuron-like
σ� Poly-conic-like
In order to identify multi-potency stem cells, ones has to undergo cellar differentiation EXCLUDE?
σ� Bone
σ� Cartilage
σ� Fat
σ� Skin
σ� Neuron
Mesenchymal stem cells have been confirmed able to differentiated into neuron cell with function?
σ� True
σ� False
What is the biggest conflict of using embryonic stem cells?
σ� Cell source
σ� Price and outcome
σ� Ethic
σ� Market
What is the biggest conflict of using induced pluri-potent stem cells?
σ� Immune rejection
σ� Reprogram efficiency
σ� Cancer cause
σ� Insertion of transcription factors
What is the biggest conflict of using mesenchymal stem cells?
σ� Homogenous nature
Heterogenous nature
σ� Cancer cause
σ� Ethic
What is the hierarchy of embryonic stem cells?
σ� Toti-potent
σ� Pluri-potent
σ� Multi-potent
σ� Uni-potent
What is the hierarchy of induced pluripotent stem cells?
σ� Toti-potent
σ� Pluri-potent
σ� Multi-potent
σ� Uni-potent
What is the hierarchy of mesenchymal stem cells?
σ� Toti-potent
σ� Pluri-potent
σ� Multi-potent
σ� Uni-potent
Embryonic stem cells were banned for basic research practice because it is an unethical practice. Moreover, it cannot create patient-match specific cell line.?
σ� True
σ� False
The biggest concern of using iPSc as a regenerative tool is the possible of cancer provoke due to infection of transcription factors.?
σ� True
σ� False
The disadvantage of mesenchymal stem cells is that this stem cells are heterogenous in nature which hard to purify.?
σ� True
σ� False
Embryonic stem cells are derived from embryos at a developmental stage before the time that implantation would normally occur in the uterus. Normally, it takes about 10 days.?
σ� True
σ� False
The inner cell mass cells have the potential to generate any cell type of the body, but after implantation, they are quickly depleted as they differentiate to other cell types with more limited developmental potential. ?
σ� True
σ� False
Because ES cells can proliferate without limit and can contribute to any cell type, human ES cells offer an unprecedented access to tissues from the human body. ?
σ� True
σ� False
ES will support clinical research on the differentiation and function of human tissues and provide material for testing that may improve the safety and efficacy of human drugs ?
σ� True
σ� False
Some important human diseases are caused by the death or dysfunction of one or a few cell types, e.g., insulin-producing cells in diabetes or dopaminergic neurons in Parkinson's disease. Therefore, understanding and using stem cells as tool to study this disease model provide a better understand this dysfunction of cell types.?
σ� True
σ� False
A growth factor is a naturally occurring substance capable of stimulating cellular growth, proliferation, healing, and cellular differentiation.?
σ� True
σ� False
Growth factors typically act as signalling molecules between cells. Examples are cytokines and hormones that bind to specific receptors on the cytoplasm of their target cells.?
σ� True
σ� False
Cytokines are a broad and loose category of long big proteins (~5–20 kDa) that are important in cell signalling.?
σ� True
σ� False
Growth factor is sometimes used interchangeably among scientists with the term cytokine.?
σ� True
σ� False
Growth factor is sometimes used interchangeably among scientists with the term transcription factors.?
σ� True
σ� False
Growth factors and their receptors can be grouped into ‘families,’ based upon shared features of size and location, and into ‘superfamilies,’ based upon shared their functions.?
σ� True
σ� False
In transcription an mRNA chain is generated, with both strands of the DNA double helix in the genome as a template.?
σ� True
σ� False
Transcription can be divided into 3 stages: initiation, elongation, and termination, each regulated by a large number of proteins such as transcription factors?
σ� True
σ� False
Transcription factor sometimes is called sequence-specific DNA-binding factor.?
σ� True
σ� False
Transcription factor is a protein that controls the rate of transcription of genetic information from messenger RNA to DNA, by binding to a specific ribosomes.?
σ� True
σ� False
IPSCs were reprogrammed to an embryonic stem cell-like state by introducing genes important for maintaining the essential properties of embryonic stem cells (ESCs). ?
σ� True
σ� False
Ethical issues associated with the production of ESCs do apply to iPSCs, which offer a controversial strategy to generate patient-specific stem cell lines.?
σ� True
σ� False
One strategy to accomplish this goal is nuclear reprogramming, a technique that involves experimentally inducing a stable change in the nucleus of a mature cell that can then be maintained and replicated as the cell divides through mitosis. ?
σ� True
σ� False
Four transcription factors (Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and c-Myc) sometimes is called Yamanaka’s factors.?
σ� True
σ� False
Yamanaka’s factors were chosen because they were known to be involved in the maintenance of pluripotency, which is the capability to generate all other cell types of the body
σ� True
σ� False
Retroviruses used to deliver the four transcription factors in the earliest studies is safe to generating iPSCs.?
σ� True
σ� False
All four factors are absolutely necessary. In particular, the gene c-Myc is known to promote tumor growth in some cases, which would not affect iPSC usefulness in transplantation therapies. ?
σ� True
σ� False
IPSc provided unlimited supplies of ________ cells could be used to generate transplants without the risk of immune rejection.?
σ� Autologous.
σ� Xenologous.
σ� Allologous.
Upon introduction of reprogramming factors, cells begin to form colonies that resemble pluripotent stem cells, which can be isolated based on their:?
σ� Morphology.
σ� Conditions that select for their growth.
σ� Through expression of surface markers.
σ� Reporter genes.
σ� All are corrects.
IPSc were generated by:?
σ� From adult cells.
σ� Introduced Yamanaka’s factors into adult cells.
σ� Growth factors.
σ� All of above.
Yamanaka’s factors were used to generating iPSc in 1st generation because:?
σ� They are ease to use.
σ� There is no better way.
σ� They were reported to able to express gene that like embryonic stem cells.
σ� All are corrects.
In the future, possible dentist can use dental pulp stem cells, 3rd mandibular molar, in cell bank due to their pluri-potent.?
σ� True
σ� False
In our blood, there is a small amount of stem cells which are ready to be differentiate to any cell type under the control of growth factors.?
σ� True
σ� False
Yamanaka’s factors were used to generating iPSc in 1st generation because:?
σ� They are ease to use.
σ� There is no better way.
σ� They were reported to able to express gene that like embryonic stem cells.
σ� All are corrects.
In the future, possible dentist can use dental pulp stem cells, 3rd mandibular molar, in cell bank due to their pluri-potent.?
σ� True
The main reason for formation of scale is due to detraction of connective tissue.?
σ� True
σ� False
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