Management USMLE 6 ( 808-900)
A 45-year-old African-American woman who was diagnosed with PCOS in her early twenties presents to her gynecologist for her annual visit. One of her close friends has recently been diagnosed with ovarian cancer, so she is concerned about her own cancer risk. Menarche was at age 14 years, and she has yet to go through menopause. She has a healthy 19-year-old daughter. She has no family history of cancer. She does not smoke or drink and exercises regularly. Aside from a diagnosis of PCOS, she is otherwise in good health. Given her health history, which of the following statements is true?
She should have annual mammograms, although her risk of breast cancer is not changed relative to women without PCOS
She should have annual mammograms because she has an increased risk of developing breast cancer relative to women without PCOS
She should have annual Pap smears, although she has a decreased risk of developing cervical cancer relative to women without PCOS
She should have annual Pap smears because she has an increased risk of developing cervical cancer relative to women without PCOS
She should have annual Pap smears because she has an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer relative to women without PCOS
A 45-year-old male comes to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath that began 3 hours ago. He also file:///D:/DES_Entry_2016MCQs/3C_USMLE/C-4Management/4Manag... 169 of 334 12/21/2016 3:59 PM has a nonproductive cough, a low-grade fever and right-sided chest pain that worsen with inspiration. He denies coughing up blood, wheezing, palpitations, leg pain or swelling of his lower extremities. He recently returned home from a trip to Singapore. He has a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. His takes fosinopril, metformin and glyburide. He doesn't use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. His temperature is 98.0°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 128/min, respirations are 32/min, and O2 saturation is 84% on room air. Physical examination shows a slightly obese man in acute respiratory distress. He is alert and cooperative without any cyanosis or jaundice. He has a slightly displaced apical impulse with a S4. Chest-x ray shows mild cardiomegaly with no infiltrates. EKG shows sinus tachycardia and left ventricular hypertrophy without ST-T wave changes. His arterial blood gas analysis shows pH 7.52, pCO2 30, pO2 55, HC03 22. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
. Pulmonary angiogram
. Lower extremity venous ultrasound
. Spiral CT scans of the chest
. Initiate heparin weight-based protocol
. Broad spectrum antibiotics
A 45-year-old male patient comes to the physician's office for a routine check-up. He denies any symptoms and says he feels "perfectly healthy." He was diagnosed with hypertension and mixed hypercholesterolemia a year ago. He is currently taking hydrochlorothiazide, amiloride and simvastatin daily. He does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. His blood pressure today is 135/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Routine blood results reveal the following: CBC: Hb 14.2g/dL, Ht 42%, MCV 86 fl, Platelet count 260,000/cmm, Leukocyte count 8,500/cmm, Neutrophils 70%, Eosinophils 1%, Lymphocytes 24%, Monocytes 5%. Serum: Serum Na 140 mEq/L, Serum K 5.7 mEq/L, Chloride 100 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L, BUN 10 mg/dL, Serum Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL, Calcium 9.0 mg/dL, Blood Glucose 118 mg/dL, Total cholesterol 220 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol 130 mg/dL. The blood sample is checked and is not hemolysed. The EKG shows normal sinus rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Intravenous calcium gluconate
. Intravenous dextrose + insulin
. Stop amiloride and recheck lab results in 1 week
. Stop HCTZ and recheck lab results in 1 week
. Start patient on a low potassium diet
A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is conscious but in severe pain. His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination shows marked swelling and some bruising over the right thigh; the skin is intact. An x-ray film of the leg shows a fracture of the mid shaft of the femur. After hemodynamically stabilizing the patient, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Open intramedullary nailing of the femur
. External fixation of the fracture
. Place a plaster cast
. Internal fixation of the fracture with plates and screw
. Closed intramedullary fixation of the femoral shaft
A 45-year-old man presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain and fever. CT scan shows a large, calcified cystic mass in the right lobe of the liver. Echinococcus is suggested by the CT findings. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of echinococcal liver cysts?
. Percutaneous catheter drainage.
. Medical treatment with albendazole.
. Medical treatment with steroids.
. Medical treatment with metronidazole.
. Total pericystectomy.
A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with 1 day of painful rectal bleeding. Review of systems is negative for weight loss, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination, you note an exquisitely tender swelling with engorgement and a bluish discoloration distal to the anal verge. Her vital signs are HR 105 beats per minute, BP 140/70 mm Hg, RR 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 99°F. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Recommend warm sitz baths, topical analgesics, stool softeners, a high-fiber diet, and arrange for surgical follow-up
. Incision and drainage under local anesthesia or procedural sedation followed by packing and surgical follow-up
. Obtain a complete blood cell (CBC) count, clotting studies, type and cross, and arrange for emergent colonoscopy
. Excision under local anesthesia followed by sitz baths and analgesics
. Surgical consult for immediate operative management
A 45-year-old woman presents with dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and weight loss. She had x-rays shown here as part of her workup. Upper endoscopy reveals no evidence of malignancy and esophageal motility studies show incomplete lower esophageal sphincter relaxation. Which of the following is the next best step in the treatment of this patient?
. Laparoscopic myotomy of the lower esophageal sphincter (Heller)
. Laparoscopic posterior 180 (Toupet) fundoplication
. Laparoscopic anterior 180 (Dor) fundoplication
. Laparoscopic 360 (Nissen) fundoplication
. Transhiatal esophagectomy
A 45-year-old woman with previously documented urge incontinence continues to be symptomatic after following your advice for conservative self-treatment. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
. Prescribe Ditropan (oxybutynin chloride)
. Prescribe Estrogen therapy
. Schedule a retropubic suspension of the bladder neck
. Refer her to a urologist for urethral dilation
. Schedule a voiding cystourethrogram
A 46-year-old male comes to your office for a routine health examination. He has no current physical complaints and says he is compliant with his medications. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes diagnosed two years ago that he has been able to control with diet, exercise and metformin. The patient also takes a daily aspirin. On physical examination, he has a temperature of 36.7°C (98°F), a blood pressure of 140/86 mmHg, a pulse of 80/min, and respirations of 14/min. His laboratory studies show: Total cholesterol 170 mg/dl, High density lipoprotein (HDL) 50 mg/dl, Low density lipoprotein (LDL) 65 mg/dl, Triglycerides (TG) 150 mg/dl, HbA1C 7.0. Serum chemistries are with in normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Add niacin
. Add gemfibrozil
. Add lisinopril
. Add ezetimibe
. Add insulin
A 46-year-old male is brought to the ER because of coffee ground emesis. He has a history of chronic hepatitis C and alcohol abuse. His temperature is 36.6C (97.9F), blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 14/min. He is oriented to time, place and person but somewhat sleepy. A flapping tremor is noted. His abdomen is soft, non-tender, and mildly-distended; liver and spleen are palpated below the costal margins; shifting dullness is present. Nasogastric tube aspiration shows bright red blood that was easily cleared with saline lavage. Endoscopy shows a fresh ulcer with a small adherent clot located high on the lesser curvature near the gastroesophageal junction. Non bleeding esophageal and gastric varices are also seen. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.2 g/L, MCV 105 fl, Platelets 105,000/mm3, Leukocyte count 4,500/mm3, Prothrombin time 17 sec, Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT) 78 U/L, Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT) 50 U/L, Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Sclerotherapy of the varices
. Porto-systemic shunt
. Esophageal and proximal gastric devascularization and splenectomy
. Gastric resection, selective vagotomy and pyloroplasty
. Conservative medical management
A 46-year-old male is hospitalized with severe acute pancreatitis. Because of progressive respiratory difficulty, he is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation. His weight is 70 kg (152 lb), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 90/min. Chest x-ray shows patchy opacities bilaterally, consistent with pulmonary edema. His current ventilator settings are: assist control mode, respiratory rate of 12/min, tidal volume of 450 ml, FiO2 of 40%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cm H20. His blood gas readings are: pH 7.51, pCO2 22mmHg, pO2 121mmHg. Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
. Bronchodilator therapy
. Decrease FiO2
. Decrease respiratory rate
. Increase tidal volume
. Incentive spirometry
A 46-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of abrupt onset of epigastric pain radiating to the back and associated vomiting. He has had these symptoms for the past 1 day. The symptoms are progressively getting worse. He has no other medical problems or previous surgeries. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.6°F), blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 20/min. Abdomen is mildly distended and very tender to palpation in the epigastric region; bowel sounds have decreased. There is no rebound tenderness or organomegaly. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory findings reveal: CBC: Hb 15.0 g/dL, Platelet count 223,000/mm3, Leukocyte count 14,500/mm3, Serum Chemistry: Serum Na 134 mEq/L, Serum K 3.6 mEq/L, Chloride 93 mEq/L, Bicarbonates 29 mEq/L, BUN 30 mg/dL, Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, Calcium 10.3 mg/dL, Blood glucose 168 mg/dL, LFT 1.4 mg/dL. Total bilirubin: Alkaline phosphatase 220 U/L, Aspartate aminotransferase 88 U/L, Alanine aminotransferase 155 U/L, Lipase 523 U/L. Abdominal x-ray shows gaseous distention of the small bowel in the upper abdomen. Computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast shows diffuse hypodense enlargement of the pancreas and peripancreatic and perirenal fluid collections. Nasogastric suction, intravenous normal saline, analgesics, and antibiotics are started. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Add intravenous sodium bicarbonate
. Add intravenous pancreatic protease inhibitor
. Perform colonoscopic decompression
. Administer intramuscular carbachol to treat ileus
. Obtain a right upper quadrant ultrasound
A 46-year-old man comes to the physician because of a two day history of worsening abdominal discomfort and persistent vomiting. He has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus for 3 days. He had an appendectomy for appendicitis 20 years ago. Examination shows a distended abdomen that is tympanic on percussion. High-pitched bowel sounds and splashing are heard on auscultation. The abdomen is diffusely tender on palpation without rebound or guarding. An x-ray film of the abdomen shows distended small bowel loops with air-fluid levels; no gas is seen in the colon. IV rehydration is started. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Emergency laparotomy
. Barium enema under fluoroscopic control
. Nasogastric suction and intravenous fluids
. Administer bethanechol
. Start total parenteral nutrition
A 46-year-old woman suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops hematuria and proteinuria. She was diagnosed with SLE four years ago and has been treated with hydroxychloroquine. A renal biopsy is performed and shows diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. She is started on cyclophosphamide and prednisone and hydroxychloroquine is stopped. She continues these two medications for several weeks because of the low therapeutic response. This new therapeutic regimen puts her at an increased risk for which of the following conditions?
. Cochlear dysfunction
. Optic neuritis
. Bladder carcinoma
. Peripheral neuropathy
. Digital vasospasm
A 47-year old woman comes to the clinic because of worsening left breast swelling and pain. She had mastitis when she nursed her first child 20 years ago. She has not seen a doctor since that time. She is afebrile. Breast examination shows the left breast is enlarged with a 7 x 6 cm area of edema and erythema. A poorly localized mass without fluctuation is palpated in that area. Scant non-bloody discharge is noted on the nipple, and several large axillary nodes are palpated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Antibiotic active against Streptococci and Staphylococci
. Culture of the discharge and treatment depending on the findings of the culture
. Drainage, culture of the drained exudate and treatment depending on the findings of the culture
. Biopsy for culture and treatment depending on the findings of the culture
. Biopsy for histology and treatment depending on the findings of the histology
A 47-year-old Caucasian female presents with occasional episodes of nocturnal substernal chest pain that wakes her up during sleep. The pain episodes last 15-20 minutes and resolve spontaneously. She denies any illicit drug use. She leads a sedentary lifestyle but states that she can climb two flights of stairs without any discomfort. She has no history of hypertension or diabetes. Her pulse is 75/min and regular, blood pressure is 134/70 mmHg and respirations are 14/min. Extended ambulatory ECG monitoring reveals transient ST segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V4-V6 during the episodes. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Diltiazem
Propranolol
Aspirin
Heparin
Digoxin
A 47-year-old man comes to the office for the evaluation of a sore over his right ear. His sore bleeds and oozes, and has remained open for 3 weeks. He thinks that it has been growing slowly over the past year. He works for the postal service (USPS), and is usually out all day delivering mail. He admits to smoking approximately 2 packs of cigarettes daily for the last 13 years. Physical examination reveals a punched out 1.5 cm ulcer on his right auricle. There are no enlarged lymph nodes. Full thickness biopsy reveals proliferating malignant cells which arise from the epidermis and extend into the dermis in lobules or strands. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Surgical excision with 1-2 mm of clear margins
. Wide excision with at least 5 em margins
Scraping
. Observe for 3 weeks and then examine
. Local chemotherapy with anticancer creams
A 47-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of two days of pain and itching over her left chest. Her medical history is significant for breast cancer for which she underwent a left-sided mastectomy six months ago. She has also been receiving chemotherapy and radiation. Physical examination reveals erythema around the mastectomy scar, with excoriations and occasional vesicles. Which of the following is the best treatment for her condition?
. Topical 5-fluorouracil
. Topical corticosteroids
Acyclovir
Mupirocin
Fluconazole
A 48-year-old Caucasian female is undergoing a routine work-up 9 months after radical mastectomy due to right-sided breast cancer. She has no present complaints, and says that she is 'full of energy'. Chest radiograph reveals an isolated pulmonary nodule, 2.0 cm in diameter, in the middle lobe of the right lung. CT confirms that the lesion is solitary with poorly defined margins, but completely within lung parenchyma. Bone scan is negative. CT abdomen and pelvis is normal. Transthoracic biopsy demonstrates adenocarcinoma with positive estrogen receptors (ER) and no HER-2/neu overexpression. Which of the following is the best management strategy for this patient?
Surgery
. Systemic chemotherapy
. Hormone therapy
. Pretreatment with monoclonal antibodies against HER-2/neu
. Combined chemotherapy and endocrine therapy
A 48-year-old man presents with jaundice, melena, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain after undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. Endoscopy shows blood coming from the ampulla of Vater. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line of therapy for major hemobilia?
. Correction of coagulopathy, adequate biliary drainage, and close monitoring
. Transarterial embolization (TAE)
. Percutaneous transhepatic biliary drainage (PTBD)
. Ligation of bleeding vessels
. Hepatic resection
A 48-year-old man sustains a gunshot wound to the right upper thigh just distal to the inguinal crease. He is immediately brought to the ER. Peripheral pulses are palpable in the foot, but the foot is pale, cool, and hypesthetic. The motor examination is normal. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate next step in the patient’s management?
. The patient should be taken to the operating room immediately to evaluate for a significant arterial injury.
. A neurosurgical consult should be obtained and somatosensory evoked potential monitoring performed.
. A fasciotomy should be performed prophylactically in the emergency room.
. A duplex examination should be obtained to rule out a venous injury.
. The patient should be observed for at least 6 hours and then reexamined for changes in the physical examination.
A 48-year-old woman complains of joint pain and morning stiffness for 4 months. Examination reveals swelling of the wrists and MCPs as well as tenderness and joint effusion in both knees. The rheumatoid factor is positive, antibodies to cyclic citrullinated protein are present, and subcutaneous nodules are noted on the extensor surfaces of the forearm. Which of the following statements is correct?
. Prednisone 60 mg per day should be started.
. The patient has RA and should be evaluated for disease-modifying antirheumatic therapy.
. A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug should be added to aspirin.
. The patient’s prognosis is highly favorable.
The patient should receive a 3-month trial of full-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent before determining whether and/or what additional therapy is indicated
A 48-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist because of vaginal bleeding. She states that after a year of hot flashes and irregular cycles, she finally stopped menstruating 4 months ago. Two days ago she began having some vaginal bleeding that was very similar to her prior menses. She is concerned because she heard that the first sign of endometrial cancer in postmenopausal women is vaginal bleeding. She is an otherwise healthy woman with no medical problems. She exercises three times a week and takes multivitamins. She had three children when she was 29–35 years old. She used oral contraceptive pills for contraception from the time she was 18 until she got married at the age of 28. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this woman’s vaginal bleeding?
Abdominal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
Follow-up examination in 6 months
Measure serum level of follicle-stimulating hormone
Prescription of testosterone cream
A 49-year-old woman undergoes surgical resection of a malignancy. The family asks about the prognosis. The histopathology is available for review. For which of the following malignancies does histologic grade best correlate with prognosis?
. Lung cancer
Melanoma
. Colonic adenocarcinoma
. Hepatocellular carcinoma
. Soft tissue sarcoma
A 5-month-old child regularly regurgitates a large portion of her feeds. A pH probe study showed significant periods of low esophageal pH. The child has normal growth and no other significant past medical history. Which of the following is the best management at this point?
. Barium swallow and upper GI series
. Oral reflux medications
. Esophageal manometry
. Close observation only
. Surgical correction with fundoplication
A 5-year-old African-American boy is brought to the office by his mother due to a painful right knee, fever and chills over the last 2 days. The child was diagnosed with pharyngitis 2 weeks ago, and was treated with a 10-day course of penicillin G. His temperature is 38.8 C (102F) and pulse rate is 102/min. On examination, his right knee joint is swollen and erythematous, with a decreased range of motion. The laboratory findings are significant for leukocytosis and an elevated ESR. X-rays of both the right hip and knee joints are normal. What is the most appropriate treatment for the patient's condition?
Bed rest with the right knee joint in a position of comfort
Repeat a ten-day course of penicillin G
Bed rest & a ten-day course of penicillin G
Bed rest & aspirin
Right knee arthrocentesis & intravenous nafcillin
A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician's office after he falls from his bicycle and strikes his head against the sidewalk. There were no witnesses to this incident, which occurred 8 hours ago. The child is otherwise healthy, up-to-date file:///D:/DES_Entry_2016MCQs/3C_USMLE/C-4Management/4Manag... 184 of 334 12/21/2016 3:59 PM on his immunizations, and not taking any medications. On physical examination, his vital signs are stable. He has a 5 × 4 cm abrasion on his forehead. He is alert and oriented to date, place and self. His motor and sensory examinations are normal and reflexes are normal. Which of the following constitutes reasonable management?
. Admit overnight for observation
. Instruct parents to observe neurological status for 24 hours
. Obtain a head computerized tomography scan
. Obtain a skull x-ray film and discharge if normal
. Obtain a skull x-ray film, observe for 24 hours and discharge
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician for evaluation of left hip pain after his parents saw him limping this morning. He spent time on the playground yesterday but his parents do not think he was injured then. The boy complains that the pain in his hip worsens when he moves or walks. For the past 3 days, he has had a runny nose and congestion. Review of systems is otherwise negative. His grandmother has rheumatoid arthritis treated with methotrexate. His temperature is 37.2° C (99° F), blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows a well-appearing child with clear rhinorrhea and intermittent dry cough. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. His left hip is slightly abducted and externally rotated with mildly decreased range of motion. He is able to stand and bear weight. The remainder of his examination is normal. X-rays of both hips are normal. His laboratory results are as follows: Complete blood count: Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL, Platelets 287,000/mm3, Leukocyte count 8,500/mm3, Neutrophils 30%, Eosinophils 1%, Lymphocytes 64%, Monocytes 5%, Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 30 mm/h, C-reactive protein 9 mg/L (N: ≤ 8 mg/L). Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
. Ibuprofen, rest, and follow-up in 1 week
. Intravenous antibiotics
. Magnetic resonance imaging of the left hip
. Serum antinuclear antibodies
. Synovial fluid aspiration of the left hip
A 5-year-old child was hit in the right eye by a toy. He is rubbing at his eye, which is watering profusely. There is a small abrasion at the corner of the eye. He is mildly photophobic, but his pupils are equal, symmetric, and reactive to light and accommodation. His vision is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Perform a fluorescein dye stain of the cornea to determine if there is a corneal abrasion
Refer him immediately to an ophthalmologist
Irrigate the eye with sterile normal saline
Discharge him to home with antibiotic eye ointment
Apply a patch to the eye and follow-up in a week
A 5-year-old girl without past history of UTI is in the hospital on antibiotics for Escherichia coli pyelonephritis. She is still febrile after 4 days of appropriate antibiotics. A renal ultrasound revealed no abscess, but a focal enlargement of one of the lobes of the right kidney. CT of the abdomen reveals a wedge shaped area in the right kidney distinct from the normal file:///D:/DES_Entry_2016MCQs/3C_USMLE/C-4Management/4Manag... 186 of 334 12/21/2016 3:59 PM tissue with minimal contrast enhancement. Appropriate management of this patient includes which of the following interventions?
. Prolonged antibiotic therapy
. Routine treatment with 10 to 14 days of antibiotics for pyelonephritis
. Surgical consultation
. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan
. Renal biopsy
A 50-year-old Caucasian male comes to the office for the evaluation of polyuria and polydypsia for the last two months. He also complains of weakness and fatigue. He had one episode of transient proximal muscle weakness which lasted 30 minutes. He has a 20-pack year history of smoking. He does not drink alcohol. His past medical and family histories are insignificant. His pulse is 78/min, blood pressure is 150/96 mmHg and temperature is 36.7°C (98°F). The rest of the examination, including the neurological examination, is normal. Labs show: Plasma sodium 150 mEq/L, Potassium 2.6 mEq/L, Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Measurement of plasma renin activity and aldosterone concentration
. Measurement of 24 hour urinary potassium excretion
. Aldosterone suppression testing
. Imaging of adrenals by CT scan
. Adrenal vein sampling
A 50-year-old Caucasian male returns to the clinic for the evaluation of his blood pressure control. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension one year ago. He claims compliance with his reduced salt intake diet. He is currently on a thiazide diuretic and a beta-blocker. His past medical history is significant for angina, which is always relieved with sublingual nitroglycerine, but he has not had an attack of angina in over a month. He has never had a myocardial infarction. He lives with his wife and two children. He quit smoking two years ago, but previously had a 25-pack year history. He drinks 4 bottles of wine per week. His blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. What is the best next step in management?
. Admit him to the hospital to control his blood pressure
. Start an ACE inhibitor
. Increase the dose of thiazide diuretic
. Reduction in alcohol intake
. Reassurance and repeat measurement in 2 weeks
{"name":"Management USMLE 6 ( 808-900)", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"A 45-year-old African-American woman who was diagnosed with PCOS in her early twenties presents to her gynecologist for her annual visit. One of her close friends has recently been diagnosed with ovarian cancer, so she is concerned about her own cancer risk. Menarche was at age 14 years, and she has yet to go through menopause. She has a healthy 19-year-old daughter. She has no family history of cancer. She does not smoke or drink and exercises regularly. Aside from a diagnosis of PCOS, she is otherwise in good health. Given her health history, which of the following statements is true?, A 45-year-old male comes to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath that began 3 hours ago. He also file:\/\/\/D:\/DES_Entry_2016MCQs\/3C_USMLE\/C-4Management\/4Manag... 169 of 334 12\/21\/2016 3:59 PM has a nonproductive cough, a low-grade fever and right-sided chest pain that worsen with inspiration. He denies coughing up blood, wheezing, palpitations, leg pain or swelling of his lower extremities. He recently returned home from a trip to Singapore. He has a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. His takes fosinopril, metformin and glyburide. He doesn't use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. His temperature is 98.0°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 115\/70 mmHg, pulse is 128\/min, respirations are 32\/min, and O2 saturation is 84% on room air. Physical examination shows a slightly obese man in acute respiratory distress. He is alert and cooperative without any cyanosis or jaundice. He has a slightly displaced apical impulse with a S4. Chest-x ray shows mild cardiomegaly with no infiltrates. EKG shows sinus tachycardia and left ventricular hypertrophy without ST-T wave changes. His arterial blood gas analysis shows pH 7.52, pCO2 30, pO2 55, HC03 22. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?, A 45-year-old male patient comes to the physician's office for a routine check-up. He denies any symptoms and says he feels \"perfectly healthy.\" He was diagnosed with hypertension and mixed hypercholesterolemia a year ago. He is currently taking hydrochlorothiazide, amiloride and simvastatin daily. He does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. His blood pressure today is 135\/85 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Routine blood results reveal the following: CBC: Hb 14.2g\/dL, Ht 42%, MCV 86 fl, Platelet count 260,000\/cmm, Leukocyte count 8,500\/cmm, Neutrophils 70%, Eosinophils 1%, Lymphocytes 24%, Monocytes 5%. Serum: Serum Na 140 mEq\/L, Serum K 5.7 mEq\/L, Chloride 100 mEq\/L, Bicarbonate 24 mEq\/L, BUN 10 mg\/dL, Serum Creatinine 1.1 mg\/dL, Calcium 9.0 mg\/dL, Blood Glucose 118 mg\/dL, Total cholesterol 220 mg\/dL, LDL cholesterol 130 mg\/dL. The blood sample is checked and is not hemolysed. The EKG shows normal sinus rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
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