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A digital illustration of an air traffic control tower with planes in the sky, busy controllers, and radar screens, conveying a sense of precision and professionalism in aviation management.

Air Traffic Control Mastery Quiz

Test your knowledge and expertise in Air Traffic Control with our comprehensive quiz! Covering 188 questions designed to challenge your understanding of air traffic services, procedures, and regulations.

This quiz includes:

Multiple choice questions
Diverse topics covering key air traffic concepts
A chance to improve your skills and knowledge in aviation

188 Questions47 MinutesCreated by ControllingSky124

98. When may ATC abbreviate an aircraft call sign?

Only after the aircraft has correctly used the abbreviated call sign

Only if no confusion is likely to exist

Only after satisfactory communication has been established and provided that no confusion is likely to arise

2. List the objectives of air traffic services.

a. Prevent collisions between aircraft b. Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area c. Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of traffic d. Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight e. Notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required

a. Prevent collisions between aircraft b. Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area c. Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight d. Notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required

107. Choose the correct phraseology:

AZA4512, Radar, at pilot’s discretion, descend to FL220

AZA4512, Radar, descend to FL220 when you are ready

AZA4512, Radar, when ready descend to FL220

115. Separation shall be obtained by at least one of the following:

vertical, horizontal, visual

vertical, radar, composite

vertical, horizontal, composite

132. The following aircraft are flying on the same track inbound to significant point GARBO: AFR7109: A332, FL310, 469kt, reports 39nm GNSS from GARBO, requests FL330 SAS6772: B736, FL330, 446kt, reports 52nm DME from GARBO When, at what earliest, may AFR7109 be cleared to climb?

immediately

when reporting 32nm GNSS from GARBO

never, aircraft are using different distance measuring systems

141. When an aircraft is flying IFR flight at a level appropriate to tracks eastbound, correct flight level will be:

095;

105;

150;

140;

154. Vectoring is:

the provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific tracks, based on the use of ATS surveillance equipment;

the provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of ATS surveillance equipment;

the provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of information from the CPDLC;

the provision of altitude guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of ATS surveillance equipment;

161. Position Symbol is:

the blip or response on a situation display, of the position of an aircraft, aerodrome vehicle or other object, obtained after the automatic processing of positional data derived from any surveillance source;

the visual indication in symbolic form, on a situation display, of the position of an aircraft, aerodrome vehicle or other object, obtained after the automatic processing of positional data derived from any surveillance source;

blip or response on the situational display used for the identification of the aircraft;

visual indication in symbolic form in the radar label of the track and the speed of the aircraft;

172. The date on the AIP page means:

date of publication

date of expiry

effective date

180. A briefing:

issues NOTAMs

provides information relevant to aviation safety, regularity and efficiency for air traffic operational personnel including flight crews and the services responsible for pre-flight information

provides only flight maps essential for safety, regularity and efficiency for air traffic operational personnel including flight crews and the services responsible for pre-flight information

185. TWR communication frequency is published in the AIP part:

GEN

ENR

96. Instruct CTN4355 to change its call sign to CTN435Z.

CTN4355, Radar, change your call sign to CTN435Z

CTN4355, Radar, change your call sign to CTN4355Z

CTN4355, Radar, your new call sign will be CTN435Z

79. Indicated Air Speed is:

the speed that has been given by an air traffic controller and put in FMS;

speed resulted from what the pilot recalculates from the true air speed;

what the pilot reads directly from airspeed indicator;

what the pilot recalculates from the equivalent air speed in approach phase.

67. Take-off clearance:

shall include the runway designator;

shall include the runway designator if practical;

shall exclude the runway designator;

depends on the traffic situation during issuance of departure clearance.

60. Movement of pedestrians or vehicles on the manoeuvring area:

shall be authorized by the aerodrome control tower;

shall be authorized by the aerodrome authorities;

is not limited for qualified personnel and vehicles paying special attention to taxiing aircraft;

is enabled by their movement licence;

30. When is an aircraft considered to be in the distress phase?

an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety,

an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft

16. List 3 types of non-weather related information that shall, if applicable, be passed to aircraft

a. Volcanic activity b. Radioactive material and toxic chemical clouds c. SIGMET

a. Volcanic activity b. Release of radioactive material or toxic chemicals c. Heavy or medium unmanned free balloons

a. Volcanic activity b. Prohibited areas c. Heavy or medium unmanned free balloons

7. List all classes of airspace in which air traffic control service is applicable.

A, B, C, D, E, G

A, B, C, D, E

A, B, C, E

27. When is an aircraft considered to be in the alert phase?

information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, except when evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants

information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely

the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety

49. Aerodrome controllers shall maintain a continuous watch on all flight operations on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome and on all vehicles and personnel on the manoeuvring area:

to ensure a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic.

to ensure a safe, secured and expeditious flow of air traffic;

to ensure a controlled, orderly and regular flow of air traffic;

to ensure a flow of air traffic without delay and expeditious flow of air traffic;

57. When a taxi clearance contains a taxi limit beyond some runway:

it shall contain an explicit clearance to cross or to hold short of that runway;

pilot will normally cross that runway without explicit clearance;

controller will remind pilot to report vacating the runway;

pilot will enter and cross the runway and report entering the runway;

66. When an ATC clearance is required:

it shall be issued together with take-off clearance;

it shall be issued prior to take-off clearance.

it shall be issued immediately after departure;

it shall be issued on apron only;

44. Aerodrome traffic circuit is:

The specified tracks to be flown by aircraft operating on an aerodrome;

The specified path to be followed by the aircraft taxiing for the take-off;

The procedure of an aircraft waiting for clearance to land and is instructed to circle above specified point.

The specified path to be flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome;

76. ATC shall not be required to apply wake turbulence separation:

between an arriving IFR flight executing a visual approach when it has reported the preceding aircraft in sight, and has been instructed to follow and maintain own separation behind that aircraft;

between two arriving IFR flights;

between an LIGHT IFR flight following MEDIUM IFR flight;

between an arriving ATR 42 following B757 on final;

106. Choose the correct phraseology:

ADR3557, Radar, climb to FL250, to reach FL250 by ROMIS

ADR3557, Radar, before passing ROMIS climb to FL250

ADR3557, Radar, climb to FL250 before ROMIS

128. The following aircraft are flying the same direction on the same route: D-GHBZ: AT72, FL190, 241kt, passed KOPIT at 2125 I-JTWQ: C421, FL170, 217kt, passed KOPIT at 2132 When passing KOPIT, I-JTWQ requests FL190. At what earliest time may the flight be cleared to climb?

Immediately

before 2137

After 2137

143. Transition altitude is:

the altitude at or below which the vertical position is expressed in terms of altitudes. It is established by the air traffic control unit;

the altitude at or below which the vertical position is expressed in terms of altitudes. It is established by the appropriate ATS authority;

the altitude at or below which the vertical position is expressed in flight levels. The transition altitude is established by the appropriate ATS authority;

the minimum flight level at or below which the vertical position is expressed in terms of altitudes. The transition altitude is established by the appropriate ATS authority;

156. Reasons for vectoring are:

navigational assistance; separation; sequence and delay;

navigational assistance; separation; procedural separation and delay;

navigational assistance; separation; sequence and speed control;

navigational assistance; adjusting the rate of climb/descend; sequence and delay;

178. The NOTAM Qualifiers (Item Q) are intended for:

the rapid distribution of a NOTAM

the automatic processing of a NOTAM

better description of the content of a NOTAM

188. SNOWTAM is:

Provision, as appropriate, of current METAR, SPECI, TAF and SIGMET by means of continuous and repetitive voice broadcasts.

A special series NOTAM notifying the presence or removal of hazardous conditions due to snow, ice, slush or standing water associated with snow, slush and ice on the movement area, by means of a specific format.

An office designated by a State for the exchange of NOTAM internationally.

151. The identification of the aircraft by the use of SSR identification methods is possible by:

The recognition of an assigned non discrete code, the setting of which has been verified, in a radar label;

The recognition of an assigned discrete code, the setting of which has been verified, in a radar label;

The recognition of an assigned special code, set in a radar label;

The recognition of position of the aircraft.

126. IBE721 is flying on a track of 063º and BER9930 is flying on a track of 197º. For the purpose of separation, these tracks are:

Crossing

Reciprocal

Same

105. State the correct way to transmit the following VHF channels:

a. 121.785 with 8.33 kHz spacing: 121.785 b. 122.050 with 8.33 kHz spacing: 122.05

a. 119.700 with 8.33 kHz spacing: 119.7 b. 120.050 with 25 kHz spacing: 120.050

a. 118.075 with 25 kHz spacing: 118.07 b. 124.050 with 8.33 kHz spacing: 124.050

75. ATC shall not be required to apply wake turbulence separation:

for any arriving flight landing behind a HEAVY or MEDIUM aircraft;

for arriving VFR flights landing behind a HEAVY or MEDIUM aircraft.

for arriving LIGHT flights landing behind a HEAVY or MEDIUM aircraft;

for arriving MEDIUM flights landing behind a HEAVY aircraft;

53. Clearance to land for the aircraft in the traffic circuit is issued:

In the base leg and cross wind leg as practicable, or on final approach;

In the base leg as practicable, or on final approach;

At the entrance in to CTR or on final approach;

In the base leg and downwind for IFR and on final for VFR flights;

34. To assist in the provision of alerting and search and rescue services, aircraft shall report to air traffic services that the flight is progressing according to plan. What phraseology shall be used by the flight for this report and during what time period shall it be made?

Operations normal, made during the period 20 to 40 minutes after the time of last contact.

Operations normal, made during the period 15 to 40 minutes after the time of last contact.

Operations normal, made during the period 20 to 30 minutes after the time of last contact.

18. What action should you take if an aircraft acknowledges receiving an ATIS message that is no longer current

Inform the aircraft without delay of the correct QNH setting

Inform the aircraft without delay of the information that needs updating. You may inform the aircraft to monitor the ATIS frequency to receive updated information.

Inform the aircraft of the runway in use and the current MET information

1. List 3 methods used by ATC to provide separation.

a. Procedural-position information received from pilots b. Preventing collisions between aircraft c. Visual-position information based on Tower observation

a. Procedural-position information received from pilots b. Surveillance-position information using PSR, SSR, ADS-B c. Visual-position information based on Tower observation

a. Procedural-position information received from pilots b. Surveillance-position information using PSR, SSR, ADS-B c. Flight information service to all aircraft in your area of responsibility

25. When is an aircraft considered to be in the alert phase?

the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety

information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely

an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft

34. State the responsibility of ATS if no report has been received from a flight within a reasonable period of time after a scheduled or expected reporting time.

Within 30 minutes ATS shall try to obtain a report to see if the provisions of the Uncertainty Phase apply.

Within 10 minutes ATS shall try to obtain a report to see if the provisions of the Uncertainty Phase apply.

Within 60 minutes ATS shall try to obtain a report to see if the provisions of the Uncertainty Phase apply.

45. Runway-holding position is:

A designated position intended to protect a runway or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorized by the tower controller;

A designated position intended to protect a runway or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which aircraft after landing shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorized by the tower controller;

A designated position intended for the holding procedure of an arriving aircraft in order to separate holding traffic with a landing and departing traffic;

Prescribed position for the holding of an approaching aircraft as a part of any segment of aerodrome circuit.

54. The term runway-in-use indicates the runway:

that, at a particular time, is considered by the aerodrome tower to be more convenient for heavy traffic departures;

that, at a particular time, is considered by the aerodrome tower to be the most suitable for use by the types of aircraft expected to land or take-off at the aerodrome;

that runway strip that is most suitable for aircraft landing and taking-off and has two available directions marked by runway designating markings;

that is chosen by the commercial operators on that aerodrome and planed in the filled flight plan;

61. Apart from authorisation for movement, an additional specific authorization (clearance/instruction) must be given to a vehicle to:

cross the apron or enter the apron or change its operation;

cross a runway or enter a runway or change its operation;

move on any surface as a part of the movement area;

enter an taxiway and cross an taxiway;

71. Vertical sink of a wake vortices is in:

rate of about 1000ft to 1850ft per minute;

rate of about 500ft to 850ft per minute;

rate of about 5000ft to 6500ft per minute;

rate of about 50ft to 100ft per minute;

90. Horizontal speed control in holding pattern for the aircraft waiting for EAT:

Application of horizontal speed control depends on altitude;

Will be applied in for the sequence;

Will not be applied;

Depends on operational requirements and kind of instrument approach;

108. Choose the correct phraseology:

LBY619, Radar, wind at FL320, 65kt from 231º

LBY619, Radar, wind at FL320, 231º/65kt

LBY619, Radar, wind 231º/65kt at FL320

88. When an aircraft is descending with the constant IAS:

TAS decreases;

TAS is constant;

TAS increases;

depends on altitude.

116. Where the type of separation used to separate two aircraft cannot be maintained, ATC shall:

establish another type of separation before the next significant point

advise the aircraft to request another clearance

establish another type of separation before the current separation is infringed

137. Flight Level is:

A level of variable atmospheric pressure which is related to standard pressure 1013.2 hpa and is separated from other levels by specific pressure intervals;

A level of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to standard pressure 1013.2 hpa and is separated from other levels by specific pressure intervals;

A surface of constant altitude which is related to standard pressure 1013.2 hpa and is separated from other levels by specific pressure intervals;

A level of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to standard pressure 1015.2 hpa and is separated from other levels by specific pressure intervals;

155. Flight path monitoring is:

the use of ATS voice communication equipment for the purpose of providing aircraft with information and advice relative to significant deviations from nominal flight path, including deviations from the terms of their air traffic control clearance;

the use of ATS surveillance equipment for the purpose of providing aircraft with headings and tracks relative to significant deviations from nominal flight path, including vectoring

the use of ATS surveillance equipment for the purpose of providing aircraft with information and advice relative to significant deviations from nominal flight path, including deviations from the terms of their air traffic control clearance;

89. In regard to flight levels the use of Mach number or IAS for the purpose of horizontal speed control is as follows:

at FL 250, speed adjustments should be expressed in multiples of 0.01 Mach at levels below FL 250, in multiples of 10 kt of TAS;

at FL 250 and above, speed adjustments should be expressed in multiples of 0.01 Mach at levels below FL 250, in multiples of 10 kt of IAS;

at FL 280, speed adjustments should be expressed in multiples of 0.01 Mach at levels below FL 250, in multiples of 10 kt of IAS;

at FL 250, speed adjustments should be expressed in multiples of 0.1 Mach at levels below FL 250, in multiples of 10 kt of GS;

3. State the purpose of air traffic control service.

a. Preventing collisions: between aircraft b. Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

a. Preventing collisions: 1) between aircraft, and 2) on the manoeuvring area between aircraft and obstructions b. Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

preventing collisions: a. Between aircraft b. On the manoeuvring area between aircraft and obstructions

5. List all classifications of airspace, including the type of flight permitted in each.

A – IFR B – IFR and VFR C – IFR and VFR D – IFR and VFR E – IFR and VFR F – IFR and VFR G – VFR

A – IFR B – IFR C – IFR and VFR D – IFR and VFR E – IFR and VFR F – IFR and VFR G – IFR and VFR

A – IFR B – IFR and VFR C – IFR and VFR D – IFR and VFR E – IFR and VFR F – IFR and VFR G – IFR and VFR

4. List the divisions that comprise air traffic services.

a. Air traffic control service • area control service • approach control service • aerodrome control service b. Flight information service

a. Air traffic control service • area control service • approach control service • aerodrome control service b. Alerting service

a. Air traffic control service • area control service • approach control service • aerodrome control service b. Flight information service c. Alerting service

6. What separation and service must be provided to aircraft in Class D airspace?

a. IFR/IFR - separation b. IFR – traffic information about VFR, traffic avoidance advice on request c. VFR/VFR - no separation d. VFR - traffic information about IFR and VFR, traffic avoidance advice on request

a. IFR – IFR separation b. IFR – VFR flight information about VFR, traffic avoidance advice on request

a. IFR – IFR separation b. VFR – VFR flight information about VFR, traffic avoidance advice on request

8. What separation must be provided to aircraft in Class C airspace?

IFR from IFR IFR from VFR VFR from VFR

IFR from IFR VFR from VFR

IFR from IFR IFR from VFR

9. A significant point is a specified geographical location used in defining an ATS route or the flight path of an aircraft. List the 3 categories of significant points.

a. Ground based NAVAID b. ATS route c. Waypoint

a. Ground based NAVAID b. Intersection c. SID

a. Ground based NAVAID b. Intersection c. Waypoint

10. Describe a SID

A designated IFR route linking an ATS route with an instrument approach procedure

A designated IFR route linking the aerodrome with a specified significant point on an ATS route

A designated IFR route linking the aerodrome with an adjacent aerodrome

11. State the type of flight permitted, separation provided and radio communication requirements in Class B airspace.

a. Type of flight IFR and VFR b. Separation to all aircraft c. No continuous two-way communication for VFR

a. Type of flight IFR and VFR b. Separation to all aircraft c. Continuous two-way communication

a. Type of flight IFR and VFR b. Separation between IFR and IFR only c. Continuous two-way communication

12. What letter shall prefix the route designator to indicate it is in upper airspace?

L (Lima)

A (Alfa)

U (Uniform)

13. List the forms in which flight information is generally provided to flights.

a. pre-flight information b. Operational information in flight information c. ATIS information

a. Traffic information b. Operational information c. pre-flight information d. Meteo information

a. pre-flight information b. Operational in-flight information c. Collision hazard information

14. To whom shall Flight Information Service be provided?

To all flights which are likely to be affected by the information and which are: a. Provided surveillance service; or b. Otherwise known to the relevant air traffic services units

To all flights which are likely to be affected by the information and which are: a. Provided with ATC service; or b. Otherwise known to the relevant air traffic services units

To all flights which are likely to be affected by the information and which are: a. Flying in Class A and B airspace; or b. Otherwise known to the relevant air traffic services units

15. List 4 types of weather related information that shall, if applicable, be passed to aircraft.

a. SIGMET b. AIRMET c. FIS d. SNOWTAM

a. SIGMET b. AIRMET c. SPECI d. TAF

a. SIGMET b. AIRMET c. STAR d. SNOWTAM

17. Where does the responsibility for provision of FIS to a flight normally pass from one ATC unit to the ATC unit in the adjacent FIR?

2 minutes before crossing the common FIR boundary

20 NM before crossing the common FIR boundary

At the time of crossing the common FIR boundary

19. Air traffic advisory service is a service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical. To whom is it provided?

To aircraft operating on IFR flight plans and all VFR flights

To aircraft operating on IFR flight plans.

To aircraft operating without IFR flight plans.

20. What words are used by ATC to be clear to pilots that air traffic advisory service does not deliver “clearances”, but only “advisory information” when a course of action is proposed to an aircraft?

recommend or advise

advise or suggest

instruct or suggest

21. To whom shall Alerting Service be provided?

a. In so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services b. To all aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

a. For all aircraft provided with air traffic control service b. In so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services

a. For all aircraft provided with air traffic control service b. In so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services c. To any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

22. When is an aircraft considered to be in the uncertainty phase?

an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of 30 minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such an aircraft was first made, whichever is the earlier

23. When is an aircraft considered to be in the uncertainty phase?

an aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by ATS units, whichever is the later.

an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

24. When is an aircraft considered to be in the alert phase?

following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any news of the aircraft

information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely

the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety

26. When is an aircraft considered to be in the alert phase?

following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any news of the aircraft

information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely

28. When is an aircraft considered to be in the alert phase?

information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely

the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety

an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.

29. When is an aircraft considered to be in the distress phase?

an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft

following the alert phase, further unsuccessful attempts to establish communication with the aircraft and more widespread unsuccessful inquiries point to the probability that the aircraft is in distress

an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

31. When is an aircraft considered to be in the distress phase?

information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely

following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any news of the aircraft

an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

32. When is an aircraft considered to be in the distress phase?

an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft

information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or has made a forced landing, except when there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.

35. List 4 distress signals that mean grave and imminent danger, and immediate assistance is required.

a. Spoken word MAYDAY b. Data link word MAYDAY c. Green rockets or shells, fired one at a time at short intervals d. Red parachute flare

a. Spoken word MAYDAY b. Data link word MAYDAY c. Red rockets or shells, fired one at a time at short intervals d. Red parachute flare

a. Spoken word MAYDAY b. Data link word PAN PAN c. Red rockets or shells, fired one at a time at short intervals d. Red parachute flare

36. ALERFA

The code word used to designate a distress phase.

The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase.

The code word used to designate an alert phase.

37. DETRESFA

The code word used to designate an alert phase.

The code word used to designate a distress phase.

The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase.

38. INCERFA

The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase.

The code word used to designate an alert phase.

The code word used to designate a distress phase.

39. Explain the meaning of FUA.

Airspace should no longer be designated as either military or civil airspace but should be considered as one continuum and used on a day-to-day basis.

Airspace should be designated as civil airspace and should be available for use only for civil flights.

Airspace should no longer be designated as either military or civil airspace but be available to military flights only with special permission.

40. List the CDRs and when they may be flight planned.

a. CDR1: permanently plannable during times published in AIPs b. CDR2: plannable only as published on a daily basis c. CDR3: non-plannable by military flights

a. CDR1: permanently plannable during times published in AIPs b. CDR2: plannable only as published on a daily basis c. CDR3: non-plannable, may be used when initiated by ATC

a. CDR1: plannable only as published on a daily basis. b. CDR2: permanently plannable during times published in AIPs c. CDR3: non-plannable, may be used when initiated by ATC

41. List 3 areas of airspace to which flight restrictions apply.

Danger Areas, Restricted Areas, Prohibited Areas

Danger Areas, Restricted Areas, Manoeuvring Areas

Danger Areas, Terminal Control Areas, Prohibited Areas

42. Aerodrome traffic is:

all traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome;

all traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft landing and departing from the aerodrome;

all traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome;

all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome;

43. An aircraft is in the vicinity of an aerodrome when it is:

in, entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit;

is about to call TWR control for the first contact;

in, the area surrounding an aerodrome and its zones;

entering and staying in an aerodrome traffic circuit.

46. Radiotelephony expression for the runway-holding position is:

waiting point;

holding position;

hold-and-wait position;

holding point.

47. In order to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic Aerodrome control towers shall issue:

information and clearances;

advices and instructions;

advices and information;

ATC clearances.

48. The objective of an aerodrome control tower is to prevent collision on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome between:

I. Aircraft flying in the CTR, including the traffic circuits and obstacles in area of responsibility of tower controller; ii. Aircraft operating on the movement area; iii. Aircraft landing and taking off; iv. Aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area; v. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area;

I. Aircraft flying in the CTR, including the traffic circuits; ii. Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area; iii. Aircraft landing and taking off; iv. Aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area; v. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area.

I. Aircraft flying in the CTR and in near proximity to CTR, including the traffic circuits; ii. Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area; iii. Aircraft landing and taking off; iv. Aircraft and vehicles operating on the movement area; v. Aircraft on the manoeuvring and aircraft on the movement area.

I. Aircraft flying on VFR routes in flight information regions; ii. Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area; iii. Aircraft landing and taking off; iv. Aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area; v. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area.

50. When the functions of an aerodrome control tower are divided and performed by different control or working positions, such as: a) aerodrome controller; b) ground controller and c) clearance delivery position, aerodrome controller will normally be responsible for:

operations on the runway and taxiways and aircraft flying within the CTR;

operations on the runway and aircraft flying within the CTR;

operations on the runway and aprons and aircraft flying within the CTR;

operations of aircraft flying within the FIR including traffic circuit and VFR routes;

51. When the functions of an aerodrome control tower are divided and performed by different control or working positions, such as: a) aerodrome controller; b) ground controller and c) clearance delivery position, ground controller will normally be responsible for:

The traffic on the movement area including aprons;

The traffic on the movement area with the exception of runways;

The traffic on the manoeuvring area with the exception of runways;

The traffic on the manoeuvring area including departing traffic on runways.

52. When the functions of an aerodrome control tower are divided and performed by different control or working positions, such as: a) aerodrome controller; b) ground controller and c) clearance delivery position, clearance delivery position will normally be responsible for:

delivery of start-up and ATC information to departing IFR flights;

Delivery of start-up and ATC clearances to departing IFR flights;

Informing starting up aircraft on start-up procedures;

delivery of ATC clearances and taxi clearances to the holding point to departing IFR flights.

55. The most influencing factor in a decision which runway will serve as runway-in-use is:

Decision of commercial operator;

Decision of aerodrome management;

Actual wind;

Noise abatement procedures;

56. If the wind is not influencing runway-in-use choice, the aerodrome controller must consider factors such as:

I. Aerodrome traffic circuits; ii. Runway length and runway configuration; iii. Approach and landing aids available; iv. Meteorological conditions; and v. Noise abatement procedures

I. Aerodrome traffic circuits; ii. Runway width and runway strip; iii. Approach and landing aids available; iv. Meteorological conditions; and v. Aircraft parking procedures

I. Aerodrome traffic circuits; ii. Runway length and runway configuration; iii. Aerodrome management decisions; iv. Meteorological conditions; and v. Noise abatement procedures

I. Aerodrome traffic circuits; ii. Runway length and runway configuration; iii. Approach and landing aids available; iv. temperature, due point and humidity; and v. Icing conditions.

58. An taxiing aircraft that is waiting for the clearance to enter the runway:

shall keep appropriate distance from the runway depending of the type of landing aircraft;

shall not be held closer to a runway-in-use than the holding point except if it is an light aircraft;

shall not be held closer to a runway-in-use than the holding point;

may be held closer to a runway-in-use than the holding point if controller judges that it is safe for the aircraft on final;

59. An taxiing aircraft that is waiting for the clearance to enter the runway will wait on runway holding position or if that position is not marked on taxi way on the distance of:

30m from the runway edge where runway length is 900m or more; or 20m from the runway edge where runway length is less then 900m;

30m from the runway edge where runway length is 900m or more or 15m from the runway edge where runway length is less then 900m;

50m from the runway edge where runway length is 900m or more or 30m from the runway edge where runway length is less then 900m;

60m from the runway edge where runway length is 900m or more or 30m from the runway edge where runway length is less then 900m;

62. Vehicles and pedestrians:

shall give way to aircraft which are landing, taxiing or taking off;

have always right of way in relation to an aircraft;

shall give way to aircraft which are landing or taking off but have right of way in relation to taxiing aircraft;

no general rule has been established and controller is controlling conflict situations between vehicles, pedestrians and aircraft;

63. Normally:

departing traffic shall have priority over landing traffic;

departing traffic shall have priority over landing traffic except if landing traffic is heavy;

landing traffic shall have priority over departing traffic;

there is no priority of neither departing nor landing traffic;

64. Priority to land has:

I. An aircraft with impaired safety; ii. Military flight; iii. Hospital flight; iv. Other aircraft as determined by appropriate authority.

I. An aircraft with impaired safety; ii. Hospital flight; iii. SAR aircraft; iv. Other aircraft as determined by appropriate authority.

I. An aircraft involved in security operation; ii. Hospital flight; iii. SAR aircraft; iv. Other aircraft as determined by appropriate authority.

I. An aircraft with impaired safety; ii. Hospital flight; iii. Military aircraft iv. SAR aircraft; v. Other aircraft as determined by appropriate authority.

65. A departing aircraft will not normally be permitted to begin take-off until:

I. The preceding departing aircraft has climbed more than 500ft above the runway or has started a turn; or ii. All preceding landing aircraft are clear of the runway-in-use

I. The preceding departing aircraft has crossed the end of the runway-in-use or has started a turn; or ii. All preceding landing aircraft are clear of the runway-in-use

I. The preceding departing aircraft has reported airborne or has reached 500ft height; or ii. All preceding landing aircraft are clear of the runway-in-use

I. The preceding departing aircraft has crossed the end of the runway-in-use or has started a turn; or ii. All preceding landing aircraft are beyond touchdown zone on the runway;

68. In instruction containing take-off clearance:

Wind information is always included;

Information about the wind is always included when it is above 5kt;

Wind information is included if it is gusting wind;

Wind information is included on controller’s discretion;

69. The severity of wake turbulence is a function of:

aircraft length, speed and wing configuration;

aircraft weight, stall speed and configuration;

aircraft weight, speed and wing configuration;

aircraft weight, landing speed and landing configuration.

70. Wake vortex:

generation begins when the nose-wheel touches the runway and continues until the nose-wheel lifts of the ground on;

generation begins at any time behind the heavy and medium category aircraft;

generation begins under specific meteorological conditions related to the category of the aircraft;

generation begins when the nose-wheel lifts off the runway on take-off and continues until the nose-wheel touches the ground on landing;

72. Wake turbulence category “heavy” is:

aircraft types of 136,000 kg or less;

aircraft types of 156,000 kg or more;

aircraft types of 136 tons or more;

aircraft types of more than 136 tons;

73. Wake turbulence category “medium” is:

Aircraft types equal or less than 136,000 kg, more than 7,000 kg;

Aircraft types less than 136,000 kg, more than 7,000 kg;

Aircraft types less than 136,000 kg, equal or more than 7,000 kg;

Aircraft types less than 156,000 kg, more than 7,000 kg.

74. Wake turbulence category “light” is:

Aircraft types of 7,000 kg or less;

Aircraft types less than 7tons;

Aircraft types of 9 tons or less;

Aircraft types of 9,000 kg or less;

77. When time departures are used from the same runway minima to be applied between wake turbulence categories for LIGHT or MEDIUM taking off behind HEAVY taking off is:

2 min

3 min

4 min

Not applicable

78. For the purpose of horizontal speed control four main speeds that are used within the ATC environment are:

Indicated airspeed; vertical speed; true airspeed and Mach number;

Indicated airspeed; true airspeed; Mach number and calibrated airspeed;

Indicated airspeed; true airspeed; Mach number and ground speed.

Indicated airspeed; Mach number; equivalent airspeed and ground speed;

80. True airspeed (TAS) is:

actual speed of the aircraft through the air. It is shown in the filled flight plan;

actual speed of the aircraft through the air corrected for the wind effect. It is shown in the filled flight plan;

actual speed of the aircraft equivalent to calibrated air speed indicated on speedometer. It is shown in the filled flight plan.

calculated air speed over the ground. It is shown in the filled flight plan;

81. Mach number speed as used in horizontal speed control is:

Indicated air speed but expressed as a fraction of the local speed of sound;

TAS expressed as a fraction of the local speed of sound and corrected for the wind effect;

Speed of an aircraft when reaching the speed of sound;

TAS expressed as a fraction of the local speed of sound;

82. Ground speed is:

actual speed of the aircraft through the air corrected by calculated airspeed;

actual speed of the aircraft over the surface of the earth. It is equal to TAS corrected for the effects of wind;

calibrated of equivalent airspeed projection on the ground surface and corrected for the effects of wind;

Indicated air speed corrected for the effect of the wind;

83. When two aircraft are using the same indicated airspeed at different levels:

the aircraft on higher level will have lower TAS;

the aircraft on higher level will have greater TAS;

they will have equal TAS.

the aircraft on lower level will have greater TAS;

84. When two aircraft are using the same indicated airspeed and one is on FL90 and the other is on FL120:

the aircraft on higher level will have lower TAS for 18kt;

the aircraft on higher level will have greater TAS for 24kt;

the aircraft on lower level will have lower TAS for 18kt.

the aircraft on lower level will have greater TAS for 12kt;

85. When two aircraft are using the same Mach number at the same FL:

the TAS of those two aircraft will be the same;

depends on altitude;

depends on temperature;

the TAS of those two aircraft will differ.

86. When two aircraft are using the same Mach number at different flight levels:

the aircraft on lower level will have greater TAS;

the aircraft on lower level will have lower TAS;

the aircraft on higher level will have greater TAS;

they will have equal TAS.

87. When an aircraft is climbing by using constant Mach number:

TAS is constant;

TAS decreases;

TAS increases;

depends on altitude.

91. During horizontal speed control attention has to be paid not to apply:

High rate of descend and increase of the speed at the same time;

Low rate of descend and reduction of speed at the same time;

High rate of descend and reduction of speed at the same time;

Rate of descend and reduction of speed at the same time are not relevant for each other and may be use in either combination.

92. List the ways in which the aircraft call sign Piper ZA-JWQ may be abbreviated

a. Piper WQ, Piper JWQ b. ZAWQ, ZWQ

a. Piper WQ, Piper JWQ b. ZWQ, ZJWQ

a. Piper WQ, Piper AJWQ b. ZWQ, ZJWQ

93. List the ways in which the aircraft call sign S5-MGU may be abbreviated, using fully written ICAO phonetics

a. Sierra Mike Golf Uniform b. Sierra Mike Uniform

a. Sierra Five Golf Uniform b. Sierra Golf Uniform

a. Sierra Mike Golf Uniform b. Sierra Golf Uniform

94. How may the following call signs be abbreviated?

a. T9-DPR: TDPR, TPR b. DLH AKMW: DLH KMW, DLH MW c. EZY4661: EZY4661

a. ZA-MFX: ZMFX, ZFX b. LBY ALTQ: LBY ATQ, LBY TQ c. MAH359: MAH359

a. D-PHGV: DPGV, DGV b. AZA INBU: AZA NBU, AZA BU c. THY7334: THY7334

95. When 2 aircraft with similar call signs are on the same frequency, what temporary action may ATC take in the interests of safety?

Change the call sign of both aircraft.

Change the call sign of 1 aircraft.

97. Using the waypoint GACKO, instruct the aircraft to change back to its flight plan call sign.

CTN435Z, change back to old call sign CTN4355 at GACKO

CTN435Z, Radar, revert to flight plan call sign CTN4355 at GACKO

“CTN435Z, Radar, after passing GACKO use your first call sign CTN4355

99. When may an aircraft abbreviate its call sign?

Only after it has been abbreviated by ATC

Only if no confusion is likely to exist

Only after requesting permission from ATC

100. How may an ATC unit abbreviate it’s own call sign and when is an abbreviation permitted?

The name of the unit/service may be omitted provided satisfactory communication has been established

The name of the location or the unit/service may be omitted provided satisfactory communication has been established.

Only the name of the location may be omitted provided satisfactory communication has been established

101. List 4 situations when numbers containing whole hundreds or thousands shall be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number followed by the word “HUNDRED” or “THOUSAND.”

a. Altitude b. Cloud height c. Visibility d. RVR information

a. Altitude b. Flight level c. Visibility d. RVR information

a. Altitude b. Cloud height c. Heading d. RVR information

102. List and describe the test transmissions readability scale.

1. unreadable 2. Readable now and then 3. Readable but with difficulty 4. Readable poor 5. readable

1. unreadable 2. Readable now and then 3. Readable but with difficulty 4. readable 5. Perfectly readable

1. unreadable 2. Readable poor 3. Readable now and then 4. readable 5. Perfectly readable

103. What word is used for “I understand your message and will comply with it?”

Roger

Confirm

Wilco

104. When may the term “point” be used instead of “decimal”?

When speaking about 8.33 kHz channel spacing

When speaking about Mach speed

When speaking about changing frequencies

109. Define Air Traffic Control Clearance:

Directive for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit.

Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit.

Rules for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit.

110. When the destination aerodrome is outside controlled airspace, which ATC unit will issue an appropriate clearance to the controlled airspace boundary?

The ATC unit responsible for the last controlled airspace through which the flight will pass.

The ATC unit responsible for Advisory Service in the uncontrolled airspace.

The ATC unit responsible for issuing an ATC clearance at the departure aerodrome.

111. List the contents of a basic ATC clearance in the correct order.

a) aircraft identification; b) clearance limit; c) level(s); d) route of flight; e) any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as SSR transponder operation, approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance.

a) aircraft identification; b) clearance limit; c) SID or STAR (as applicable); d) level(s); e) any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as SSR transponder operation, approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance.

a) aircraft identification; b) clearance limit; c) route of flight; d) level(s); e) any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as SSR transponder operation, approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance.

112. A clearance limit shall be described by specifying the appropriate name of:

a) navigation aid b) aerodrome c) controlled airspace boundary

a) significant point b) aerodrome c) advisory route

a) significant point b) aerodrome c) controlled airspace boundary

113. What phrase shall be used in clearance to describe a route that is identical to that filed in a flight plan?

cleared via flight planned route

cleared via requested route

re-cleared via flight planned route

114. In correct order, list the contents of a standard clearance for an arriving aircraft that will be following a STAR.

a) aircraft identification b) designator of assigned STAR c) initial level, except when this element is included in the STAR description d) runway-in-use, except when part of the STAR description e) other necessary instructions or information not contained in the STAR

a) aircraft identification b) designator of assigned STAR c) runway-in-use, except when part of the STAR description d) initial level, except when this element is included in the STAR description e) other necessary instructions or information not contained in the STAR

a) aircraft identification b) designator of assigned STAR c) runway-in-use, except when part of the STAR description d) other necessary instructions or information not contained in the STAR

117. The vertical separation minima shall be:

1000ft below FL290, 2000ft at FL290 and above

2000ft below FL290, 1000ft at FL290 and above

1000ft at all levels

118. Within designated RVSM airspace, the vertical separation minima shall be:

1000ft

1000ft above FL410

1000ft at FL410 and above

119. When an aircraft has been cleared at a cruising level which is below the established minimum cruising level for a subsequent portion of the route, ATC should:

advise the aircraft to climb to a higher level

issue a revised clearance to the aircraft

issue a revised clearance after the next significant point

120. Aircraft may be cleared to change cruising levels:

at a specified time, place or rate

only when in VMC

only when requested by the pilot

121. When two or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, priority shall be given to:

the faster aircraft

the aircraft on the longest flight route

the preceding aircraft

122. An aircraft is flying on an air route (magnetic track 209º) to significant point BALUS, then another air route (magnetic track 173º) to significant point KILLO. Select the correct cruising levels.

6500ft to BALUS, then 8500ft

FL160 to BALUS, then FL170

FL370 to BALUS, then FL380

123. Cruising levels below the minimum flight altitudes:

shall not be assigned

shall be assigned when deemed necessary by ATC

may be assigned at the request of the pilot

124. AUA448H (A320) has reported vacating FL180 climbing to FL320. When may SAS9034 (A320), presently at FL160, be cleared to FL180?

after AUA488H reports passing FL190

immediately when severe turbulence is known to exist

immediately

125. TYR737 (AT42) has reported vacating 8000ft descending to 5000ft. When may AZA810 (B757), presently descending to FL120, be cleared to 8000ft?

Immediately

after TYR737 reports passing 7000ft

when AZA810 reports passing FL90

127. The following aircraft are flying the same direction on the same route, and NAVAIDS permit frequent determination of position and speed: BAW672: A320, FL320, 458kt, passed NARID at 1313 MAH2901: B737, FL300, 451kt, passed NARID at 1324 When passing NARID, MAH2901 requests FL320. At what earliest time may the flight be cleared to climb?

1328

Immediately

1334

129. The following aircraft are flying on crossing tracks: THA8112: A330, FL330, 473kt, passed PINDO at 0311 KLM2609: B767, FL320, 468kt, passed PINDO at 0317 When passing PINDO, KLM2609 requests FL340. At what earliest time may the flight be cleared to climb?

0326

0332

0327

130. The following aircraft are flying on reciprocal tracks: OK-MKL: C208, FL80, 160kt, passed JKV at 1555 OM-UTT: L410, FL110, 172kt, passed JKV at 1558 At 1559, OK-MKL requests FL120. At what earliest time may the flight be cleared to climb?

1605

Immediately

1608

131. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance, both aircraft shall:

use DME

Use GNSS

Maintain DCPC

133. The following aircraft are flying on reciprocal tracks: D-GHBP: PA31, FL140, 218kt, reports 35nm DME inbound to TAROK CSA9855: AT42, FL170, 232kt, reports 42nm GNSS outbound from TAROK and requests descent to land. When, at the earliest, may CSA9855 be cleared to descend to FL60?

after D-GHBP reports 22nm DME inbound to TAROK

immediately

after CSA9885 reports 45nm from TAROK

134. Altitude is:

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object measured from the ground;

The horizontal distance of a level, a point or an object measured from mean sea level (MSL);

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object measured from mean sea level;

The vertical distance from flight level to a point or an object;

135. Height is:

The vertical distance of an object measured from any altitude;

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object measured from the mean sea level (MSN);

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object measured from a zero isobar;

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object measured from a specified datum;

136. Elevation is:

The vertical distance of a point or a level on surface of the earth measured from mean sea level (MSL);

The horizontal distance of a point or a level on surface of the earth measured from mean sea level (MSL);

The vertical distance of a point or a level on surface of the earth measured to any point on the ground);

The vertical height of a point or an object on surface of the earth measured from aerodrome altitude;

139. QFE is the:

level of an aerodrome or any other location;

barometric pressure at the flight level of the aircraft which, when set on the altimeter sub-scale, the altimeter will read its altitude;

barometric pressure at the mean sea level or at any other location, which, when set on the altimeter sub-scale, the altimeter will read flight level above the aerodrome or any other location;

barometric pressure at the level of an aerodrome or at any other location, which, when set on the altimeter sub-scale, the altimeter will read its height above the aerodrome or any other location;

138. QNH is abbreviation for the value of pressure:

at a particular aerodrome or in an area, which, when set on the altimeter sub-scale, the altimeter will read altitude above mean sea level;

at a particular aerodrome or in an area, which, when set on the altimeter sub-scale, the altimeter will read mean sea level (MSL);

used for flying on flight levels;

at a particular aerodrome or in an area, which, when set on the altimeter sub-scale, the altimeter will read altitude above standard pressure 1013.2 hpa;

140. QNE is:

Measured pressure that will read flight levels above this pressure level;

The standard pressure setting (1013.2 hpa) that will read flight levels above this pressure level;

The ISA non-standard pressure setting (1013.2 hpa) that will read flight levels above this pressure level;

142. When an aircraft is flying VFR flight at a level appropriate to tracks westbound, correct flight level will be:

095

125

120

135

144. Transition level is:

the lowest altitude for use above the Transition Altitude. The TL shall be established by the appropriate ATS authority;

the lowest flight level for use bellow the Transition Altitude. The TL shall be established by the appropriate ATS unit;

the lowest flight level for use above the Transition Altitude. The TL shall be established by the appropriate ATS unit;

the highest flight level for use above the Transition Altitude. The TL shall be established by the appropriate ATS unit.

145. The transition layer:

is the layer between the transition height and the transition level;

is the layer between the transition elevation and the transition level;

is the layer between the transition altitude and the transition level;

is the flight level available for horizontal flying between the transition altitude and the transition level.

146. When passing transition level in descend pilot changes:

from QNH to QFE;

from QFE to QNE;

from QNH to QNE;

from QNE to QNH.

147. When passing the transition altitude from bellow pilot changes:

from QNH to QNE;

from QNE to QNH;

nothing in pressure setting;

from QNH to QFE;

148. Level flight in the Transition Layer is:

Approved

restricted in case of some pressure values;

prohibited;

planned in the flight plan and sent to ATC unit.

149. Where PSR is used for identification, departing aircraft may be identified:

within 2 NM from the end of the runway used;

within 1 NM from the threshold of the runway in use;

within 1 NM from the end of the runway used;

above the length of the clearway of the runway in use.

150. In the case of identification of the aircraft flying in heading 243° by the use of PSR change of the heading shall be:

At least 20 degrees;

At least heading 215° or less;

At least 40 degrees;

At least 30 degrees;

152. The identification of the aircraft equipped with Mode-S transponder is done by:

The recognition of an assigned discrete code, the setting of which has been verified in a radar label;

The recognition of a code – call sigh correlation;

Direct recognition of the aircraft identification in a radar label;

Instructing the aircraft to change the heading for at least 30°.

153. An aircraft should be informed of its position upon identification, except when identification is established:

based on the pilot’s position report or within 1 NM of the runway upon departure; or based on the use of SSR identification, or based on the transfer of identification;

based on the identification with PSR methods;

based on identification by the use of the “turn methods”;

based on the pilot’s position report or within 1 NM of the runway upon departure; or based on the use of PSR identification, or based on the transfer of identification;

157. Except when transfer of control is to be effected, aircraft shall not be vectored closer than:

2.5 NM from airspace border or where the separation minimum is greater than 5NM, a distance equal to the prescribed separation minimum;

1.5 NM from airspace border or where the separation minimum is greater than 5NM, a distance equal to one-half of the prescribed separation minimum;

2.5 NM from airspace border or where the separation minimum is greater than 5NM, a distance equal to one-half of the prescribed separation minimum;

5 NM from airspace border or where the separation minimum is greater than 5NM, a distance equal to one-half of the prescribed separation minimum;

158. Traffic information is:

information sent by pilot to ATC about the traffic in the nearest proximity of that flight;

information issued by ATC to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in the proximity of the flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision;

information issued by ATC to aircraft taxing for the departure about the traffic in final and the aircraft taxing in front for the same runway;

information issued by the pilot to other pilots in vicinity of its position on traffic which is significant for their flight;

163. SSR Response is:

visual indication, in symbolic form, on a situation display, of a response from an SSR transponder in reply to an interrogation;

visual indication, in non-symbolic form, on a situation display, of a response from an PSR;

FDPS information in non-symbolic form, on a situation display, of a response from an SSR transponder in reply to an interrogation;

visual indication, in non-symbolic form, on a situation display, of a response from an SSR transponder in reply to an interrogation;

165. ICAO Annex 4 defines the obligations of the state in the area of:

Airports

AIS

Aeronautical maps

166. The purpose of AIS is:

to ensure that aeronautical information / data needed to operate the airport are available in standard form

to ensure that aeronautical information / data necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of air traffic are available in standard form

to ensure that the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) required for operation of the airport is available in standard form

170. Information about a runway closure (excl. graphics) lasting two days shall be published in the form of:

NOTAM

AIC

AIP AMDT

171. AIRAC is:

A regulated system of managing aeronautical information

A regulated system of managing NOTAM messages

A regulated system of managing the creation of PIBs

173. Information about the LDA is found in the AIP part:

GEN

ENR

174. Information about an airport’s operational hours are published in the AIP part:

GEN

ENR

175. Information about units of measurement are found in the AIP part:

GEN

ENR

176. Prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas are published in the AIP part:

GEN

ENR

177. A NOTAM is intended to communicate the information about:

timely knowledge essential for personnel operating within the air traffic system

only the removal of snow or snow-related conditions

questions relating to technical, administrative and legal procedures, which is essential for personnel operating within the air traffic system

179. Information effective from 18 Sep 2012 until 20 Jul 2013 will be published as a/an:

AIP AMDT

AIP SUP

NOTAM

181. A pre-flight information bulletin is:

an overview of operationally significant information from valid NOTAMs prepared before a flight

a special series NOTAMs

a summary of the latest issued AIP, AMDT and AIP SUP prepared before a flight

182. In the AIP, operational hours of an aerodrome are stated as 0700 UTC to 2100 UTC. An effective NOTAM says the operational hours of the same aerodrome are from 0600 UTC to 2000 UTC. The operational hours of this aerodrome are:

0700 UTC to 2100 UTC

0600 UTC to 2000 UTC

7:00 to 8:00 p.m. EST

183. The correct decoding of NOTAM item D) "0500-1400 EXC 10-13 AND SAT AND SUN" is:

the NOTAM is effective from 0500 UTC to 1400 UTC, except the 10th to the 13 of the month and Saturdays and Sundays

the NOTAM is effective from 0500 UTC to 1400 UTC, except 1000 UTC to 1300 UTC and Saturdays and Sundays

the NOTAM is effective from 0500 UTC to 1400 UTC, including 1000 UTC to 1300 UTC

184. According to validity period aeronautical information/data can be divided to:

Fast and Slow

Operationally significant & Operationally less significant

Static and Dynamic

186. Information about sunrise/sunset is published in the AIP part:

GEN

ENR

187. List of en-route radio navigation aids is published in the AIP part:

GEN

ENR

169. The AIP has sections for the following:

VFR and IFR

GEN, COM, AD

GEN, ENR, AD

168. ICAO Doc 8400 includes:

ICAO Location indicators

ICAO Abbreviations and codes

Procedures for publishing AIS information / data

167. The integrated package of aeronautical information consists of the following elements:

1. AIP, including amendment services 2. Supplements to the AIP 3. NOTAM and PIB 4. AIC 5. Checklists and lists of valid NOTAMs

1. AIP, including amendment services 2. Meteorological Information 3. NOTAM and PIB 4. AIC 5. A numerical checklist of valid NOTAMs and a list of valid NOTAMs in plain language

1. AIP, including amendment services 2. AIP Supplement 3. NOTAM and PIB 4. Route Availability Document (RAD) 5. A numerical checklist of valid NOTAMs and a list of valid NOTAMs in plain language

164. ICAO defines the provision of AIS and aeronautical charts and in:

Annex 15 and Annex 4

Annex 15 and Annex 3

Annex 14 and Doc 7910

162. PSR Blip is:

visual indication, in non-symbolic form, on a situation display of the position of an aircraft obtained by SSR;

visual indication, in non-symbolic form, on a situation display of the position of an aircraft obtained by VDF;

visual indication, in non-symbolic form, on a situation display of the position of an aircraft obtained by primary radar;

visual indication, in symbolic form, on a situation display of the position of an aircraft obtained by primary radar;

160. Positition Indication is:

visual indication, in non-symbolic and/or symbolic form, on a situation display, of the position of an aircraft, aerodrome vehicle or other object;

indication given by the trained personnel on the movement area of an aerodrome to the aircraft in assisting parking of that aircraft;

the report of the pilot on position of the aircraft in the air;

indication of the aircraft position on the radar screen without being positively identified.

159. Traffic avoidance is:

advice provided by ATC which specifies maneuvers to assist a pilot to avoid a collision;

maneuvers described in navigation maps in order to assist the pilot to avoid a collision;

radar procedures exclusively used in FIC for special VFR flights;

advice provided by ATC for the military traffic to assist in avoiding a collision;

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