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Aviation Academy Austria | C560 XLS | Course 51 | CBT by DD

2.1. A fully charged battery should supply power to the battery bus and the emergency buses for approximately:

A. 2 hours

B. 1 hour

C. 30 minutes

D. 10 minutes

2.2. If the red BATT O’TEMP annunciator light segment flashes, the battery switch should be initially placed to ____ to isolate the battery from the generators and obtain a voltage reading.

A. OFF

B. EMER

C. Either A or B

D. None of the above

2.3. Generators on-line, battery switch (BATT), with the voltmeter selector switch remaining in BATT, the voltmeter gauge will indicate:

A. Generator system voltage, 28.5 V, from the battery bus

B. Generator system voltage, 28.5 V, from the crossfeed bus

C. Battery voltage, 24-25 V, from the battery bus

D. Battery voltage, 24-25 V, from the crossfeed bus

2.4. Generators — on line, battery switch — OFF, volt selector — BATT, the voltmeter gauge will indicate:

A. 24–24V

B. 28.5 V

C. No voltage

D. None of the above

2.5. If the GEN OFF L annunciator segment illuminates:

A. The right generator ammeter gauge should indicate double the previous load.

B. The left generator amperage should drop to zero.

C. The voltmeter should register zero with the voltmeter selector remaining in the BATT position.

D. Both A and B.

2.6. If both GEN OFF L and R annunciator segments illuminate simultaneously:

A. The MASTER CAUTION RESET warning lights will illuminate steady.

B. The MASTER WARNING RESET warning lights will illuminate flashing.

C. Both A and B.

D. Only the GEN OFF L and R annunciator segments will flash.

2.7. If the AFT J-BOX-LMT annunciator segment illuminates, indicates:

A. An aft J-Box 60 amp feed bus current limiter is open.

B. An aft J-Box 225 amp feed bus current limiter is open.

C. The generators should be selected OFF one at a time to determine which limiter is open.

D. The aircraft should be landed as soon as possible.

2.8. If both generators have tripped off line and unable to reset, and the battery switch is placed in EMER, the following equipment is inoperative:

A. Standby HSI

B. Normal extension of the landing gear

C. Ignition

D. Speedbrakes

2.9. If both generators have tripped off line and unable to reset, and the battery switch is placed in EMER, the following equipment is inoperative:

A. Only the standby radio control head will be operational for air-to-ground communications.

B. AHRS 2 supplies heading information to the standby HSI.

C. AHRS 1 supplies heading information to the standby HSI.

D. The secondary flight display may be used for an ILS approach (APR switch depressed).

2.10. If the battery overtemps and cannot be isolated, battery isolation relay stuck closed:

A. Turn the battery switch OFF and land as soon as practical.

B. Activate the BATTERY DISCONNECT switch.

C. After performing choice B, if the BATT O’TEMP>160° annunciator segment begins to flash, land as soon as possible.

D. Both B and C.

2.11. Select the correct statement concerning the use of a ground power unit:

A. Never connect the power cord to or remove it from the aircraft with power applied.

B. The battery will not receive a charge if the BATTERY switch is ON.

C. The generator switches must be OFF for the engine start using the GPU.

D. The GPU ground unit must be regulated at 24 volts, and 800/1,000 amps.

2.12. The standby flight display emergency power system powers:

A. The pilot PFD with the battery switch set to EMER.

B. The standby HSI backlighting

C. The standby flight display

D. Both B and C

2.13. Selecting EMER with the battery switch:

A. Will allow the crossfeed bus to power all emergency systems.

B. Will render the voltmeter inoperative.

C. The battery will still receive a charge from the generators.

D. Allows only the emergency bus and battery bus items to be powered.

2.14. By activating the interior master switch:

A. The cabin light switches are disabeled.

B. Turns on all of the reading lights.

C. Removes all power from the cabin, aft of the cockpit.

D. Removes all interior power from the aircraft.

2.15. Which interior lights may be turned ON with the battery and generator switches OFF?

A. Cabin entry, tail cone, and baggage lighting.

B. Cockpit flood, cabin (indirect), tail cone, and battery compartment.

C. Cabin entry, tail cone, cockpit flood, and baggage lighting.

D. Cockpit flood, cabin flood, and baggage lighting.

2.16. An illuminated white AHRS AUX PWR 1/2 annunciator indicates:

A. The AHRS system is now powered through the avionics bus.

B. Indicates the AHRS is being powered by the AHRS auxiliary battery.

C. Indicates a condition that requires immediate attention.

D. Indicates a partial failure of the AHRS system.

2.17. If the battery voltage indicates 24 volts prior to engine start:

A. This is a low battery and must be charged to 28 volts.

B. The GPU must be used for starting.

C. 24 volts is the minimum voltage required.

D. Voltage is excessive and could damage the starter.

2.18. During a DC volts and amps test:

A. The operating generator should indicate 24 volts.

B. When turning the RIGHT generator off, the LEFT amp load should double.

C. The GEN OFF L/R should illuminate.

D. Is required to make sure the emergency power supply is supplying power to the aircraft.

2.19. Concerning starting limitations, which is the correct statement?

A. Three engine starts per hour is allowed.

B. A generator assisted start counts as one battery count.

C. If four or more battery starts are performed in one hour, the battery must be allowed to cool for 30 minutes.

D. There are no starter limitations when using a GPU.

3.1. Turning the PANEL LIGHT control master switch to ON:

A. Activates the control rheostats

B. Dims the annunciator panel lights

C. Illuminates the STARTER DISENGAGE button

D. All of the above

3.2. Emergency cabin lighting is powered from:

A. Main aircraft battery

B. Two emergency battery packs

C. Emergency DC power

D. Either A or B.

3.3. Emergency lighting is activated by:

A. Floodlight switch

B. Emergency light switch ON

C. Loss of main DC power or G force (switch ARM)

D. B and C.

3.4. Landing lights consist of:

A. Belly lights only

B. Belly lights and recognition light

C. Both wing tip lights on each wing tip.

D. Outboard wing tip lights

3.5. Which lights will remain working when the battery switch is placed to EMER (generators off-line)?

A. Floods and auxiliary panel lights

B. Flood and map lights

C. EL and auxiliary panel lights

D. Left, right, and center panel lights

3.6. Concerning the emergency light switch on the instrument panel:

A. It must be placed in the ARM position prior to takeoff

B. It must be placed in the ON position prior to takeoff

C. Yellow indicator light near the switch indicates maintenance must be performed on the emergency battery packs

D. Crossfed bus powers the system

3.7. While loading baggage after dark, you forget to turn off the baggage compartment lights. They will

A. Stay on after you close the door.

B. Extinguish after one hour

C. Extinguish when the main cabin door is locked

D. Extinguish when you close the baggage door.

5.1. In the event of a loss of main DC power while operating in crossfeed:

A. The crossfeed valve will fail closed.

B. Crossfeed will continue.

C. The LO FUEL PRESS L or R annunciator will illuminate.

D. The motive flow valve for the receiving side will fail “open” and X-feed will terminate.

5.2. During initial engine starting, the primary source of fuel pressure to the engine-driven pump is:

A. Motive flow fuel pressure.

B. Primary ejector pump pressure.

C. Respective side electric boost pump pressure.

D. Suction pressure from the engine driven pump.

5.3. The primary ejector fuel pump:

A. Provides motive flow fuel pressure.

B. Provides head pressure to the enginedriven fuel pump.

C. Provides high pressure, low volume fuel to the engine-driven fuel pump.

D. Is located in the surge tank.

5.4. During initial engine start, the electric boost pump is activated when the:

A. Start button is depressed.

B. Throttle is advanced from cutoff to idle.

C. Placing the boost pump switch to ON.

D. Fuel low pressure switch.

5.5. During over-the-wing fueling:

A. Fill the wing tanks until fuel fills the standpipe.

B. It is not necessary to ground the refueling apparatus.

C. Fill the wing tanks until fuel reaches the bottom of the standpipe.

D. None of the above.

5.6. Select the correct choice regarding Single Point Pressure Refueling:

A. Immediately after fuel flow has stabilized, perform a precheck test.

B. A fuel flow precheck test is not required if a partial load of fuel is desired.

C. Extreme care must be observed when attaching the fueling nozzle in order not to spill fuel.

D. The refueling/defueling compartment is located directly forward of the left wing.

5.7. Opening a defuel select lever:

A. Allows defueling the corresponding wing tank.

B. Prevents defueling the opposite wing tank.

C. Prevents refueling the corresponding wing tank.

D. Prevents defueling the corresponding wing tank.

5.8. With total loss of DC power, the motorized fuel crossfeed valve will:

A. Fail in the OPEN position.

B. Fail in the CLOSED position.

C. Fail in its present position.

D. Return to a RESET position.

5.9. With the BOOST PUMP switch in the NORMAL position, the boost pump:

A. Will automatically activate during crossfeed.

B. Will only activate during fuel crossfeed.

C. Will run continuously.

D. Only activates during engine start.

5.10. To crossfeed fuel on the ground:

A. A GPU is required for power, because the aircraft battery must be OFF.

B. The aircraft battery must be in the ON position.

C. Is impossible.

D. One engine must be operating.

6.1. The APU generator limits are:

A. 200 amps ground/300 amps flight

B. 230 amps ground/300 amps flight

C. 200 amps ground/230 amps flight

D. 230 amps ground/230 amps flight

6.2. The maximum altitude is:

A. 45,000 feet for APU operations

B. 30,000 feet for APU operations

C. 30,000 feet for APU starting

D. 25,000 feet for APU starting

6.3. Select the false statement:

A. The APU fire bottle will discharge automatically eight seconds after a fire is detected

B. The APU fire bottle will discharge at any time if selected by the pilot

C. The aircraft master warning annunciators will illuminate if the APU FIRE light illuminates

D. Low fire bottle pressure will illuminate the APU FAIL annunciator

6.4. Select the correct limitation:

A. APU start attempt is prohibited after a dual generator failure

B. Deployment of thrust reversers is prohibited with the APU operating

C. The APU is approved for unattended operation

D. The aircraft battery is limited to three APU starts per hour

6.5. Select the correct statement:

A. The APU bleed air valve will not close in response to an ACM overheat

B. APU fuel is normally taken from the left tank (crossfeed off)

C. APU fuel can be taken from the left tank (crossfeed open)

D. The only method of manual shutdown of the APU is the START/STOP switch on the APU control panel

7.1. The primary thrust indicator for PW545A/B engine is:

A. Fuel flow

B. N1

C. ITT

D. N2

7.2. If one igniter plug should fail during engine start:

A. The engine will start normally.

B. It will result in a “hot” start.

C. Combustion will not occur.

D. Engine start will be slower than normal.

7.3. Ignition during normal engine start is activated by:

A. Turning the IGNITION switches to ON at 8 to 10% N2.

B. Moving the throttle to IDLE at 8 to 10% N2.

C. Depressing the start button.

D. Ignition is not required during normal engine start.

7.4. Of the following statements concerning the PW545A/B engine, the correct one is:

A. Fuel from the engine fuel system is used to cool engine oil through a fueloil heat exchanger.

B. The engine accessory gearbox has its own oil lubricating system (independent of the engine itself).

C. Fuel is warmed through the fuel-oil heat exchanger.

D. Both A and C.

7.5. If the N1 turbine shaft shifts to the rear:

A. The engine automatically shuts down.

B. The vibration detector causes illumination of the master warning lights.

C. The synchronizer shuts the engine down.

D. Nothing occurs.

7.6. The following engine instruments are available in the event of a loss of normal DC electrical power (Emer Power Only):

A. N2 rpm

B. N1 rpm, N2 rpm, and ITT

C. N1 rpm (tape and digital display)

D. N1 rpm (tape only)

7.7. The ENGINE SYNC switch:

A. Should be in FAN for takeoffs and landings.

B. Should be in TURB at altitude.

C. Can be placed in FAN or TURB after takeoff and should be left there for the remainder of the flight.

D. Should be OFF for large power changes.

7.8. Regarding the electronic engine control (EEC) system:

A. Place the EEC switch OFF prior to engine start.

B. Low-speed ground idle is controlled by the EECs.

C. Engine sync is operational with or without the EEC operational.

D. If an EEC trips off line in flight, EEC MANUAL L–R annunciator illuminates, the throttle detents will remain operational.

7.9. During engine starts:

A. N1 should register by 25% N2.

B. ITT should not exceed 720°C (545A), 740% 545B).

C. Generator assist starts should not be initiated until the operating engine rpm is stabilized at 60% N2.

D. Both A and B.

7.10. Starting engines with a ground power unit (GPU):

A. Stabilize voltage output 28 VDC.

B. Amperage output should be adjusted not to exceed 1,200 amps.

C. The minimum amperage for the GPU output is 500 amps.

D. After engine starts are complete, place generators online prior to disconnecting the EPU.

7.11. During right engine start, the right start switch light remains illuminated. How can you correct this?

A. Shutdown that engine.

B. Turn the right generator switch to RESET, then ON.

C. Engage the battery disconnect switch.

D. Push the starter disconnect button.

7.12. When you move the throttles back out of the cruise detent to avoid an overspeed during cruise flight, are the EECs still controlling the engines?

A. Yes, with all functions.

B. Yes, but the engines will not synchronize.

C. No, you must manually set the engine.

D. No, the EEC switch must be placed in MANUAL.

7.13. Select the correct statement regarding the engine oil system:

A. The oil level should be checked between five and ten minutes after shutdown.

B. If the oil level indicates below the range marks on the saddle tank, oil must always be added.

C. Add no more than two quarts in a five hour period.

D. Any turbine oil may be used, with no restrictions.

7.14. When using the operating engine for a cross-generator start:

A. The operating engine must be at 52% N1.

B. The operating engine must have the GENERATOR switch OFF.

C. The operating engine must be stable, at idle.

D. The EECs must be in MANUAL position.

7.15. If the BLEED OFF VALVE, or BOV, sticks open, what indication will you get?

A. Slow throttle response.

B. About 30° ITT increase for that engine.

C. EECs will revert to MANUAL.

D. You will notice no indication.

7.16. When the ENGINE VIB-R illuminates during flight, you must:

A. Immediately shut down the right engine.

B. Monitor for the vibration, verify it exists.

C. Declare an emergency.

D. Turn the right engine boost pump ON.

7.17. Illumination of the OIL FILTER BYPASS annunciator indicates:

A. Nothing, it is an advisory indication.

B. The oil filter on that engine has bypassed.

C. You must land as soon as possible.

D. You must crossfeed fuel from the opposite tank to cure the problem.

7.18. If the LO OIL PRESS-R annunciator illuminates during flight, your initial action is to:

A. Shut down the right engine.

B. Verify with the oil pressure gauge.

C. Bring the RIGHT engine to IDLE.

D. Consider the possibility of an engine fire.

8.1. An ENG FIRE switchlight illuminates:

A. When it is depressed.

B. The MASTER WARNING lights also illuminate.

C. When temperature in the nacelle area reaches approximately 500°F (XL), 450°F (XLS).

D. Electrical resistance of the sensing loop increases due to increasing nacelle temperature.

8.2. Depressing an illuminated ENG FIRE switchlight:

A. Fires bottle No. 1 into the nacelle.

B. Fires bottle No. 2 into the nacelle.

C. Fires both bottles into the nacelle.

D. Illuminates both BOTTLE ARMED switchlights, arming the bottles.

8.3. After a bottle has been discharged into a nacelle:

A. No cleaning of the engine and nacelle area is required.

B. A thorough cleaning of the engine and nacelle area is required.

C. An inspection of the engine and nacelle area is required to determine if cleaning is necessary.

D. None of the above.

8.4. When the fire-extinguishing system is armed for operation (fire switch light depressed):

A. The LO FUEL PRESS L or R light illuminates.

B. The LO HYD FLOW L or R light illuminates.

C. The GEN OFF L or R light illuminates.

D. All the above.

8.5. If the contents of an armed bottle has been discharged into a nacelle and the ENG FIRE switch light remains on:

A. The fire has been extinguished.

B. The other bottle can be discharged into the same nacelle by depressing the other BOTTLE ARMED switchlight.

C. The fire still exists, but no further action can be taken.

D. The same BOTTLE ARMED switchlight can be depressed again, firing a second charge of agent from the same bottle.

8.6. Depressing the ENG FIRE switchlight a second time:

A. Opens the fuel shutoff valve.

B. Opens the hydraulic shutoff valve.

C. Resets the generator field relay.

D. A and B above.

8.7. If the FIRE DETECTION SYS L/R annunciator illuminates:

A. The fire detection system is working properly.

B. The fire detection system is inoperative.

C. Has no effect on the fire extinguishing system.

D. Both B and C.

8.8. If, during flight, EMER on the battery switch is selected:

A. The fire detection and extinguishing system will be inoperative.

B. There will be no effect on the fire system.

C. The fire detection portion of the system is still operable.

D. The fire extinguishing portion of the system is still operable.

8.9. Illumination of the FIRE EXT BTL LOW LIGHT indicates:

A. Both fire bottles are low on pressure.

B. That the fire warning system is inoperative.

C. That the fire detection system will not operate.

D. Either or both fire bottles have low pressure.

8.10. During rotary test of the fire warning system:

A. Both fire warning lights will illuminate, the MASTER WARNING will flash.

B. The FIRE DET SYS (amber) annunciator will illuminate.

C. The Master Caution light will illuminate.

D. Both engine fire lights will illuminate.

9.1. Twenty-three psi regulated service air provides:

A. Cabin temperature control.

B. Wing anti-ice capability.

C. Pressurization vacuum.

D. High pressure air to the ACM.

9.2. Illumination of the DOOR SEAL annunciator is initiated by:

A. Cabin door seal valve.

B. <5 psi pressure switch.

C. Door locking microswitch.

D. Door handle microswitch.

9.3. The purpose of service air through vacuum ejector(s) is:

A. Provide cabin door seal vacuum.

B. Provide vacuum for the pressurization system and the deice boots.

C. Provide vacuum for the door acoustic seal.

D. ACM water separator vacuum.

9.4. Twenty-three psi service air provides operating pressure for:

A. Throttle detents and deicer boots.

B. Standby gyro pressure.

C. Emergency release of the gear uplocks.

D. For the wheel brakes accumulator.

9.5. If the DOOR SEAL annunciator illuminates in flight:

A. Descend to FL410 or lower.

B. Have the co-pilot check the door.

C. Begin an emergency descent, and declare the emergency.

D. Don oxygen masks.

10.1. Ice detection is accomplished by:

A. Visual indications.

B. ICE DETECT annunciator light.

C. Wing ice-detector sensor.

D. Both B and C.

10.2. P3 air leaving the precooler too hot, illuminates the:

A. ACM O’HEAT annunciator.

B. BLD AIR O’HEAT annunciator.

C. AIR DUCT O’HEAT annunciator.

D. PRECLR O’HEAT annunciator.

10.3. Ground cooling of precooled bleed air is accomplished by:

A. Tailcone ambient air.

B. The air cycle machine.

C. Ambient or engine bypass air.

D. Engine P2.8 air.

10.4. In-flight cooling of bleed air through the precooler is accomplished by:

A. Service air.

B. Engine bypass air.

C P2.8 bleed air.

D. Ram airflow.

10.5. Bleed air flowing into the wing leading edge panels that is too cold is annunciated by:

A. WING TOO CLD L/R annunciator.

B. BLD AIR O’HEAT annunciator.

C. No annunciation.

D. WING ANTI-ICE L/R annunciator.

10.6. The W/S O’HEAT L/R annunciator illuminates:

A. The system must be shutdown immediately.

B. The W/S FAULT L/R annunciator will also illuminate.

C. Advisory, no action required.

D. Indicates that the respective forward side window is overheated.

10.7. If the TL DEICE FAIL L/R annunciator illuminates:

A. In MANUAL mode, considered normal.

B. In MANUAL mode, the timer is inoperative.

C. In AUTO mode, the inflation pressure may be too low.

D. In MANUAL mode, boot did not deflate.

10.8. The purpose of the Rosemont Probe, or TAS probe, is to provide:

A. Ram air temperature to the engine electronic controls.

B. Warn of ice formation.

C. Provide temperature data to both MADCs.

D. Provide emergency airspeed indications.

10.9. With loss of main DC power, with the battery in the EMER position, the tail deice boots will:

A. Work only in the MANUAL position.

B. Work normally.

C. Be inoperative.

D. Operate very slowly.

10.10. The purpose of the WING CROSS FLOW switch is to:

A. Allow hot bleed air to transfer between the wings.

B. Equalize bleed-air pressure between the engines.

C. Keep fuel levels equal in each wing.

D. Fail open during DC power failure.

10.11. Select the correct statement concerning windshield rain removal:

A. The windshield wipers are effective only during heavy rain.

B. The windshield is coated with a rain repellant.

C. The WINDSHIELD AIR switch blows air across the windshield.

D. Both B and C.

10.12. In flight, if the WING ANTI ICE L/R annunciator illuminates:

A. The wing is too cold; add power for more bleed-air heat.

B. Indicates failure of the wing overheat sensor.

C. The wing is too hot, reduce power to help cooling.

D. Land as soon as possible.

11.1. In the event an ACM O’HEAT annunciator illuminates, what if any other indications will occur while airborne?

A. AIR DUCT O’HEAT illuminates.

B. EMER PRESS illuminates.

C. BLD AIR O’HEAT illuminates.

D. Engine fire light illuminates.

11.2. The 35°F low temp sensor associated with the water separator remains operational:

A. If EMER is selected with the PRESS SOURCE selector.

B. If MANUAL mode temperature control is selected.

C. If main DC power is lost.

D. If the ACM O’HEAT annunciator illuminates.

11.3. If the AIR DUCT O’HEAT CKPT annunciator illuminates:

A. The ECU normal flow control valves will close.

B. Air in the overhead air duct is too warm.

C. Air flow into the cockpit under floor duct is too hot.

D. Air from the ECU is too warm.

11.4. Air entering the cabin through the overhead ducts is:

A. Temperature regulated.

B. Recirculated cabin air.

C. Fresh ram air.

D. Unregulated ACM cold air.

11.5. Temperature control valves (TCV) provide:

A. Mixing of ram air with cold air from the ECU.

B. Increased or decreased air flow into the cabin and cockpit air distribution ducts.

C. Automatic temperature control only.

D. Hot bleed air from the precoolers to mix with cold air from the ECU.

11.6. The temperature control panel provides:

A. Separate automatic and manual temperature control for the cabin and the cockpit.

B. Automatic temperature control only.

C. Manual temperature control only.

D. Provides temperature indications in a digital format in degrees Celsius.

11.7. With loss of DC power, and the battery in the EMER position:

A. Temperature is controlled by selecting MANUAL on the ECU.

B. Temperature must be controlled by selecting emergency pressurization.

C. The ECU is powered from the EMER, or HOT battery bus.

D. The ability to control cabin temperature is lost.

11.8. If emergency pressurization has been selected, or activated, cabin temperature is controlled by:

A. Regulating power on the RIGHT engine.

B. Turning the WEMAC boost fans to HIGH.

C. Temperature is still controlled by the ECU.

D. Regulating power on the LEFT engine.

12.1. Cabin pressure is normally maintained by:

A. Controlling the amount of air entering the cabin.

B. Controlling the amount of air escaping the cabin.

C. Modulating the temperature of the cabin temperature controller.

D. Manipulating the throttles.

12.2. The normal outflow valve control modes are:

A. Ground taxi mode.

B. Takeoff mode.

C. Flight, descent and landing modes.

D. All of the above.

12.3. As both throttles are advanced above 85% N2 on the ground, the outflow valves slowly close, driving cabin pressure down below field altitude. This is the:

A. Flight mode.

B. Ground mode.

C. Takeoff mode.

D. None of the above.

12.4. What OPENS the two outflow valves to climb the cabin?

A. AUTO uses the digital cabin pressure controller to meter ejector vacuum to the climb solenoid of the primary valve.

B. The cabin dump switch sends DC power to the climb solenoid and the cabin rises to 14,500 feet (cabin altitude limit valve).

C. Placing the PRESS SYSTEM SELECT switch to MANUAL and using the MANUAL TOGGLE (cherry picker) to manually meter ambient low pressure air to both outflow valves.

D. All of the above.

12.5. What CLOSES the two outflow valves to dive the cabin?

A. AUTO uses the digital cabin pressure controller to meter 6.0 psi service air pressure or cabin air pressure to the dive solenoid.

B. In the MANUAL switch position, using the cherry picker to manually meter cabin pressurized air to the secondary valve only.

C. Both A and B.

D. None of the above.

12.6. If control vacuum becomes excessive in flight, cabin altitude:

A. Explosively decompresses to cruise altitude.

B. Will remain at present altitude.

C. Rises to the maximum altitude limit valves setting of 14,500 feet, and cabin pressure enters the outflow valves reducing vacuum effect and cabin stops climbing at approximately14,500 feet.

D. Decreases to a value as determined by the max differential pressure relief valve setting.

12.7. The source of bleed air for cabin pressurization when the EMERG PRESS light is illuminated in flight is:

A. Vapor cycle air.

B. The left engine.

C. Either or both engines.

D. Ram air flow.

12.8. The digital pressurization controller modes are:

A. Isobaric mode.

B. Auto mode.

C. Manual mode.

D. A and B above.

12.9. If the #1 MADC fails in flight:

A. The controller amber light illuminates and switches to FL isobaric mode.

B. It remains in the CA AUTO mode.

C. Only manual control remains.

D. It automatically switches to the EXER mode.

12.10. During preflight, the controller is normally set to:

A. Destination field elevation.

B. Cruise plus 1,000 feet in the FL mode.

C. Field pressure altitude plus 500 feet.

D. 300 feet to 500 fpm on the cabin rate of climb control.

12.11. If normal DC power is lost to the controller while pressurized, the cabin altitude is:

A. Uncontrollable

B. Controlled by the EMER DUMP toggle lever.

C. Controlled by shutting off the bleed air.

D. Controlled by the manual toggle lever (cherry picker).

12.12. Which statement is correct concerning the cabin altitude differential gauge?

A. This gauge measures inside air pressure.

B. This gauge requires DC power for operation.

C. This is a manual reading type gauge and only senses differential pressure.

D. Requires data from the pressurization controller.

13.1. The system control valve is:

A. Spring-loaded closed.

B. Spring-loaded open.

C. Energized closed.

D. B and C.

13.2. Depressing an ENG FIRE switch light:

A. Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the pump.

B. Trips the generator field relay.

C. Arms the fire extinguishing system.

D. All of the above.

13.3. Closing a hydraulic firewall shutoff valve is indicated by:

A. A warning horn.

B. Illumination of the applicable segments of the F/W SHUTOFF annunciator and LO HYD FLOW annunciator.

C. Illumination of the HYD PRESS annunciator.

D. None of the above.

13.4. If DC power is lost to the hydraulic system, the control valve:

A. Fails to the closed position.

B. Is not affected.

C. Fails to the open position.

D. None of the above.

13.5. The hydraulic system provides pressure to operate the:

A. Landing gear and speedbrakes only.

B. Antiskid brakes, landing gear, and flaps.

C. Speedbrakes, landing gear, thrust reversers, horizontal stabilizer, and flaps.

D. Speedbrakes, landing gear, and wheel brakes.

13.6. The reservoir quantity indicator is located:

A. In the right forward baggage compartment.

B. On the copilot instrument panel.

C. On the right engine near the oil filter.

D. In the tail cone area.

13.7. Low reservoir fluid level is indicated by illumination of the:

A. LO HYD LEVEL annunciator.

B. HYD PRESS annunciator.

C. L/R LO HYD LEVEL annunciator.

D. L/R LO HYD FLOW annunciator.

13.8. Hydraulic system operation is indicated by illumination of the:

A. LO HYD LEVEL annunciator.

B. HYD PRESS annunciator.

C. L/R LO HYD LEVEL annunciator.

D. L/R LO HYD FLOW annunciator.

13.9. The correct statement concerning the hydraulic system is:

A. The HYD PRESS annunciator illuminates anytime an engine-driven pump is operating.

B. The HYD PRESS annunciator illuminating while the gear is extending may indicate a failed hydraulic pump.

C. The LO HYD FLOW L/R annunciator illuminates whenever reservoir fluid level low.

D. A L or R LO HYD FLOW annunciator illuminating may indicate a failed hydraulic pump.

13.10. The thrust reversers:

A. May be deployed only when the throttles are in IDLE.

B. Must have both EMER STOW switches in EMER for takeoffs to guard against inadvertent deployment during that critical phase of flight.

C. May be left in idle reverse until the airplane is brought to a full stop.

D. Both A and C.

13.11. When normal deployment of the thrust reversers is obtained, the following annunciator lights should be illuminated:

A. ARM, UNLOCK, DEPLOY.

B. DOOR NOT LOCKED, ARM, UNLOCK, DEPLOY.

C. HYD PRESS, ARM, UNLOCK, DEPLOY.

D. DOOR NOT LOCKED, HYD PRESS, DEPLOY.

13.12. The incorrect statement regarding the use of thrust reversers is:

A. They may be used in flight to slow the airplane.

B. They should not be used on touchand-go landings.

C. The reversers must be in idle reverse by 60 KIAS.

D. Either squat switch on the ground will allow both reversers to deploy.

13.13. The master warning lights:

A. Have nothing to do with the reverser system.

B. Will illuminate if an ARM light illuminates in flight.

C. Will illuminate if the HYD PRESS light remains illuminated after the DEPLOY light is illuminated on the ground.

D. Will not illuminate if an UNLOCK light illuminates in flight.

13.14. The HYD PRESS annunciator is normal anytime a hydraulic system is in operation. If this light begins to flash, it indicates:

A. The hydraulic system has been pressurized for more than 40 seconds.

B. The hydraulic pumps are overheating.

C. The hydraulic system has failed.

D. The landing gear must be lowered by the emergency system.

13.15. If the HYD PRESS annunciator remains on after system use, and you can get it to extinguish:

A. The system may not run for more than 15 minutes.

B. An altitude limit of 31,000 feet, and airspeed not over 200 knots, are imposed.

C. No limits are indicated.

D. An altitude limit of 10,000 feet, and airspeed not over 150 knots, are imposed.

14.1. On the ground, the LDG GEAR handle is prevented from movement to the UP position by:

A. Mechanical detents.

B. A spring-loaded locking solenoid.

C. Hydraulic pressure.

D. A manually applied handle locking device.

14.2. The landing gear uplock mechanisms are:

A. Mechanically held engaged.

B. Hydraulically disengaged normally; or pneumatically released in an emergency.

C. Electrically engaged and disengaged.

D. A and B.

14.3. Landing gear down locks are disengaged:

A. When hydraulic pressure is applied to the retract side of the gear actuators.

B. By action of the gear squat switches.

C. By removing the external down lock pins.

D. By mechanical linkage as the gear begins to retract.

14.4. Each main gear wheel incorporates a fusible plug that:

A. Blows out if the tire is over-serviced with air.

B. Melts, deflating the tire if an overheated brake creates excessive tire pressure.

C. Is thrown out by centrifugal force if maximum wheel speed is exceeded.

D. None of the above.

14.5. At retraction, if the nose gear does not lock in the UP position, the gear panel light indication will be:

A. Red light on, green LH and RH lights on.

B. Red light out, green LH and RH lights on.

C. Red light on, all three green lights out.

D. All four lights out.

14.6. The gear warning horn sounds when one or more gear are not down and locked and:

A. Flaps are extended beyond the 15° position—both throttles retarded below 70% N2.

B. Airspeed is less than 150 KIAS.

C. Either throttle is retarded below 70 % N2 rpm.

D. Both throttles are retarded below 70% N2 rpm and airspeed is >150 KIAS.

14.7. When the LDG GEAR handle is positioned either UP or DOWN:

A. The hydraulic system control valve is energized open.

B. The hydraulic system control valve is energized closed.

C. The hydraulic system control valve is not affected.

D. The HYD PRESS annunciator light remains out.

14.8. Emergency extension of the landing gear is accomplished by actuation of:

A. A switch for uplock release and application of air pressure.

B. One manual control to release the uplocks and apply air pressure for extension.

C. Two manual controls - one to mechanically release the uplocks, the other to apply air pressure for gear extension and down-locking.

D. None of the above.

14.9. Nose wheel steering is operative:

A. Only on the ground.

B. With the gear extended or retracted.

C. With the gear extended, in flight or on the ground.

D. None of the above.

14.10. The power brake valve is actuated:

A. Mechanically by brake pedal pressure—XLS

B. Mechanically by the emergency airbrake control lever.

C. Hydraulically by brake pedal pressure—XL

D. Automatically at touchdown.

14.11. Do not depress the brake pedals while simultaneously using the emergency brake system because:

A. Manual braking will override the air brakes.

B. The shuttle valve may allow air pressure into the brake reservoir, rupturing it or causing uncommanded differential braking.

C. The shuttle valve will move to the neutral position and no braking action will occur.

D. The brakes will be spongy.

14.12. The DC motor-driven hydraulic pump in the brake system operates:

A. During the entire time the LDG GEAR handle is in the DOWN position.

B. As needed with the LDG GEAR handle DOWN in order to maintain system pressure.

C. Only when the LO BRK PRESS annunciator illuminates.

D. Even when the LDG GEAR handle is UP to keep air out of the system as the aircraft climbs to altitude.

14.13. After landing gear extension, the ANTISKID INOP annunciator illuminates. The correct action is to:

A. Use the emergency braking system.

B. Use the power brakes carefully, and increase the landing distance.

C. Do not use thrust reverse.

D. Turn the ANTI-SKID switch OFF, then ON (annunciator stays ON).

14.14. During preflight, you detect a fault indication on the antiskid BITE fault indicator in the nose. You should:

A. Contact maintenance prior to flight.

B. Pull the SKID CONTROL CB on the RH CB panel.

C. Consider the antiskid system inoperable and increase the takeoff field length.

D. Reset the indication on the BITE fault indicator, note the indication, and continue the preflight.

14.15. During preflight, you notice the nitrogen precharge on the emergency nitrogen bottle is low. Your action is:

A. Have maintenance charge the system..

B. Check the Minimum Equipment List for restrictions.

C. Consider that the emergency braking system may operate more slowly than expected.

D. Nothing, as the system will pump up during engine start.

14.16. Illumination of the LO BRK PRESS annunciator indicates:

A. Power brakes will still operate.

B. The normal braking system may not work as well as normal, and the antiskid is still operational.

C. Power brakes are inoperative, use the thrust reverser to stop.

D. Use the emergency braking system and increase landing distance.

14.17. During operational use with the XLS brake system, you will notice:

A. No differerence from other aircraft.

B. Brake pressure is felt, even though the LO BRK PRESS annunciator is illuminated.

C. More braking “feel” transmitted from the brakes to the brake pedals.

D. A pulsing effect through the brake pedals because of the new brake cable assembly.

14.18. During preflight, to get an accurate reading on the brake reservoir and precharge indication, you must:

A. Turn the aircraft battery ON.

B. Using the brake pressure bleed valve, bleed the pressure to the precharge level.

C. Pull the POWER BRAKE CB.

D. If the LO BRK PRESS annunciator is not illuminated, no other action is required.

15.1. The Ailerons are operated by:

A. Hydraulic pressure.

B. Mechanical inputs from the control wheels.

C. A fly-by-wire system.

D. An active control system that totally eliminates adverse yaw.

15.2. The aileron trim tab is operated by:

A. An electrically operated trim tab motor.

B. A hydraulically operated trim tab motor.

C. A mechanical trim knob on the center pedestal.

D. Changing the angle of the aileron fence.

15.3. Regarding the rudder:

A. The pilot and copilot rudder pedals are interconnected.

B. The trim tab actuator is powered only electrically.

C. The servo is connected to the air data computer to restrict rudder pedal deflection at high airspeeds.

D. It is independent of the nosewheel steering on the ground.

15.4. Moving the flap selector lever to any position:

A. Energizes the hydraulic system control valve closed.

B. Energizes the flap solenoid valve to the selected position.

C. A and B.

D. Has no effect on the stabilizer trim.

15.5. The elevator:

A. Trim tab is controlled only electrically.

B. Runaway trim condition can be alleviated by momentarily depressing the red AP/TRIM DISC switch.

C. Electric pitch trim has both high speed and low speed positions.

D. Trim tab is located on the right elevator only.

15.6. If hydraulic power is lost:

A. The flaps will be inoperative.

B. The flaps will operate with the backup electrical system, but will extend and retract at a reduced rate.

C. There is no effect on wing flap operation.

D. A split flap condition could result if the flaps are lowered.

15.7. The wing flaps:

A. If the wing flaps are positioned UP prior to takeoff, no visual or oral warning is present.

B. Depend on both actuators to function to prevent a split flap condition.

C. Can be lowered manually if electrical power is lost, but only if all hydraulic fluid has not been lost.

D. Indirectly controls the position of the horizontal stabilizer position.

15.8. Regarding the gust lock:

A. The engines may be started with it engaged.

B. The aircraft should not be towed with it engaged.

C. It must be engaged for towing.

D. If the aircraft is towed, nosewheel steering may be damaged. It is still permissible to fly the aircraft if the gear is left down.

15.9. If hydraulic failure occurs with the flaps extended, the flaps:

A. May blow upward immediately, depending on airload if the flap handle is moved.

B. Cannot be fully retracted.

C. Can be retracted up electrically

D. Flaps will remain in present position regardless if the flap handle is moved.

15.10. Extended speedbrakes are maintained in position by:

A. Continuous system hydraulic pressure.

B. Trapped fluid in the lines from the solenoid control valve.

C. Internal locks in the actuators.

D. External locks on the actuators.

15.11. The amber HYD PRESS light on the annunciator panel will illuminate during speedbrake operation:

A. When the speedbrakes are fully extended.

B. While the speedbrakes are extending and retracting.

C. Both A and B.

D. Neither A nor B.

15.12. A true statement concerning the speedbrakes is:

A. The white SPEED BRAKE EXTEND light will illuminate whenever both sets of speedbrakes are fully extended.

B. If DC electrical failure occurs while the speedbrakes are extended, they will remain extended since the hydraulic pressure is trapped on the extend side of the actuators.

C. If hydraulic pressure loss should occur while the speedbrakes are extended (Hydraulic system control valve fails open), the speedbrakes will automatically blow to trail.

D. The speedbrakes can only be retracted by placing the speedbrake switch to RETRACT.

15.13. If the STAB MIS COMP annunciator illuminates in flight with the flaps up:

A. Reduce airspeed to 200 KIAS maximum and initiate a no flap landing.

B. Reduce airspeed to 200 KIAS maximum and prepare for a normal landing.

C. Reduce airspeed to 200 KIAS maximum and prepare for a 15° flap landing.

D. Slow to 150 KIAS maximum and land as soon as practical.

15.14. The rudder bias system:

A. Will be inoperative with the thrust reversers deployed.

B. Will be inoperative with either emergency stow switch in EMER STOW.

C. Utilizes main system hydraulics.

D. Both A and B above.

15.15. If the STBY P/S HTR FAIL annunciator illuminates in icing conditions:

A. The stick shaker will not operate correctly.

B. The standby HSI will not be useable.

C. Normal airspeed indications may be unreliable.

D. Speed sensor protection for the horizontal stabilizer may not be available.

16.1. The preview button on the PFD display controller is used:

A. To display the short range NAV source in gray.

B. To change to the previous FMS page.

C. To preview weather data returns.

D. To preview the drop-down menus.

16.2. The function of the comparison monitor is:

A. To test the wraparound function of the PFD.

B. To alert the crew to problems between the two FMS units.

C. To alert the crew to discrepancies between displayed data in the PFDs I.e. airspeed, altitude, attitude, etc.

D. All of the above.

16.3. Resolution advisory (RA) commands are:

A. Presented in the MFD

B. Presented as vertical speed commands in the PFDs

C. Presented as vertical speed commands in a TCAS indicator

D. Presented as pitch commands in the PFDs

16.4. The flight director can be selected off by:

A. Deselecting all of the modes on the flight director mode selector.

B. Pressing STBY on the mode selector.

C. Selecting STBY from the PFD drop down menu.

D. It is not possible to select the flight director to STBY.

16.5. An amber DN or UP indicator on the autopilot control panel indicates:

A. The autopilot is trimming the ailerons

B. A sustained trim input is being applied to the elevator servo.

C. The autopilot should not be engaged.

D. Both B and C

16.6. Select the true statement

A. The aircraft may be dispatched with an inoperative standby flight display.

B. The aircraft may be dispatched with certain static wicks missing.

C. The aircraft may be dispatched with the RH PFD inoperative.

D. The aircraft may be dispatched with an IC-2 HOT annunciator illuminated.

16.7. Select the true statement for an autopilot coupled back course approach.

A. The back course must be set in the CDI and the BC mode of the flight director must be selected.

B. The front course must be set in the CDI and the BC mode of the flight director must be selected.

C. The back course must be set in the CDI and the APR mode of the flight director must be selected.

D. The front course must be set in the CDI and the APR mode of the flight director must be selected.

16.8. How can the left (pilot) PFD be displayed on the MFD in the event of a blank display?

A. Turn the MFD dim knob to OFF.

B. Turn the right (copilot) PFD dim knob to OFF.

C. Turn the left (pilot) dim knob to OFF.

D. Pull the PFD 1 circuit breaker.

16.9. The standby HSI receives heading input from the ____ and nav input from the ____.

A. No. 2 AHRS,No. 1 NAV

B. No. 1 AHRS, No. 2 NAV

C. No. 2 AHRS, No. 2 NAV

D. No. 1 AHRS, No. 1 NAV

16.10. The pitch wheel on the autopilot controller is used to:

A. Change the pitch attitude during basic autopilot operation.

B. Change the commanded vertical speed while in VS mode.

C. Change the commanded airspeed or mach while in FLC mode.

D. All of the above.

17.1. The cockpit oxygen pressure gauge reads:

A. Oxygen pressure at the crew masks.

B. Bottle pressure, electrically.

C. Bottle pressure, mechanically.

D. Requires DC power

17.2. Passenger masks are dropped as follows:

A. Automatically with the PASS OXY selector in AUTO and cabin altitude exceeds 14,500 feet.

B. If cabin altitude exceeds 13,500 feet, regardless of PASS OXY selector.

C. PASS OXY selector ON regardless of altitude.

D. A and C.

17.3. If DC power fails, placing the PASS OXY selector in:

A. ON deploys the passenger masks, regardless of DC power on or off.

B. ON deploys the passenger masks only if 14,500 feet cabin altitude is exceeded.

C. OFF does not restrict oxygen to the crew; only if the cabin altitude is above 14,500 feet.

D. None of the above.

17.4. The purpose of the altitude pressure switch is to:

A. Bypass oxygen flows directly to the passengers regardless of the PASS OXY selector position.

B. Open a solenoid at 14,500 cabin altitude, allowing oxygen flow to the passenger oxygen distribution system.

C. Close a solenoid valve at 14,500 feet cabin altitude, stopping oxygen flow to the passengers.

D. Open a solenoid if the PASS OXY selector is AUTO and the cabin exceeds 10,000 feet.

17.5. If normal DC power is lost with the PASS OXY selector in AUTO:

A. The passenger masks will deploy immediately, regardless of the cabin altitude.

B. The passenger masks cannot be dropped manually.

C. The oxygen pressure gauge on the copilot’s panel will be inoperative.

D. Automatic dropping of the passenger masks will not occur.

Max. Ramp Weight:

18,700lbs

20,400lbs

20,200lbs

15,100lbs

Max. Takeoff Weight:

20,200lbs

15,100lbs

18,700lbs

15,800lbs

Max. Landing Weight:

20,400lbs

15,100lbs

18,700lbs

20,200lbs

Max. Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW):

20,400lbs

20,300lbs

18,700lbs

15,100lbs

Minimum Flight Weight (Gust Loading):

13,400lbs

12,400lbs

14,400lbs

11,900lbs

Max. Fuel Imbalance (Normal):

200lbs

300lbs

400lbs

500lbs

Max. Fuel Imbalance (Emergency):

800lbs

300lbs

400lbs

500lbs

Tailcone Baggage Compartment:

700lbs

300lbs

900lbs

500lbs

MMO (above 26,515ft)

0.70 Mach (Indicated)

0.65 Mach (Indicated)

0.55 Mach (Indicated)

0.75 Mach (Indicated)

VMO (below 8,000ft)

270 KIAS

260 KIAS

305 KIAS

280 KIAS

VMO (8,000 to 26,515ft)

305 KIAS

260 KIAS

305 KIAS

240 KIAS

Autopilot Operation

260 KIAS

305 KIAS

240 KIAS

305 KIAS or 0.75 Mach Indicated

VFE (flaps 7° or 15°)

180 KIAS

190 KIAS

200 KIAS

220 KIAS

VFE (flaps 35°, fully extended)

180 KIAS

190 KIAS

175 KIAS

220 KIAS

VLE

175 KIAS

220 KIAS

250 KIAS

190 KIAS

VLO

(retracting) 200 KIAS; (extending) 250 KIAS

190 KIAS

175 KIAS

220 KIAS

Turbulent Air Penetration

160 KIAS

180 KIAS

175 KIAS

220 KIAS

Max. Tire Ground Speed

150 KIAS

190 KIAS

165 KIAS

160 KIAS

Min. Speed in Icing

170 KIAS

180 KIAS

160 KIAS

190 KIAS

VMCG

90 KIAS

85 KIAS

81 KIAS

95 KIAS

VMCA

95 KIAS

90 KIAS

85 KIAS

81 KIAS

Max. Tailwind Component:

5kts

20kts

10kts

30kts

Crosswind Component:

No Limit (demo @ 24kts)

24 kts

30 kts

20 kts

Max. Operating Altitude#

41,000 ft

45,000 ft

38,000 ft

46,000 ft

Max. Takeoff and Landing

11,000 ft

12,400 ft

14,000 ft

10,000 ft

Max. Temp, Takeoff & Landing

ISA +29°C

ISA +28°C

ISA +39°C

ISA +38°C

Min. Temp, Takeoff & Landing

-44°C

-52°C

-54°C

-56°C

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