Family (1) part 2
Family 14. You are evaluating a 56 year-old obese woman who complains of fatigue. She has polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia. Which of the following laboratory reports confirms the diagnosis of diabetes? P
A. A glucose reading, taken 2 hours after a 75-g glucose load, of 163 mg/dL
B. A random glucose reading of 221 mg/dL
C. Fasting glucose measurement of 120mg/di
D. A1C 5.0
5. You are evaluating a 36-year-old obese woman who complains of fatigue. She denies polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, or weight loss. Which of the following laboratory reports confirms the diagnosis of diabetes?
A. A random glucose reading of 221 mg/dL
B. A random glucose reading of 221 mg/dL, and another, on a laterdate, of208 mg/dL
C. A fasting glucose measurement of 128 mg/dL
D. A glucose reading, taken 2 hours after a 75-g glucose load, of 163mg/dL
E. A fasting glucose of 114 mg/dL, and a reading of 184 mg/dL 2 hoursafter a75-g glucose load
. A 52-year-old obese man presents for follow-up of his hypertension. His blood pressure is well controlled on a daily dose of hydrochlorothiazide. A finger-stick blood sugar test done an hour after he ate lunch was 130 mg/ dL. Which of the following test results would be diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
A. A random plasma glucose of 220 mg/ dL and symptomatic polyuria
B. The nonfasting, finger-stick sugar of 130 mg/dL is diagnostic. No further testing is needed
C. A fasting plasma glucose of 120 mg/ dl
. You are performing a screening physical examination on a 47-year-old man. He is generally healthy, and his review of systems is negative. His mother has type 2 diabetes, and he is overweight. Which of the following is generally accepted as the test of choice to screen for type 2 diabetes?
A. A random glucose test
B. A fasting glucose
C. A urinalysis to screen for glycosuria
D. A 1-hour glucose tolerance test
E. A 3-hour glucose tolerance test
8. Which of the following is correct about hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state HHS: P.150
A. Physical examination reveals more mild dehydration, rapid, deep breathing, fruitysmelling breath
B. Physical examination reveals more severe dehydration, mental status changes,focal neurologic signs (hemiparesis, visual field deficits), seizure
C. The typical presentation is rapid onset (<24 hours), with symptoms of nausea,vomiting, abdominal pain
D. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state- HHS can present with high levels of hyperglycemia but less than 1,000 mg/dl, with kelosis or acidosis
E. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) is more likely occur in type 1 diabetes
A 57-year-old man complains of increased thirst and urination. His examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Fasting blood sugar (FBS)
B. Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
C. Hemoglobin A1C level
D. A urine osmolality
. A 46-year-old woman with a 10-year history of insulin-requiring diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency room with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Family members state that the patient has recently been taking over-the-counter medications for an upper respiratory tract infection. The blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg and the pulse is 120/min. The patient is lethargic but follows commands. Pupils are 3 mm bilaterally and reactive to light and accommodation. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness but no rebound tenderness. Neurologic examination reveals no focal deficits. Finger stick glucose is >800 mg/dL and arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.36. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hyperosmolar state
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Barbiturate overdose
D. Impaired glucose tolerance
E. Diabetic ketoacidosis
A 39-year-old G1P0 woman who is a new patient presents to the office at 10 weeks' gestation. She is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus and currently takes metformin. Her BMI of 34.7. This patient is at an increased risk for developing which of the following?
A. Fetal malformations
B. Fetal macrosomia
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Shoulder dystocia
A 53-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have a blood pressure of 152/98. She has never had any ophthalmologic, cardiovascular, or renal complications of diabetes or hypertension (HTN). Based on recent recommendations of the JNC7 (The Eighth Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure) which of the following is the currently recommended goal for blood pressure control in this case?
A. Less than 160/90
B. Less than 145/95
C. Less than 140/90
D. Less than 130/80
E. Less than 120/70
A 34-year-old man was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus as a child and has been presenting for annual examinations since he was in his early 20s. Which of the following screening tests is indicated more than once a year
A. Microalbuminuria
B. Podiatry examination
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Ophthalmologic examination
E. Lipid profile
In which of the following categories should women undergo routine screening for gestational diabetes?
A. Age greater than 25 years
B. Body mass index greater than 25 kg/m2
C. Family history of diabetes mellitus in a first-degree relative
D. African American
E. All of the above
A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her hemoglobin A1C is now 7.6%. She has attempted to lose weight and to exercise with no improvement in her hemoglobin A1C, and drug therapy is now recommended. She has mild systemic hypertension that is well controlled and no other medical conditions. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line therapy?
A. Acarbose
B. Glyburide
C. Metformin
D. Sitagliptin
E. Exenatide
A 53-year-old woman's A1C is 7.6%. She has attempted to lose weight and to exercise with no improvement in her hemoglobin A1C, and drug therapy is now recommended. She has mild systemic hypertension that is well controlled and her LDL is 120mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line therapy
A. Acarbose
B. Sitagliptin
C. Metformin
D. Metformin and statin
Patient with newly established diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Along with diet and exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Single daily injection of glargine insulin
B. Mealtime injections of short-acting insulin
C. Oral metformin
. A 49-year-old woman presents to her physician's office with a long-standing history of polydipsia, polyuria, central obesity, and hyperlipidemia. She is currently taking metformin, a sulfonylurea, and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are most beneficial in preventing or slowing the progression of which of the following diabetic complications?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Diabetic nephropathy
C. Diabetic neuropathy
D. Diabetic retinopathy
E. Peripheral vascular disease
139. A 26-year-old woman presents with weight gain, lethargy, dry skin, sweatiness, cold intolerance, and thinning hair. You suspect hypothyroidism and order the appropriate laboratory tests. Her TSH is high, and her free T 3 and free T 4 are both low. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Primary hypothyroidism
B. Secondary hypothyroidism
C. Iodine deficiency
D. Thyroid hormone resistance
E. Subclinical hypothyroidism
0. You have been following a 45-year-old man for hypothyroidism for the past 2 years without significant complaints. He was prescribed 100 g of levothyroxine 1 year ago, when the diagnosis was made, and his TSH fell to normal levels at the 3- month and 6-month visits. He returns for a routine annual recheck and manifests a normal blood pressure and apical heart rate of 80, regular. As he has a family history of adenomatous colon polyps, you arrange for colorectal cancer screening annually this decade. Then you draw routine fasting lipids because he has gained 5 lb (2.26 kg) during the past year and also draw in the same specimen serum TSH. The test results return normal except for TSH, whose level is 6.2 IU/mL (normal is 0.4 to 4.8). Each of the following may constitute explanations for this finding, except which factor?
A. Failure of patient to comply with the prescribed dosage of levothyroxine.
B. Inadequate dosage of levothyroxine prescribed.
C. The prescribed levothyroxine is malabsorbed.
D. The patient has secondary hypothyroidism.
E. There may be a comorbid autoimmune condition.
1. A 25-year-old woman complains of fatigue and cold intolerance increasing over the past 3 months. On examination, she manifests a somewhat dry skin, which she says is a change from her usual. She admits to being puzzled and saddened over the situation. Her apical heart rate is 68 in a regular rhythm. Blood pressure is 110/68. The TSH level is 0.3 IU/mL (0.4 to 4.8). She gives a further history of being on bromocriptine for a microprolactinoma. Which of the following is the likely cause of her condition?
A. Hashimoto thyroiditis
B. Panhypopituitarism
C. Secondary hypothyroidism
D. Primary hypothyroidism
E. Primary hyperthyroidism
You are caring for a 35-year-old man who is complaining of fatigue and an inability to gain weight. Laboratory evaluation reveals a TSH of 6.0 mIU/L (H) but a normal free T 4. Which of the following is the best next step?
A. Test for antithyroid peroxidase.
B. Test for thyroid autoantibodies.
C. Treat with levothyroxine.
D. Treat with levothyroxine and T 3.
E. Monitor at yearly intervals
Which of the following statements about hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma is true?
A. Treatment involves intravenous administration of glucose.
B. Associated laboratory findings include elevated serum lactates.
C. Treatment involves fluid administration
D. It is associated with fluid overload.
E. It is usually associated with type 1 adult-onset diabetes mellitus.
144. Which of the following test results supports the diagnosis of Graves' disease?
A. Decreased TSH
B. Increased TSH
C. Decreased thyroxine (T4) levels
D. Decreased triiodothyronine (T3) levels
E. None of the above
145. In screening for primary thyroid disease (hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism), which of the following serum tests is the most sensitive?
A. Free tetraiodothyronine (FT 4 )
B. Triiodothyronine (T 3 )
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Antithyroglobulin antibodies
E. Anti – TPO
A 45-year-old white woman is undergoing a routine annual preventive health examination. After reviewing the routine mammogram and before performing the routine breast and pelvic examination, you proceed to a head-to-toe brief physical examination. You discover a palpable thyroid nodule that seems to be about 2.5 cm in diameter. Which of the following blood tests would be the most logical, in addition to certain routine medical profiles?
A. Serum lipids
B. Free T 4 and TSH
C. Protein-bound iodine
D. T 3 resin uptake and total T 4
E. Timed Achilles heel reflex
147. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism? Harrison’s
A. A 21-year-old female with a 2-week history of a painful thyroid, normal T4,normal T3, increased TSH
B. A 38-year-old male with a history of a painful thyroid 4 months ago,fatigue, malaise, low free T4, low T3, and elevated TSH
C. A 31-year-old female with a painless enlarged thyroid, low TSH, elevated T4, elevated free T4
D. A 45-year-old male with a painful thyroid, slightly elevated T4, normal TSH,and an ultrasound showing a mass
A 28 year-old woman is noted to have had 10-Ib unintended weight gain hair loss, dry skin and fatigue. She is diagnosed with probable hypothyroidism. Which of the following laboratory test results is most consistent with hypothyroidism?
A. Normal TSH and elevated T /T 3 levels
B. Elevated TSH levels and normal T /T 3
C. Elevated TSH levels and low T /T 3
D. Low TSH and elevated T /T 3 levels
A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, constipation, and weight gain. There is no prior history of neck surgery or radiation. Her voice is hoarse and her skin is dry. Serum TSH is elevated and T4 is low. The most likely cause of these findings is:
A. Autoimmune disease
B. Postablative hypothyroidism
C. Pituitary hypofunction
D. Thyroid carcinoma
. A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because of 2 weeks of neck pain. The pain is constant and sharp (rated at 10 of 10) and is felt in the anterior portion of her neck. She also notes several weeks of loose stools and fatigue. Past medical history is significant for a viral upper respiratory infection about 1 month ago. She has a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), heart rate of 96/min, and blood pressure of 136/82 mm Hg. On neck examination there is diffuse enlargement of the thyroid and it is exquisitely tender to even mild palpation. Her oropharynx. Laboratory studies are sent and reveal a white blood cell count of 14,100 cells/ML with a normal differential, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 53 mm/h. Thyroid antibodies are negative. What is the most likely
A. Autoimmune hypothyroidism
B. Drug-induced thyroiditis
C. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
D. Subacute thyroiditis;
E. All of the following
A 40-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic for a routine visit. On physical examination a 1-cm nodule is palpated in her thyroid. Her physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Her heart rate is 70/min and regular, blood pressure is 126/82 mm Hg, and temperature is 36.7oC (98.0o F). Which of the following is a poor prognostic indicator for the thyroid nodule?
A. Female gender
B. Hoarseness
C. Patient age of 56 years
D. Slow growth of nodule
E. Tender nodule
A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents with complaints of fatigue and feeling cold. He also notes constipation and dry skin. His daughter states he has seemed more forgetful over the past several months. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), heart rate is 48/min, and blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg. Cardiac examination shows bradycardia but normal rhythm, and normal S1 and S2 with no murmurs; the lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally and the abdomen is soft and nontender. The patient’s extremities are cool and puffy with dry, coarse skin. Laboratory studies show a thyroid-stimulating hormone level of 32 μU/L, free thyroxine of 0.3 ng/dL, and total triiodothyronine of 30 ng/dL. What medication is the patient likely taking for his atrial fi brillation?
A. Amiodarone
B. Flecainide
C. Lithium
D. Methimazole
E. Sotalol
153. It is common for throat pain to be referred to the P.191
A. Inner ear
B. Middle ear
C. Ear canal
The mother of a 9-month-old infant brings him in for irritability. The child has been fussy and has not been sleeping well for 2 days. His highest temperature has been 100°F, and he has had a clear runny nose and cough. On examination, the child is crying and irritable. Which physical examination finding, by itself, is insufficient to diagnose acute otitis media?
A. Opaque tympanic membrane
B. Bulging tympanic membrane
C. Impaired tympanic membrane mobility
D. Erythematous tympanic membrane
E. Purulent discharge in the ear canal
A 60 year old female patient has been complaining of left earache of 3 months duration. One month ago a swelling appeared in the left side of the neck that progressively increased in size. 2 days ago cot complained of change of her voice together with dysphagia. On indirect laryngoscopy there was froth in the region behind the larynx. What is the most possible diagnosis
A. Left pyriform fossa malignancy with lymph node metastasis
B. Otitis media complicated with limphadenopathy
C. Peritonsillar abscess
A 35-year-old male graduate student complains of intermittent difficulty swallowing for the last 3 months. He notes that this happened 6 years ago and lasted for about 7 months. Which of the following symptoms would most enable you to reassure the patient that he does not have an organic basis for the dysphagia?
A. Rapidly progressing dysphagia with weight loss
B. Slowly progressing dysphagia, over months or years
C. Intermittent acute symptoms or even acute obstruction
D. Dysphagia for both solids and liquids
E. Odynophagia
A 25 year old male presented to the ENT emergency room with severe right side throat pain, inability to swallow, accompanied by right earache of 2 days duration. The patient was unable to open his mouth and was feverish 40 C. On examination there was a tender swelling at the angle of the mandible The patient gave a history of sore throat and fever 39 C during the last week. What is the most possible diagnosis in this case?
A. Right pyriform fossa malignancy wroth lymph node metastasis
B. Peritonsillar abscess
C. Acute otitis media
D. Acute tonzillitis
A 12-year-old female patient is diagnosed as having streptococcal pharyngitis. To prevent rheumatic fever in this child, how soon must the treatment begin to eradicate the Streptococcus
A. 48 hours
B. Five days
C. Nine days
D. Fifteen days
E. Twenty days
A 22-year-old female patient is diagnosed as having streptococcal pharyngitis. To prevent rheumatic fever in this child, how soon must the treatment begin to eradicate the Streptococcus
A. 48 hours
B. Five days
C. Seven days
D. Fifteen days
A 21-year-old woman presents with a complaint of sore throat. She was in her usual state of health until 3 days ago, when she developed a nonproductive cough, nasal drainage, ear pain, and a sore throat. She denies having shortness of breath, sputum production, fever, rash, joint pains, or gastrointestinal symptoms. She also denies having been in contact with sick persons. For the past 2 years, she has been in a sexual relationship with a single sexual partner. On physical examination, the patient is found to have erythema of the posterior pharynx and nasal turbinates. Small, bilateral, serous, middle-ear fluid collections are noted. Lung examination is normal. The patient is afebrile. She requests antibiotics, stating that she always improves much more quickly with this therapy. Which of the following statements regarding pharyngitis is true?
A. Group A streptococci are the most common cause of pharyngitis
B. Four clinical criteria have been proposed as suggestive of group A streptococcal pharyngitis: tonsillar exudates, tender anterior adenopathy, absence of cough, and history of fever
C. Office-based rapid diagnostic tests for group A streptococcal pharyngitis have a sensitivity of nearly 100%
D. Pneumococci and staphylococci are emerging causes of pharyngitis
. A 35 year-old boy presents to the physician's office complaining of fatigue, headache, myalgias, and sore throat that have been continuous for 1.5 weeks. The patient has generalized lymphadenopathy of the cervicaland submandibular nodes, in addition to splenomegaly. His tonsils are significantly enlarged with exu- date. Peripheral blood smear shows 65% lymphocytes, with 15% atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely cause of his syndrome?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Human herpes virus
C. Human herpes virus
D. GABHIS phangitis
E. Acute thyroiditis
. Which of the following causes of Abdominal Pain Based on Location is correct:
A. Diffuse: generalized peritonitis from perforation or rupture of an organ
B. Right lower quadrant (RLQ): appendix
C. Right upper quadrant (RUQ): gallbladder
D. All of the above
Which of the following causes of Abdominal Pain Based on Location and Quality is correct
A. Diffuse: generalized peritonitis from perforation or rupture of an organ
B. Right upper quadrant (RUQ): gallbladder
C. Left lower quadrant (LLO): sigmoid colon
D. Right lower quadrant (RLQ): appendix
E. All of the above
What is true about abdominal pain?
A. Can signal severe illness
B. Is a common childhood complaint
C. Pain associated with vomiting, dehydration and signs of inflammation needs thorough evaluation
D. All of the above
A 53-year-old obese woman presents to your office complaining of the recent onset of abdominal pain. She describes pain that starts in the mid epigastric region, radiating to the back. It is associated with nausea and vomiting. Past history of alcohol use is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
A 42-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of the recent onset of abdominal pain. She describes pain that starts in the midepigastric region, radiating to the back. It is associated with nausea and vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Gallbladder disease
D. Esophageal spasm
E. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
. A 28-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of diarrhea of 10 months’ duration. He is a graduate student and is currently writing a thesis. He has been sexually active with men in the past but not during the past 2 years. He denies experiencing weight loss or other constitutional symptoms. He notes no blood in the stool. He has no medical history. He explains that he has not sought attention before now because the problem is intermittent, and he notes that he sometimes experiences constipation rather than diarrhea. You include irritable bowel syndrome in your differential diagnosis. Which of the following descriptions is characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome?
A. Painless diarrhea that occurs during the day or night
B. Abdominal pain with defecation and an altered bowel habit
C. Painless, chronic watery diarrhea of moderate severity
D. Diarrhea associated with postprandial flushing and a drop in blood pressure
168. Which of the following best describes irritable bowel syndrome?
A. Painless diarrhea that occurs during the day or night
B. Abdominal pain with defecation and an altered bowel habit
C. Painless, chronic watery diarrhea of moderate severity
D. Diarrhea associated with postprandial flushing and a drop in blood pressure
. A 58-year-old woman presents to her internist with a 2-day history of low-grade fever and RUQ abdominal pain. She reports nausea but denies vomiting or diarrhea. On physical examination, she is pale and jaundiced. Her temperature is 38.1°C. She has RUQ tenderness without rigidity or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. Her white blood cell count is 16,000/μL and urinalysis shows no red or white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Right-sided pyelonephritis
B. Right lower lobe pneumonia
C. High retrocecal appendicitis
D. Cholecystitis → Cholangitis
E. Gastritis
A 40-year-old Asian woman presents to the emergency department complaining of intermittent epigastric pain. The pain is severe, lasts for a few hours, and is sometimes accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Her bowel movements have been normal. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), pulse is 100/min, blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Physical examination reveals moderate obesity and mildly icteric sclerae. Bowel sounds are normal, with an abrupt halt of inspiration upon palpation of the RUQ, and guarding is noted. Laboratory values reveal a WBC count of 13,000/mm³, total bilirubin of 3.3 mg/dL, and normal liver enzymes and alkaline phosphatase levels. Which of the following is the first diagnostic imaging study that should be performed?
A. CT
B. Flat and upright plain x-rays of the abdomen
C. Hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid scan
D. MRI
E. Ultrasound of the RUQ
171. All of the following statements is correct, except: P.225
A. History and physical examination alone are often adequate to begin initial treatment for urinary tract infection
B. Lipase and amylase are not useful tests for diagnosing pancreatitis;
C. Ultrasound is the most helpful initial test if you suspect cholecystitis
D. CT scan is the most helpful test for diagnosing pancreatitis
172. Which of these is correct?
A. Colic usually occurs in infants greater than 3 months of age
B. Fever often accompanies colic
C. Colic is very rarely seen
D. None of the above is correct
An 80-year-old man presents with mild, crampy, bilateral lower quadrant pain, decreased appetite, and low-grade fever for about 48 hours. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Small-bowel obstruction
B. Appendicitis
C. Constipation
D. Irritable-bowel syndrome (IBS)
E. Pancreatitis
50 year-old women presents with mild, crampy, right lower quadrant pain, decreased appetite, and low-grade fever for about 48 hours. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
A. Small-bowel obstruction
B. Appendicitis
C. Constipation
D. Irritable-bowel syndrome (IBS)
E. Pancreatitis
175. Pain from distended intestines is appreciated in
A. In the upper right quadrant
B. mid-abdomen
C. epigastrium
176. The diagnosis of GERD is typically made by
A. Depends on the age of the patient
B. Physical examination
C. A detailed history
D. Endoscopy
You are seeing a 75-year-old patient with complaints of heartburn, regurgitation, and belching. You suspect GERD. Which symptom, if present, would necessitate a referral for an upper endoscopy?
A. Pain radiating to the back
B. Dysphagia
C. Chronic use of NSAIDs for coexisting arthritis
D. Bloating
E. Nausea
A 55-year-old female enters an urgent care center with a complaint of acute abdominal pain. She relates two attacks of less severe abdominal pain within the past 3 months. The pain radiates through to the back opposite the epigastric area and seems to be relieved by leaning forward. Each of the following is true regarding this case excep
A. The most sensitive diagnostic test is the serum amylase.
B. Lipase elevation begins within 4 to 8 hours and remains elevated 8 to 14 days.
C. The vast majority of attacks are mild and not fatal.
D. The severity of disease is directly proportionate to the size of the amylase elevation.
E. This patient must be treated to prevent delirium tremens while managing the underlying condition.
A 72-year-old woman is in the surgical intensive care unit after a carotid endarterectomy. She has been taking clindamyein and ciprofl oxacin for the past 13 days. On postoperative day 2 the patient is febrile and tachycardic with a high WBC count and a low RBC count. She is also noted to be dehydrated and hypotensive. On physical examination she is distended and has abdominal tenderness with rebound andguarding. Stool is sent for Gram stain and analysis for fecal leukocytes, fecal occult blood, and Clostridium diffi cile toxin. Which of the following is most likely present in the stool sample? CK-USMLE
A. Gram-positive cocci
B. Gram-positive cocci
C. Spores and hyphae
D. Clostridium diffi cile toxin
E. Gram-negative rods
A 45-year-old HIV-positive woman comes to her primary care physician complaining of a 2-day history of bloody diarrhea. She states that she has been feeling well until 2 days ago, when she developed abdominal pain. She denies fevers, chills, night sweats, nausea, or vomiting. She admits to feeling tired over the last couple of weeks and has had a 2.3-kg (5-lb) weight loss over the past 2 weeks. Her stool sample shows WBCs and RBCs. Her Gram stain is shown in the image. Her CD4+ cell count is 201/mm³. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this woman’s symptoms? Image courtesy of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’s Public Health Image Library.
A. Escherichia coli
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Legionella
D. Mycobacterium avium complex
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
1. A 63-year-old man with diabetes is called by his primary care physician because of abnormal liver function test results, as follows: Aspartate aminotransferase: 85 U/L, Alanine aminotransferase: 102 U/L, Alkaline phosphatase: 180 U/L, Total bilirubin: 1.9 mg/dL On physical examination his liver is enlarged. His skin has a slightly yellow hue, especially on his face. The review of symptoms is signifi cant for some weight loss, weakness, arthritis in his hands, and inability to achieve an erection. What test would generate the most likely diagnosis
A. Blood smear
B. CT scan of the abdomen
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
D. Fasting transferrin saturation levels
E. Liver biopsy
A 41-year-old man presents for evaluation of upper Gl discomfort present over the last 2 months. He says that he has a "full" sensation in the epigastric region. He denies blood in his stool, denies vomiting, and has had no dysphagia. He has lost 10 lb in the last few weeks unintentionally, which he attributes to not eating. His mother has hemorrhoids, and no family member has ever had colon cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in workup of this patient?
A. Colonoscopy
B. PPI therapy for 8 weeks
C. Fecal occult blood test
D. Upper endoscopy
183. Which of the following H pylori eradication therapy regimen is correct: P.249 (Dyspe)
A. Bismuth subsalicylate and ornidazole
B. Metronidazole and tetracycline
C. Ciprofloxacin, tetracycline and PPI;
D. PPI (proton pump Inhibitor), clarithromycin and amoxicillin
E. H2 receptor antagonist, Bismuth subsalicylate and ornidazole;
60-year-old man comes with persistent epigastric pain and nausea. Pain began after taking NSAIDs for headache. He took PPI for 2 weeks with mild relief. After stopping PPI pain began again. He has loss of appetite and occasionally nausea. He is a smoker, without other medical problems. Physical examination shows tenderness in epigastric area. Upper endoscopy reveals gastric erythema and a mass in the body of the stomach. Biopsy is competent with low-grade lymphoma from the mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). Which of the following is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this condition?
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Salt-preserved foods
D. Helicobacter pylori infection
A 62-year-old man presents with dark tarry stools and light-headedness. Upper endoscopy finds an ulcerating lesion in his stomach and biopsies confirm gastric cancer. Which of the following is a risk factor for carcinoma of the stomach?
A. Helicobacter pylori infection
B. High socioeconomic status
C. High protein diet
D. High alcohol consumption
E. High fat diet
Which of the following is the most important, productive, and practical reason to offer or refer for upper endoscopy in any patient over 45 years with persistent dyspepsia?
A. To diagnose gastric peptic ulcer
B. To diagnose gastroesophageal reflux
C. To diagnose early stomach cancer
D. To diagnose peptic duodenal ulcer disease
E. To diagnose atrophic gastritis
What may be the possible diagnosis for 3-week-old boy with 2 days of projectile nonbilious vomiting and constant feeding
A. Malrotation with intermittent volvulus
B. Intussusception
C. Esophageal foreign body
D. Pyloric stenosis
E. Volvulus
A new mother brings her infant to see you to discuss his vomiting. He is 4 weeks old and is exclusively breast-fed. He vomits with every meal. On examination, his abdomen is distended with normal bowel sounds, and he appears dehydrated. He has lost 4 oz since his visit with you 2 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Allergy to breast milk
B. GERD
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Intussusception
E. Small-bowel obstruction
. You are caring for a 12-year-old boy with psychiatric and neurologic abnormalities. Laboratory evaluation show high serum and urine copper levels. Eye examination reveals Kayser Fleischer rings. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?
A. Wilson's disease
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Viral hepatitis
A 15-year-old girl presents with malaise, fatigue, depression, and clinical evidence of hepatitis in the absence of viral causation. An older sister is awaiting liver transplantation. Which of the following blood studies may be most specifically helpful in establishing the diagnosis? NMS
A. ANA levels
B. Anti-SMA levels
C. Complete blood count
D. Ceruloplasmin level
E. Serum iron, total iron-binding capacity, and ferritin levels
1. You are evaluating a 65-year-old man who complains about arthritis, heart disease, erectile dysfunction. Laboratory evaluation reveals high blood iron transferrin saturation. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her problem? P.
A. Wilson disease
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Gilbert disease
D. Hemochromatosis
A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, anorexia, brown urine, and malaise. She denies alcohol intake entirely, illicit drug use, and history of treatment with blood products, and she is on no medications that may cause elevation of hepatocellular enzymes. Examination reveals scleral icterus and mildly tender hepatomegaly. Both AST and ALT levels are elevated to four times normal, and smooth muscle antibody (SMA) and antinuclear antibody (ANA) levels are positive. She has a history of Hashimoto thyroiditis, but no history suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase are both elevated to twice normal limits. A hepatitis profile yields no evidence of hepatitides A, B, C, or E. Which of the following may be the best initial presumptive diagnosis?
A. PSC
B. PBC
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Choledocholithiasis
E. Autoimmune hepatitis
193. Which of the following statements is true about chronic hepatitis B? P.233 (Liver)
A. Screening for HBV includes measure HBV DNA levels
B. HBV is defined as chronic if an acute HBV infection persists more than 1 months;
C. Chronic HBV don't increases the risk of cirrhosis and HCC;
D. Serum HBsAg is an indication for HBV infection, whereas HBsAb is a marker of immunity or vaccination to HBV;
E. All of the above
A 7 month male infant is brought to his pediatrician's office for a well-child visit. He has a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) and clear nasal drainage. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. The infant is able to lift his head when prone, track past the midline, and coo. His immunization record indicates that he received is first hepatitis B vaccination at birth. Assuming this child is developing normally, which vaccines should this infant receive today?
A. Hepatitis B, diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, inactivated poliomyelitis, and pneumococcal conjugate
B. Hepatitis B and diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis only
C. None; schedule a return visit when the child's nasal congestion subsides,and administer the Immunizations
D. Hepatitis B, diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis, and inactivated poliomyelitis
E. Hepatitis B only
. A 19-years- old sexually active homosexual man asks you about his risks for viral hepatitis. He is currently asymptomatic and unsure of his immune status. Which of the following should you recommend?
A. Vaccination against hepatitis A only
B. Vaccination against hepatitis B only
C. Vaccinations against both hepatitis A and B
D. Vaccination against hepatitis A, B and C
. Which of the following is the best indicator of a high degree of hepatitis B virus (HBV) replication, hence marker of infectivity?
A. HBsAg
B. HBcAg
C. HBeAg
D. Anti-HBs
E. Anti-HBc
You check serologies on a patient exposed to hepatitis B. His serologies are: HBsAg-Negative, HBeAg-Negative, Anti-HBs- Positive, Anti-Hb core IgGpositive. Which of the following terms best describes his disease status
A. Acute infection, early phase
B. Acute infection, recovery phase
C. Previous exposure with immunity
D. Vaccination
. You check serologies on a patient exposed to hepatitis B. His serologies are shown below: • HBsAg: Negative • HBeAg: Negative • Anti-HBs: Positive • Anti-HBe: Negative Which of the following terms best describes his disease status?
A. Acute infection, early phase
B. Acute infection, window phase
C. Acute infection, recovery phase
D. Previous exposure with immunity
E. Vaccination
199. Which of the following forms of hepatitis does NOT have a chronic state?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
200. Which of the following is the most easily passed by a blood donor?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
The Center for Disease Control and Prevention recommends that the following high-risk individuals should be tested for HCV infection. Which of following are a high risk: P.235
A. Intravenous drug users
B. People with HIV infection
C. Individuals with unexplained abnormal liver function tests
D. All of the above
E. Non of the above
Which of the following is the next most common cause of blood transfusion-related hepatitis after hepatitis B?
A. hepatitis A
B. Epstein-Barr hepatitis
C. hepatitis C
D. hepatitis D
E. HIV hepatitis
A 26-year-old woman presents to your clinic and is interested in getting pregnant. She seeks your advice regarding vaccines she should obtain, and in particular asks about the hepatitis B vaccine. She works as a receptionist for a local business, denies alcohol or illicit drug use, and is in a monogamous relationship. Which of the following is true regarding hepatitis B vaccination?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine consists of two IM doses 1 month apart.
B. Only patients with defined risk factors need to be vaccinated.
C. Pregnancy is not a contraindication to the hepatitis B vaccine.
D. This patient’s hepatitis serologies should be checked before vaccination.
E. Vaccination should not be administered to children under 2 years old.
A patient that you follow has recently started volunteering at a drug treatment hospital and requires hepatitis B vaccination. You find that he is hepatitis B surface antibody positive. Which of the following would be the best guideline to follow in this case?
A. No vaccination is necessary based on his laboratory evaluation.
B. Administer one dose of hepatitis B vaccine.
C. Administer two doses of hepatitis B vaccine, at least 1 month apart.
D. Administer two doses of hepatitis B vaccine, at least 6 months apart.
E. Administer three doses of hepatitis B vaccine at the appropriate time interval.
205. A patient requires hepatitis B vaccination. You find that he is hepatitis B surface antibody positive. Which of the following would be the best guideline to follow in this case
A. No vaccination is necessary based on his laboratory evaluation.
B. Administer one dose of hepatitis B vaccine.
C. Administer two doses of hepatitis B vaccine, at least 1 month apart.
D. Administer two doses of hepatitis B vaccine, at least 6 months apart.
206. Which of the following immunizations should be given in the newborn period? NMS
A. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP), first dose
B. Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), first dose
C. Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV), first dose
D. Pneumococcal vaccine (PCV), first dose
E. Hepatitis B (HepB), first dose
A 67 year old man comes to the office with 3 month history of fatigue and dyspnea on exertion. She does not take medicines and did not have cardiovascular disorders. Body temperature is normal, BP 160/80mm, pulse 110, respirations-22. Auscultation -2/6 mid-systolic murmur in the second right intercostal space with normal S2 splitting. No peripheral edema is noted. Rectal examination shows guaiac negative stools. ECG-sinus tachycardia. According to laboratory blood tests-Iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Colonoscopy
B. Bone marrow biopsy
C. Echocardiography
D. Colonoscopy and endoscopy
.A 35 year-old woman presents to the clinic with 3 days of abdominal discomfort and diarrhea with mucus and blood. She was recently hospitalized and finished a course of antibiotics for pneumonia. Stool sample is positive for WBCs Which of the following is most likely etiologic factor:
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Staphyloccosul aureus
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Bacillus cereus
9.22-year-old woman comes to the emergency department accompanied by her boyfriend. She is complaining of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and cramping over the past hour. She denies fever, headaches, or watery or bloody stools. She states that she was feeling fi ne until an hour ago, when she began experiencing the onset of her symptoms. She has been on a no-carbohydrate diet for the past 3 weeks. Her last meal was an egg salad for lunch approximately 3 hours ago. She denies any travel in her history. Her physical examination is normal except for mild abdominal tenderness with palpation. Stool testing is guaiac negative and reveals no fecal leukocytes. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Vibrio cholerae
F. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
An 11-month-old male infant with intermittent bouts of crying and nonbilious vomiting, with a history of Meckel diverticulum. A small, elongated mass is felt on right side of his abdomen. What is the most possible diagnosis for this baby?
A. Malrotation with intermittent volvulus
B. Intussusception
C. Esophageal foreign body
D. Pyloric stenosis
E. Volvulus
A 30-year -old man comes to the office due to low back pain and stiffness for 2 months. His pain is worse in the morning and improves with activity. The patient has also had intermittent diarrhea and lower abdominal pain for the past 3 months. He tried ibuprofen, which helped his back pain, but made his diarrhea worse. He has not travelled abroad. He has no other medical problems. Physical examination shows limited spine flexion and tenderness in the lower back. lab, studies show anemia and thrombocytosis. Stool cultures are negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Celiac disease
B. Inflammatory bowel disease
C. Paraneoplastic syndrome
D. Reactive arthritis from diarrhea
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
F. Spinal osteomyelitis
A 25-year-old woman comes to your office worried that she might have IBS, which she heard about on the news. She reports abdominal pain and diarrhea for 3 months. She also reports observing blood in her stool several times. Her physical examination is normal except for a hemoccult-positive test after a rectal examination. While looking over her records you notice that she has lost 20 lb since she last saw you 3 months ago. Which of the following is an appropriate next step?
A. Refer her for cognitive behavioral therapy.
B. Offer her symptomatic relief with loperamide.
C. Recommend that she take fiber for better bowel regulation.
D. Obtain colonoscopy
A 40-year-old man contracts a bacterial gastroenteritis associated with fever, severe abdominal pain, and profuse diarrhea. The etiologic agent is never determined. Which of the following statements accurately characterizes the complications that may ensue in this patient?
A. As many as 40% of patients with Guillain-Barré syndrome had recent Shigella infection
B. The arthritis associated with Campylobacter infection results from bacteremic spread of infection to joints
C. Antibiotic treatment of infection caused by enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)may increase the risk of developing hemolytic-uremic syndrome(HUS)
D. HUS most commonly results from infection with Shigella
E. The development of erythema nodosum suggests infection with Salmonella
4. A 22 year old man comes in the office with a 5 week history of diarrhea. There is no blood in the stool. He recently returned from Africa, used unboiled water and had had foul smelling stool, abdominal cramps and bloating. Antibiotic treatment did not relieved his symptoms. His medical and family history is nor remarkable. He does not take medicines, illicit drugs and is not a smoker. Body temperature and BP are normal, pulse-86. Physical examination shows soft, non tender abdomen, with increased bowel sounds. Which of the following is the best next step?
A. Ciprofloxacin for 10 days
B. Colonoscopy with biopsy
C. CT scan of the abdomen
D. Stool antigen testing for Giardia
215. Which of the following parasite is capable of causing intestinal malabsorption? NMS
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Necator americanus
E. Entamoeba histolytica
A 31 year old man has acute diarrhea after he arrived from south America. The most effective treatment of his diarrhea is
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
B. Doxycycline
C. Metronidazole
D. Ciprofloxacin
217. The most effective drug for the treatment of traveler's diarrhea is Bratton’s
A. Tetracycline
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
C. Doxycycline
D. Metronidazole
E. Ciprofloxacin
218. Which of the following about acute bronchitis is correct: P.627
A. The prevalence of acute bronchitis peaks in the summer and is much less common in the winter
B. Viral infection is the primary cause of most episodes of acute bronchitis
C. Bacterial infection is the most common cause of most episodes of acute bronchitis
D. A chest x-ray should be performed for any patient with acute bronchitis
E. All of the above
.A 34-year-old man seeks evaluation of a cough. His illness began with a sore throat and nasal congestion 5 days ago. He subsequently developed a cough productive of green sputum and a burning sensation in the retrosternal chest that occurs with coughing spells. He has felt cold at times but denies shaking chills, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. There is a history of seasonal allergies, but he takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. He is a nonsmoker who typically jogs 3 miles, four times weekly. Pulse oximetry reveals a normal resting oxygen saturation; the patient's temperature is 100.2° F (37.9° C). The chest is clear to percussion, with audible expiratory wheezes. After taking a deep breath, the patient coughs, producing green sputum. A Gram stain of the specimen reveals polymorphonuclear and mononuclear cells without microorganisms. A chest x-ray is normal. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for antimicrobial treatment of this patient's condition?
A. No antimicrobial treatment
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate, 875 mg p.o., b.i.d., for 10 days
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, 1 double-strength tablet p.o., b.i.d., for 10 days
D. Azithromycin, 500 mg p.o. once, then 250 mg p.o., q.d., for 4 days
E. Levofloxacin, 250 mg p.o., q.d., for 10 days
0. A 56-year-old patient who has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 40 years presents to your office for a second opinion. His previous physician recently diagnosed him as having chronic bronchitis. The patient reports that no work-up was done, "not even a chest x-ray." The patient asks, "How can my doctor know I have chronic bronchitis without doing any sort of examination or workup?" Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient's question?
A. "You are right; at least a chest x-ray is needed to make this diagnosis."
B. "You are right; you need some blood work, lung function tests, and a chest x-ray before this diagnosis can be made."
C. "Given your history of smoking, you must have chronic bronchitis."
D. "The diagnosis is made on the basis of history alone; given your smoking history, if you have a cough with sputum production for most days for at least 3 months each year for 2 or more years, chronic bronchitis is the correct diagnosis."
221. The most common cause of bronchiolitis is P.627
A. Adenovirus
B. Parainfluenza
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
222. Treatment of bronchiolitis should include all of the following except
A. Intravenous fluid and monitoring of nutritional status
B. Supplemental oxygen for infants with hypoxia
C. Antibiotics
223. Which of the following statements about influenza is true? Board
A. Diagnosis requires acute and convalescent titers.
B. Symptoms usually include cough and coryza.
C. A lacy rash is usually seen on the trunk and back
D. Immunization for healthy adults should begin at 65 years of age.
E. Influenza C is the most common cause of the epidemic flu.
224. Which of the following statements about influenza is true?
A. Symptoms rarely include cough and coryza.
B. Influenza C is the most common cause of the epidemic flu.
C. Diagnosis requires acute and convalescent titers.
D. Immunization for healthy adults should begin at 65 years of age.
E. Neuroaminidase inhibitors can shorten the course of illness if given within the first 48 hours of the onset of symptoms.
225. According to the recommendations of the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, all of the following should receive the influenza vaccine except:
A. All children between the ages of 6 months and 18 years
B. All infants younger than 6 months of age
C. Health care personnel
D. Pregnant individuals
226. You are caring for a family and find that the mother would like her children vaccinated against influenza. Her children are aged 5 months, 22 months. Which of the following represents current immunization recommendations for influenza?
A. None of her children should be vaccinated.
B. The 5-month-old should be vaccinated.
C. The 22-month-old should be vaccinated.
D. Both should be vaccinated.
You are caring for a family and find that the mother would like her children vaccinated against influenza. Her children are aged 4 months, 24 months, and 5 years. Which of the following represents current immunization recommendations for influenza?
A. None of her children should be vaccinated.
B. The 4-month-old and the 24-month-old should be vaccinated.
C. The 24-month-old and the 5-year-old should be vaccinated.
D. Only the 24-month-old should be vaccinated.
E. All the children should be vaccinated.
. A 68-year-old patient is seen for a general examination. Current recommendations for immunizations include B
A. Tetanus booster every 5 years
B. Influenza vaccination yearly
C. Pneumococcal vaccination yearly
D. Hepatitis booster every 5 years
E. Meningococcal vaccination.
8. Which of the following scenarios is appropriate to allow outpatient treatment for community acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
A. 69-year old female with CAP and respiration rate 31
B. 58-year old female with CAP, BP 85/60mm and some confusion
C. 30-year-old female with CAP, respiratory rate 34/min, and blood pressure of 90/50mmHg
D. 64-year old male with CAP and respiratory rate of 18/min
9.The most common cause of a community-acquired pneumonia in a 45-year-old otherwise healthy man is
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Legionella pneumoniae
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A 57-year-old woman with diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has smoked 2 packs per day for 40 years has developed fever, headache, purulent cough, and anorexia. She was recently discharged from a hospital, with likely diagnosis of Legionnaires disease in the patient. Which of the following would support the diagnosis of Legionnaires disease in this patient?
A. A Gram stain of the sputum that reveals more bacteria than neutrophils
B. Serum creatine kinase test
C. Ear pain
D. Constipation
E. An incubation period of 2 to 4 weeks
. A 53-year-old man with diabetes presents to the emergency department for the evaluation of fever. He was in his usual state of health until 36 hours ago, when he developed fever and fatigue; these symptoms were followed by a productive cough. Over the past few hours, he has developed worsening shortness of breath, cough, and dizziness. He has had diabetes mellitus for many years, and he states that he has not seen a physician in the past 12 months. On physical examination, the patient is tachycardic and tachypnic. His blood pressure is 94/46 mm Hg, he is orthostatic, and his temperature is 102.7° F (39.3° C). Hemoglobin O2 saturation is 88% on room air. The patient has rales and dullness to percussion at the right pulmonary base. Chest x-ray reveals a right lower lobe infiltrate. Laboratory data reveal a leukocytosis with left shift, as well as mild renal insufficiency. Which of the following statements regarding community-acquired pneumonia is true?
A. Bacterial pneumonia is principally spread person to person
B. The inflammatory response to Streptococcus pneumoniae or Haemophilusinfluenzae often produces lobar consolidation and significant tissue necrosis
C. For patients who do not require hospitalization, advanced macrolides,doxycycline, and respiratory fluoroquinolones are reasonable choices for therapy
D. For patients with hospital-acquired pneumonia, advanced macro- lides,vancomycin, or doxycycline will suffice as monotherapies
To assist in the decision whether to hospitalize a patient with community acquired pneumonia (CAP), each of the following may be a factor in favor of hospitalization EXCEPT for which one?
A. The patient is confused
B. Serum creatinine >2.0 mg/dL
C. Respiratory rate >30
D. Blood pressure < 90 mm Hg
E. Age >64 years
An acutely ill child presents to the emergency department with the signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis. The diagnosis should be confirmed with direct visualization of the epiglottis?
A. True
B. False
234. A 59-year-old man with a known history of COPD presents with worsening dyspnea. On examination, he is febrile. His breath sounds are decreased bilaterally. He is noted to have jugular venous distension (JVD) and 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his increasing dyspnea?
A. COPD exacerbation
B. Pneumonia
C. Cor pulmonale
D. Pneumothorax
A 60-year-old man is diagnosed with moderately severe (stage II) COPD. He admits to a long history of cigarette smoking and is still currently smoking in counseling him about the benefits of smoking cessation, which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. By quitting, his pulmonary function will significantly improve.
B. By quitting, his current pulmonary function will be unchanged, but the rate of pulmonary function decline will slow.
C. By quitting, his current pulmonary function and the rate of decline are unchanged, but there are cardiovascular benefits.
D. By quitting, his pulmonary function will approach that of a nonsmoker of the same age.
236. A 26-year-old woman presents to your office for the evaluation of fever. She was in her usual state of health until 24 hours ago, when she developed fatigue, myalgias, and severe headache. Her temperature rose to 102° F (38.9° C), and she developed a nonproductive cough and chest tightness. She reports worsening nausea and diarrhea over the same period. She denies having any sick contacts, and she was previously healthy. On physical examination, her temperature is 101.5° F (38.6° C). Bilateral rales with tachycardia are noted. She has no meningismus. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral, patchy air-space and interstitial infiltrates. She is admitted to the hospital for further evaluation and monitoring. Which of the following statements regarding Legionnaires disease is true?
A. Legionella pneumophila is typically acquired by person-to-person contact
B. There are currently no available methods of rapidly diagnosing infection with L. pneumophila
C. Current evidence indicates that azithromycin or levofloxacin is the treatment of choice
D. In patients in whom monotherapy with azithromycin or levofloxacin fails,there are no other medical alternatives
. A 38-year-old woman presents with progressively worsening dyspnea and cough. She has never smoked cigarettes, has no known passive smoke exposure, and does not have any occupational exposure to chemicals. Pulmonary function testing shows obstructive lung disease that does not respond to bronchodilators. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?
A. Radon exposure at home
B. COPD
C. a1-Antitrypsin deficiency
D. Asthma
You are treating a patient with COPD for an acute exacerbation. Assuming he has no allergies to medications, which of the following is true regarding antibiotic treatment in this case?
A. He should be prescribed amoxicillin.
B. He should be prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C. He should be prescribed doxycycline.
D. He should be prescribed azithromycin.
E. No antibiotics are necessary.
Which of the following medications is considered the treatment of choice for Bordetella pertussis infection?
A. Azithromycin
B. Cefuroxime
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Penicillin
E. Tetracycline
Which of the following is the medication of choice for the treatment of Legionnaire's disease?
A. Penicillin
B. Cefuroxime
C. Azithromycin
D. Gentamicin
E. Amphotericin
A 12 year old male with 4 days of sore throat comes into the office. He has been afebrile, has rhinorrhea, cough and one day of diarrhea associated with his sore throat. The throat is mildly erythematous with otherwise normal appearing tonsils. The best course of action is
A. Swab his throat and give a 10 day course of antibiotics, you will call him if the culture is negative for group A strep so that he can stop antibiotic treatment.
B. Swab his throat, withhold antibiotics unless his culture is positive.
C. Give him antibiotics without testing for group A strep.
D. Symptomatic treatment
242. Which of the following is true P.644
A. There is a good evidence from randomized controlled trials that mist therapy is effective for the treatment of croup
B. Nebulized albuterol is effective in the treatment of croup
C. Dexamethasone has been shown to be effective in the treatment of croup
D. Antibiotics are indicated in the treatment of croup
A 41-year-old woman presents to your office for the evaluation of fever. She was in her usual state of health until 7 days ago, when she developed fever and severe right facial pain. Her pain and fever have continued, and she has developed purulent nasal drainage and foul breath odor. She admits that she has suffered from similar symptoms in the past but never this severe. She denies having had any contact with sick persons. Her general state of health has been good, although she has a 30 packyear smoking history. On physical examination, the patient’s temperature is 100.5° F (38° C). Her pain is exacerbated when she leans forward, and there is tenderness to palpation over the right maxillary and right frontal sinuses. Each of these sinuses is opaque on transillumination. The rest of the examination is normal. Which of the following statements regarding acute and chronic sinusitis is true? A
A. Ethmoiditis is the most common form of sinusitis in adults
B. The most useful criterion for the diagnosis of bacterial sinusitis is the presence of purulent nasal discharge C. Antihistamines are useful in the treatment of acute sinusitis
D. Antibiotics should be used in patients who are moderately to seriously ill, in patients whose symptoms fail to respond to decongestants, and in those who have complicationsof purulent nasal discharge
C. Antihistamines are useful in the treatment of acute sinusitis
A 36-year-old day care worker presents with generalized malaise and “a cold that won’t go away.” It started a couple of weeks ago with a runny nose and a low-grade fever. She reports that she has now having “coughing fits,” which are sometimes so severe that she vomits. She does not smoke and cannot remember when she last had any immunizations. On examination, you note excessive lacrimation and conjunctival injection. Her lungs are clear. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pertussis
B. Rhinovirus infection
C. Nonasthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis
D. Cough-variant asthma
E. Gastroesophageal reflux
245. Which of the following statements is true regarding pneumococcal vaccination?
A. Healthy individuals older than 50 years should receive the vaccine.
B. Medicare does not cover the cost of pneumococcal vaccination.
C. Adults with previous splenectomy should not receive pneumococcal vaccination.
D. Children younger than 2 years with sickle cell anemia should receive pneumococcal vaccination.
E. Boosters are recommended for individuals older than 65 years if they received their first dose more than 5 years prior to their last injection.
246. Which respiration rate indicates that a child might have a pneumonia? (P.645)
A. RR 29 at age 4 years
B. RR 32 at age 25 month
C. RR 45 at age 4 years
D. RR 50 at age 2 month
A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent nasal congestion, facial pain and cough for the last 10 days. She has been treated with an extended course of nasal decongestants but despit symptoms remain. She is febrile and otherwise looks well. Appropriate management at this time includes
A. CT scan of the sinuses
B. Prescribe antibiotic
C. Add nasal steroids
D. MRI of the sinuses
A 62-year-old man with recently diagnosed emphysema presents to your office in November for a routine examination. He has not had any immunizations in more than 10 years. Which of the following immunizations would be the most appropriate for this individual?
A. Tetanus-diphtheria (Td) only
B. Tdap, pneumococcal, and influenza
C. Pneumococcal and influenza
D. Influenza only
. A recently retired 67-year-old woman presents to you to establish care. She was a smoker for a long time, but quit 5 years ago. She is generally healthy, but her prior physician told her that she has “emphysema.” She was prescribed an “inhaler” to use asneeded and only uses it rarely. She asks about necessary immunizations. Her social history indicates that she lives with her daughter and often cares for her infant granddaughter. Her chart indicates that she had a pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine at age 63 and a Td shot at age 63. Which of the following vaccines should she receive?
A. MMR
B. Tdap
C. Varicella
D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
E. Intranasal influenza
250. All of the following is common cause of cough except: P.626
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Foreign body aspiration
C. Otitis
D. Acute rhinitis/pharyngitis (common cold)
E. Reflux esophagitis
. A 19-year-old male presents with sore throat, fever and cervical lymphadenopathy. A throat culture is done which is positive for group A streptococcus. Treatment is initiated with penicillin. He returns two days later with worsened symptoms, despite taking the medicine. Which of the following is the most appropriate step to do next
A. Assume the patient has infectious mononucleosis and start acyclovir and prednisone
B. Obtain a CBC and Monospot
C. Switch to azitromycin
Which of the following test may assist the clinician discriminating viral from bacterial pneumonia? P.645
A. Sputum cytology
B. C-reactive protein
C. Chest x-ray
D. CBC
E. Procolcitonin
1. Which term is not proper for the family physician:
A. Physician specialist;
B. General profile physician;
C. Primary health care physician;
D. General practitioner
2. The characteristics of family medicine are all, except:
A. Provides first contact of individual, community, society with medical personal;
B. Deals with health problems of individual, community, society regardless of the age, sex, or any other characteristic;
C. Is focused only on health promotion and disease prevention.
3. The family physician's role in the health care community is:
A. Health promotion, healthy life style, prevention of illness and injuries;
B. Assessment of epidemiology (screening for diseases, diagnosing and giving appropriate information in time);
C. Management of chronic diseases, secondary prevention;
D. All of above.
According to Georgian legislation in which cases may a family physician withhold information from the patient about his/her health status:
A. In every case when a patient has a fatal disease;
B. When a patient has advanced cancer;
C. In every case, when the relatives of patient demands:
D. In every case, when the physician is sure, that giving the whole information to the patient will cause significant harm, even if the competent patient explicitly requires information;
E. All of above is false.
5. In which cases it is not obligatory to obtain an informed consent from a patient?
A. Before biomedical research involved patients;
B. Before minor surgery;
C. Before chemotherapy;
D. Before noninvasive procedures;
E. In all above cases it is obligatory to obtain an informed consent
6. Confidential information could be disclosed by health care professional, if:
A. There is patient's consent;
B. Non-disclosure will endanger third person's life and/or health;
C. When the information is planned to be used for educational and scientific purposes and patient's data are anonymized;
D. It is provided by Georgian legislation;
E. All of above
Which of the following statements are true according to Georgian Legislation about patient consent?
A. Patient consent is obligatory before any diagnostic, medical or rehabilitating procedure;
B. Patient consent is obligatory only in cases of using surgery or invasive medical procedures;
C. Patient consent is not obligatory for patient participation in the learning process (examination of patient by students, discussion about patients medical records)
D. True 1 and 3
E. True 2 and 3
Is it admissible to attend medical procedures for individuals who do not participate in medical care?
A. It is admissible;
B. It is not admissible:
C. It is admissible if the patient agrees or requires presence of other personnel;
D. It is admissible in for students;
E. It is admissible for medical personal of the same hospital
9. In which case will you share information about the patient with your colleague?
A. Always when you are talking to colleague
B. Always when you are talking to patient's relative or family member
C. Only if talking to doctor, who takes part in medical care of the patient
D. Always, when you think that it is necessary
E. Always when you are talking to students or residents or young doctors for educational purposes;
10. How do you think, does a patient have a right to get acquainted to medical records?
A. No, the medical records must be available only for medical persons:
B. Except very rare cases, patients must not have right to get acquainted with medical records
C. Patients has a right to get acquainted with medical records
. An asymptomatic 55 years-old-man comes to you for general checkup. Which of the following preventive tests you should make for this person?
A. Blood pressure measurement;
B. BMI measurement
C. ECG
D. True 1 and 2
E. All of the above
28 years old woman admits for health evaluation. Which preventive actions are shown in this case?
A. Ovarial palpation;
B. PAP test;
C. Examination of breast;
D. All above:
E. Correct answers are "2" and "3"
. 34 years old man admits for health evaluation. Which preventive actions are shown in this case?
A. Calculate BMI
B. Ask about tobacco use
C. Ask about alcohol use
D. Ask about Physical activities
E. All above;
. You are making the round which is also attended by elementary course students. How would you act when entering the room?
A. I would ask the patient's permission for the students to attend. I would explain that it is necessary for them to develop as professionals. In case of patient's refusal I would make the round without students
B. I would take the students to the patient's room without agreeing with the patient;
C. I would ask for the patient's permission about the students' attendance. I would explain that it is necessary for them to develop as professionals. In case of the patient's refusal I would not make the round at all, because if we do everything for the health of patients they must help us too.
Which of following doesn't belong to CVD risk factors according to JNC-7 and ESH/ESC recommendation?
A. Smoking;
B. BMI > 25;
C. Age male > 55 years; female > 65 years;
D. Diabetes mellitus;
E. C - reactive protein;
If blood pressure isn't elevated and patient doesn't have CVD risk factors, how often blood pressure should be re-checked?
A. In six month;
B. In two years;
C. Annually;
D. In three years;
E. In five years
{"name":"Family (1) part 2", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"family 14. You are evaluating a 56 year-old obese woman who complains of fatigue. She has polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia. Which of the following laboratory reports confirms the diagnosis of diabetes? P, 5. You are evaluating a 36-year-old obese woman who complains of fatigue. She denies polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, or weight loss. Which of the following laboratory reports confirms the diagnosis of diabetes?, . A 52-year-old obese man presents for follow-up of his hypertension. His blood pressure is well controlled on a daily dose of hydrochlorothiazide. A finger-stick blood sugar test done an hour after he ate lunch was 130 mg\/ dL. Which of the following test results would be diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
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