2nd Gastrointestinal USMLE
A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, congestive heart failure, and atrial fibrillation presents to the ED with several hours of acute onset diffuse abdominal pain. She denies any nausea or vomiting. The pain is constant, but she is unable to localize it. She was diagnosed with a renal artery thrombosis several years ago. Vital signs include HR of 95 beats per minute, BP of 110/70 mm Hg, and temperature of 98°F. Her abdomen is soft and mildly tender, despite her reported severe abdominal pain. Her WBC count is 12,000/μL, hematocrit 38%, platelets 250/μL, and lactate 8 mg/dL. The stool is traced heme-positive. You are concerned for acute mesenteric ischemia. What is the best way to diagnose this condition?
Serum lactate levels
Abdominal radiograph (supine and upright)
CT scan
Angiography
Barium contrast study
An 81-year-old diabetic woman with a history of atrial fibrillation is transferred to your emergency department (ED) from the local nursing home. The note from the facility states that the patient is complaining of abdominal pain, having already vomited once. Her vital signs in the ED are temperature 100.1°F, blood pressure (BP) 105/75 mm Hg, heart rate (HR) 95 beats per minute, and respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute. You examine the patient and focus on her abdomen. Considering that the patient has not stopped moaning in pain since arriving to the ED, you are surprised to find that her abdomen is soft on palpation. You decide to order an abdominal radiographic series. Which of the findings on plain abdominal film is strongly suggestive of mesenteric infarction?
Sentinel loop of bowel
No gas in the rectum
Presence of an ileus
Pneumatosis intestinalis
Air fluid levels
As you palpate the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of a 38-year-old woman’s abdomen, you notice that she stops her inspiration for a brief moment. During the history, the patient states that over the last 2 days she gets pain in her RUQ that radiates to her back shortly after eating. Her vitals include a temperature of 100.4°F, HR of 95 beats per minute, BP of 130/75 mm Hg, and RR of 16 breaths per minute. What is the initial diagnostic modality of choice for this disorder?
Plain film radiograph
Computed tomography (CT) scan
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Radioisotope cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan)
Ultrasonography
An undomiciled 41-year-old man walks into the ED complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He tells you that he has been drinking beer continuously over the previous 18 hours. On examination, his vitals are BP 150/75 mm Hg, HR 104 beats per minute, RR 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 97% on room air, temperature of 99.1°F rectally, and finger stick glucose 81 mg/dL. The patient is alert and oriented, his pupils anicteric. You notice gynecomastia and spider angiomata. His abdomen is soft but tender in the RUQ. Laboratory tests reveal an AST of 212 U/L, ALT 170 U/L, alkaline phosphatase of 98 U/L, total bilirubin of 1.9 mg/dL, international normalized ratio (INR) of 1.3, WBC 12,000/μL. Urinalysis shows 1+ protein. Chest x-ray is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Place a nasogastric tube in the patient’s stomach to remove any remaining ethanol.
Order a HIDA scan to evaluate for acute cholecystitis.
Administer hepatitis B immune globulin.
Send viral hepatitis titers.
Provide supportive care by correcting any fluid and electrolyte imbalances
A 23-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of lower abdominal pain and vaginal spotting for 2 days. Her menstrual cycle is irregular. She has a history of ovarian cysts and is sexually active but always uses condoms. Her BP is 115/75 mm Hg, HR is 75 beats per minute, temperature is 98.9°F, and RR is 16 breaths per minute. Which of the following tests should be obtained next?
Chlamydia antigen test.
β-Human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG).
Transvaginal ultrasound.
Abdominal radiograph.
Observe her abdominal pain, if it resolves discharge her with a diagnosis of menstruation
A 71-year-old obese man is brought to the ED complaining of constant left mid quadrant (LMQ) abdominal pain with radiation into his back. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, peripheral vascular disease, peptic ulcer disease, kidney stones, and gallstones. He smokes a pack of cigarettes and consumes a pint of vodka daily. His BP is 145/80 mm Hg, HR is 90 beats per minute, temperature is 98.9°F, and RR is 16 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. An ECG is read as sinus rhythm with an HR of 88 beats per minute. An abdominal radiograph reveals normal loops of bowel and curvilinear calcification of the aortic wall. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Biliary colic
Nephrolithiasis
Pancreatitis
Small bowel obstruction (SBO)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
A 73-year-old man is seen in the ED for abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. His symptoms have progressively worsened over the past 2 to 3 days. The pain is diffuse and comes in waves. He denies fever or chills, but has a history of constipation. He reports no flatus for 24 hours. Physical examination is notable for diffuse tenderness and voluntary guarding. There is no rebound tenderness. An abdominal radiograph is seen below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Constipation
SBO
Cholelithiasis
Large bowel obstruction
Inflammatory bowel disease
For which of the following patients is an abdominal CT scan contraindicated?
A 52-year-old man with abdominal pain after blunt trauma, negative focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination, BP 125/78 mm Hg, and HR 109 beats per minute
A 22-year-old woman with RLQ pain, negative β-hCG, temperature 100.6°F
A 45-year-old man with abdominal pain, temperature 100.5°F, WBC 11,200/μL, BP 110/70 mm Hg, HR 110 beats per minute, and lipase 250 IU
A 70-year-old man with abdominal pain, an 11-cm pulsatile mass in the epigastrium, BP of 70/50 mm Hg, and HR of 110 beats per minute
A 65-year-old woman with right flank pain that radiates to her groin, microhematuria, BP 165/85 mm Hg, and HR 105 beats per minute
A 63-year-old man is brought to the ED by EMS complaining of severe abdominal pain that began suddenly 6 hours ago. His BP is 145/75 mm Hg and HR is 105 beats per minute and irregular. On examination, you note mild abdominal distention and diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding. Stool is heme positive. Laboratory results reveal WBC 12,500/μL, haematocrit 48%, and lactate 4.2 U/L. ECG shows atrial fibrillation at a rate of 110. A CT scan is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Mesenteric ischemia
Diverticulitis
SBO
Crohn disease
A 21-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever, anorexia, and weight loss for 3 days. Her BP is 127/75 mm Hg, HR is 91 beats per minute, and temperature is 100.8°F. Her abdomen is soft and nontender without rebound or guarding. WBC is 9200/μL, β-hCG is negative, urinalysis is unremarkable, and stool is guaiac positive. She tells you that she has had this similar presentation four times over the past 2 months. Which of the following extraintestinal manifestations is associated with Crohn disease but not ulcerative colitis?
Ankylosing spondylitis
Erythema nodosum
Nephrolithiasis
Thromboembolic disease
Uveitis
An 84-year-old woman with coronary artery disease, congestive heart failure, peripheral vascular disease, and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with dizziness, weakness, and sudden-onset crampy periumbilical pain. The pain is associated with one episode of diarrhea and one episode of emesis. The patient notes she has been having similar pain after meals for “several months” but never this severe. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), heart rate is 135/min, blood pressure is 96/60 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Physical examination is notable for a slightly distended abdomen that is extremely tender to palpation with diminished bowel sounds. There is no rigidity or rebound tenderness noted on the abdominal examination. In addition, the patient has heme positive stool. Her WBC count is 19,500/mm³, hemoglobin is 10.9 g/dL, and platelet count is 159,000/mm³. Liver function testing results are normal. After stabilizing the patient, what is the best next step in management?
Barium enema
Colonoscopy
Laparotomy
Obstruction series
Warfarin therapy
A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department. His mother reports that the patient had been well until 3 days ago, when he developed a fever and nasal congestion. He was diagnosed with otitis media in his right ear, and was started on amoxicillin with clavulanic acid by his pediatrician. He appeared to be improving until this morning, when he began to complain of abdominal pain. The pain has been intermittent, with episodes occurring every 20 minutes for several minutes each time. However, the episodes appear to be worsening and lasting longer with increasing pain. Thirty minutes ago he had an episode of nonbloody, nonbilious emesis that was followed by passage of blood- and mucus-stained stools. He is currently in no acute distress, and his vital signs are normal. A firm sausage-shaped mass is palpable in the RUQ of his abdomen. A rectal examination yields bloody mucus. He does not have any skin lesions or rashes. X-ray of the abdomen is shown in the image. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cystic fibrosis
Enterocolitis
Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Idiopathic intussusception
Meckel’s diverticulum
A 59-year-old man presents for his routine colonoscopy and during his visit he has numerous large adenomas removed from his colon. Which of the following is the most effective strategy for follow-up of this patient?
Elective colectomy
Repeat colonoscopy in 10 years
Repeat colonoscopy in 3 years
Sigmoidoscopy in 10 years
Urgent colectomy
A 67-year-old woman is currently postoperative day 8 after an emergent laparoscopic cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis. On postoperative day 2 she spiked a temperature of 40°C (101.4°F) and began to complain of some shortness of breath. X-ray of the chest revealed right lower lobe pneumonia, and the patient was started on clindamycin. Today she is experiencing multiple episodes of foul-smelling, watery diarrhea that is green tinged but non-bloody. She also complains of lower abdominal cramping. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 90/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Ingestion of preformed enterotoxins, cytotoxins, and/or neurotoxins
Production of cytotoxins within the gastro- intestinal tract
Production of enterotoxins and cytotoxins within the gastrointestinal tract
Production of enterotoxins within the gastrointestinal tract
Viral invasion and damage of villous epithelial cells within the gastrointestinal tract
A male infant is delivered at 37 weeks’ gestation via cesarean section for breech presentation. The pregnancy was complicated by polyhydramnios. The 34-year-old mother is rubella immune and has blood type B. She is negative for Rh antibody, Group B streptococci, rapid plasma reagin, hepatitis B surface antigen, gonorrhea, and Chlamydia. At delivery there is no meconium. He has a birth weight of 2.7 kg (6 lb). The baby has a weak cry and is pale and frothing at the nose and mouth. He has nasal flaring and retractions, with a respiratory rate of 56/min. Heart rate is 140/min and he has a regular rhythm and a harsh 2/6 holosystolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal border. On auscultation he has fine diffuse crackles in his lungs bilaterally. The infant is missing both thumbs and has fusion of the remaining digits of his upper extremities bilaterally. The pediatric resident is able to suction secretions from the patient’s nasopharynx and oropharynx; however, she is unable to pass a nasogastric or orogastric tube more than 10 cm down. X-ray of the chest is shown in the image. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Pyloric stenosis
Respiratory distress syndrome
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Transient tachypnea of the new-born
A 51-year-old man is brought to the emergency department (ED) by emergency medical services (EMS) with a blood pressure (BP) of 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate (HR) of 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate (RR) of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. The patient tells you that he has a history of bleeding ulcers. On examination, his abdomen is tender in the epigastric area. He is guaiac positive, with black stool. He has a bout of hematemesis and you notice that his BP is now 80/50 mm Hg, HR is 114 beats per minute, as he is slowly starting to drift off. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in therapy?
Assess airway, establish two large-bore intravenous (IV) lines, cross-match for two units of blood, administer 1 to 2 L of normal saline, and schedule an emergent endoscopy.
Assess airway, establish two large-bore IVs, cross-match for 2 units of blood, and administer a proton pump inhibitor.
Place two large-bore IVs, cross-match for 2 units of blood, administer 1 to 2 L of normal saline, and schedule an emergent endoscopy.
Intubate the patient, establish two large-bore IVs, cross-match for 2 units of blood, administer 1 to 2 L of normal saline, and schedule an emergent endoscopy.
Intubate the patient, establish two large-bore IVs, cross-match for 2 units of blood, and administer a proton pump inhibitor.
A 19-year-old woman presents to the ED with 1 hour of acute-onset progressively worsening pain in her RLQ. She developed nausea shortly after the pain and vomited twice over the last hour. She had similar but less severe pain 2 weeks ago that resolved spontaneously. Her BP is 123/78 mm Hg, HR is 99 beats per minute, temperature is 99.1°F, and her RR is 16 breaths per minute. On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable, not moving on the gurney. Her abdomen is nondistended, diffusely tender, worst in the RLQ. Pelvic examination reveals a normal-sized uterus and moderate right-sided adnexal tenderness. Laboratory results reveal WBC 10,000/μL, hematocrit 38%, and a negative urinalysis and β-hCG. Pelvic ultrasound reveals an enlarged right ovary with decreased flow. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Admit to the gynecology service for observation.
Administer IV antibiotics and operate once inflammation resolves.
Attempt manual detorsion.
Order an abdominal CT.
Go for immediate laparoscopic surgery.
A 23-year-old woman presents to the ED with RLQ pain for the last 1 to 2 days. The pain is associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, and a fever of 100.9°F. She also reports dysuria. The patient returned 1 month ago from a trip to Mexico. She is sexually active with one partner but does not use contraception. She denies vaginal bleeding or discharge. Her last menstrual period was approximately 1 month ago. She has a history of pyelonephritis. Based on the principles of emergency medicine, what are the three priority considerations in the diagnosis of this patient?
Perihepatitis, gastroenteritis, cystitis
Ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, pyelonephritis
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), gastroenteritis, cystitis
Ectopic pregnancy, PID, menstrual cramps
Gastroenteritis, amebic dysentery, menstrual cramps
A 73-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with black tarry stools and symptoms of presyncope when standing up. Digital rectal examination confirms the presence of melena. She recently started using ibuprofen for hip discomfort. Upper endoscopy confirms the diagnosis of a gastric ulcer. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the gastric ulcer?
Increasing acid production
Causing direct epithelial cell death
Promoting replication of Helicobacter pylori
An antiplatelet effect
Inhibiting mucosal repair
A 52-year-old woman is experiencing abdominal discomfort after meals as well as early in the morning. There is no weight loss or constitutional symptoms, and she has tried antacids but experienced minimal relief. Upper endoscopy reveals a duodenal ulcer and the biopsy is negative for malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
6–8 weeks of omeprazole or ranitidine
Long-term acid suppression with omeprazole
Antibiotic therapy
Antibiotic therapy with omeprazoleq
Bismuth citrate therapy
A 28-year-old man presents with symptoms of frequent bowel movements, crampy abdominal pain, and the passage of mucus. There is no history of any bloody diarrhea, but recently, he developed joint discomfort in his hands, knees, and back. On examination he is thin, and his abdomen is soft with voluntary guarding in the left lower quadrant. His joints are not actively inflamed and there is an asymmetric distribution. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Lymphoma of the bowel
Amyloid infiltration
Chronic pancreatitis
Ulcerative colitis
Tropical sprue
A 64-year-old white woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of difficulty and pain with swallowing, as well as occasional chest pain. She has a history of breast cancer treated with lumpectomy and radiation, hyper- tension, high cholesterol, and ovarian polyps. She indicates that her current problem started with liquids, but has progressed to solids, and that the food “just gets stuck in my throat.” The chest pain was once so bad that she took one of her husband’s nitroglycerin pills and the pain subsided, but it has since occurred many times. The physician orders an x-ray of the chest, but it is not diagnostic. Manometry is conducted, and it shows uncoordinated contractions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Breast cancer relapse
Diffuse esophageal spasm
Esophageal cancer
Myocardial infarction
Nutcracker esophagus
A 22-year-old woman is brought to the ED by ambulance complaining of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain for 1 hour. The pain is in the RLQ and is not associated with nausea, vomiting, fever, or diarrhea. On the pelvic examination you palpate a tender right adnexal mass. The patient’s last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. Her BP is 95/65 mm Hg, HR is 124 beats per minute, temperature is 99.8°F, and RR is 20 breaths per minute. Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in management?
Provide her oxygen via face mask and administer morphine sulfate.
Administer morphine sulfate, order an abdominal CT with contrast, and call an emergent surgery consult.
Send the patient’s urine for analysis and order an abdominal CT.
Bolus 2 L NS, order a type and crossmatch and β-hCG, and call gynecology for possible surgery.
Provide oxygen via face mask, give morphine sulfate, and order a transvaginal ultrasound.
A 58-year-old white man complains of intermittent rectal bleeding and, at the time of colonoscopy, is found to have internal hemorrhoids and the lesion shown at the splenic flexure. Pathology shows tubulovillous changes. Repeat colonoscopy should be recommended at what interval?
In 1 to 2 months
In 1 year
In 3 years
In 10 years
Repeat colonoscopy is not necessary
A 36-year-old man presents for a well-patient examination. He gives a history that, over the past 20 years, he has had three episodes of abdominal pain and hematemesis, the most recent of which occurred several years ago. He was told that an ulcer was seen on a barium upper GI radiograph. You obtain a serum assay for H Pylori IgG, which is positive. What is the most effective regimen to eradicate this organism?
Omeprazole 20 mg orally once daily for 6 weeks
Ranitidine 300 mg orally once daily at bedtime for 6 weeks
Omeprazole 20 mg twice daily, amoxicillin 1000 mg twice daily, and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 14 days
Pepto-Bismol and metronidazole twice daily for 7 days
Benzathine penicillin, 1.2 million units intramuscularly weekly for three doses
An otherwise healthy 40-year-old woman sees you because of recurrent abdominal pain. In the past month she has had four episodes of colicky epigastric pain. Each of these episodes has lasted about 30 minutes and has occurred within an hour of eating. Two of the episodes have been associated with sweating and vomiting. None of the episodes have been associated with fever or shortness of breath. She has not lost weight. She does not drink alcohol or take any prescription or over-the-counter medications. Other than three previous uneventful vaginal deliveries, she has never been hospitalized. Her examination is negative except for mild obesity (BMI = 32). A complete blood count and multichannel chemistry profile that includes liver function test is normal. A gallbladder sonogram reveals multiple gallstones. What is the next best step in the treatment of this patient?
Omeprazole, 20 mg daily for eight weeks.
Ursodeoxycholic acid
Observation without specific therapy
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Weight reduction
A 56-year-old chronic alcoholic has a 1-year history of ascites. He is admitted with a 2-day history of diffuse abdominal pain and fever. Examination reveals scleral icterus, spider angiomas, a distended abdomen with shifting dullness, and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Paracentesis reveals slightly cloudy ascitic fluid with an ascitic fluid PMN cell count of 1000/μL. Which of the following statements about treatment is true?
Antibiotic therapy is unnecessary if the ascitic fluid culture is negative for bacteria.
The addition of albumin to antibiotic therapy improves survival.
Repeated paracenteses are required to assess the response to antibiotic treatment.
After treatment of this acute episode, a recurrent episode of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis would be unlikely.
Treatment with multiple antibiotics is required because polymicrobial infection is common.
A 60-year-old man with known hepatitis C and a previous liver biopsy showing cirrhosis requests evaluation for possible liver transplantation. He has never received treatment for hepatitis C. Though previously a heavy user of alcohol, he has been abstinent for over 2 years. He has had 2 episodes of bleeding esophageal varices. He was hospitalized 6 months ago with acute hepatic encephalopathy. He has a 1-year history of ascites that has required repeated paracentesis despite treatment with diuretics. Medications are aldactone 100 mg daily and lactulose 30 cc 3 times daily. On examination he appears thin, with obvious scleral icterus, spider angiomas, palmar erythema, gynecomastia, a large amount ascites, and small testicles. There is no asterixis. Recent laboratory testing revealed the following: hemoglobin = 12.0 mg/dL (normal 13.5-15.0), MCV = 103 fL (normal 80-100), creatinine = 2.0 mg/dL (normal 0.7-1.2), bilirubin = 6.5 mg/dL (normal 0.1-1.2), AST = 25 U/L (normal < 40), ALT= 45 U/L (normal < 40), INR = 3.0 (normal 0.8-1.2). What is the next best step?
Repeat liver biopsy.
Start treatment with interferon and ribavirin.
Refer the patient for hospice care.
Continue to optimize medical treatment for his ascites and hepatic encephalopathy and tell the patient he is not eligible for liver transplantation because of his previous history of alcohol abuse.
Refer the patient to a liver transplantation center.
A 32-year-old white woman complains of abdominal pain off and on since the age of 17. She notices abdominal bloating relieved by defecation as well as alternating diarrhea and constipation. She has no weight loss, GI bleeding, or nocturnal diarrhea. On examination, she has slight LLQ tenderness and gaseous abdominal distension. Laboratory studies, including CBC, are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial approach?
Recommend increased dietary fiber, antispasmodics as needed, and follow-up examination in 2 months.
Refer to gastroenterologist for colonoscopy.
Obtain antiendomysial antibodies.
Order UGI series with small bowel follow-through.
Order small bowel biopsy.
A 27-year-old female is found to have a positive hepatitis C antibody at the time of plasma donation. Physical examination is normal. Liver enzymes reveal ALT of 62 U/L (normal < 40), AST 65 U/L (normal < 40), bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL (normal), and alkaline phosphatase normal. Hepatitis C viral RNA is 100,000 copies/mL. Hepatitis B surface antigen and HIV antibody are negative. Which of the following statements is true?
Liver biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Most patients with hepatitis C eventually resolve their infection without permanent sequelae.
This patient should not receive vaccinations against other viral forms of hepatitis.
Serum ALT levels are a good predictor of prognosis.
Patients with hepatitis C genotype 2 or 3 are more likely to have a favourable response to treatment with interferon and ribavirin.
A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with 1 day of painful rectal bleeding. Review of systems is negative for weight loss, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination, you note an exquisitely tender swelling with engorgement and a bluish discoloration distal to the anal verge. Her vital signs are HR 105 beats per minute, BP 140/70 mm Hg, RR 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 99°F. Which of the following is the next best step in management?A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with 1 day of painful rectal bleeding. Review of systems is negative for weight loss, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination, you note an exquisitely tender swelling with engorgement and a bluish discoloration distal to the anal verge. Her vital signs are HR 105 beats per minute, BP 140/70 mm Hg, RR 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 99°F. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Recommend warm sitz baths, topical analgesics, stool softeners, a high-fiber diet, and arrange for surgical follow-up.
Incision and drainage under local anesthesia or procedural sedation followed by packing and surgical follow-up.
Obtain a complete blood cell (CBC) count, clotting studies, type and cross, and arrange for emergent colonoscopy.
Excision under local anesthesia followed by sitz baths and analgesics.
Surgical consult for immediate operative management.
A 68-year-old man presents to the ED 4 hours after an upper endoscopy was performed for 5 months of progressive dysphagia. During the procedure, a 1-cm ulcerated lesion was found and biopsied. Now, the patient complains of severe neck and chest pain. His vitals are as follows: BP 135/80 mm Hg, HR 123 beats per minute, RR 26 breaths per minute, and temperature 101°F. On physical examination, he appears diaphoretic and in moderate distress with crepitus in the neck and a crunching sound over the heart. You obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG), which is notable for sinus tachycardia. After obtaining a surgical consult, which of the following is the next best step in management?
Perform an immediate bronchoscopy.
Give aspirin 325 mg and obtain a cardiology consult for possible cardiac catheterization.
Repeat the endoscopy to evaluate the biopsy site.
Perform an immediate thoracotomy.
Order an immediate esophagram with water-soluble agent.
A 65-year-old man with a history of occasional painless rectal bleeding presents with 2 to 3 days of constant, dull RLQ pain. He also complains of fever, nausea, and decreased appetite. He had a colonoscopy 2 years ago that was significant for sigmoid and cecal diverticula but was otherwise normal. On physical examination he has RLQ tenderness with rebound and guarding. His vitals include HR of 95 beats per minute, BP of 130/85 mm Hg, and temperature of 101.3°F. The abdominal CT demonstrates the presence of sigmoid and cecal diverticula, inflammation of pericolic fat, thickening of the bowel wall, and a fluid-filled appendix. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discharge the patient with broad-spectrum oral antibiotics and surgical follow-up.
Begin IV hydration and broad-spectrum antibiotics, keep the patient npo (nothing by mouth), and admit the patient to the hospital.
Begin IV antibiotics and call a surgical consult for an emergent operative procedure.
Arrange for an emergent barium enema to confirm the diagnosis.
Begin sulfasalazine 3 to 4 g/d along with IV steroid therapy.
A 49-year-old man presents to the ED with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that began approximately 2 days ago. The patient states that he usually drinks a six pack of beer daily, but increased his drinking to 2 six packs daily over the last week because of pressures at work. He notes decreased appetite over the last 3 days and states he has not had anything to eat in 2 days. His BP is 125/75 mm Hg, HR is 105 beats per minute, and RR is 20 breaths per minute. You note generalized abdominal tenderness on examination. Laboratory results reveal the following: White blood cells (WBC) 9000/μL Sodium 131 mEq/L Hematocrit 48% Potassium 3.5 mEq/L Platelets 210/μL Chloride 101 mEq/L Aspartate transaminase (AST) 85 U/L Bicarbonate 10 mEq/L Alanine transaminase (ALT) 60 U/L Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 9 mg/dL Alkaline phosphatase 75 U/L Creatinine 0.5 mg/dL Total bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL Glucose 190 mg/dL Lipase 40 IU Nitroprusside test weakly positive for ketones Which of the following is the mainstay of therapy for patients with thiscondition?
Normal saline (NS) solution
Half normal saline (. NS)
Glucose solution (D5W)
Solution containing both saline and glucose (D 5/NS or D 5. NS)
The type of solution is irrelevant
A 31-year-old man from Florida presents to the ED complaining of severe pain that starts in his left flank and radiates to his testicle. The pain lasts for about 1 hour and then improves. He had similar pain last week that resolved spontaneously. He noted some blood in his urine this morning. His BP is 145/75 mm Hg, HR is 90 beats per minute, temperature is 98.9°F, and his RR is 24 breaths per minute. His abdomen is soft and nontender. As you examine the patient, he vomits and has trouble lying still in his stretcher. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Call surgery consult to evaluate the patient for appendicitis.
Order an abdominal CT.
Start intravenous (IV) fluids and administer an IV nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and antiemetic.
Perform an ultrasound to evaluate for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
Perform an ultrasound to evaluate for testicular torsion.
A 24-year-old man woke up from sleep 1 hour ago with severe pain in his right testicle. He states that he is sexually active with multiple partners. On examination, the right scrotum is swollen, tender, and firm. You cannot elicit a cremasteric reflex. His BP is 145/75 mm Hg, HR is 103 beats per minute, RR is 14 breaths per minute, temperature is 98.9°F, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administer one dose of ceftriaxone and doxycycline for 10 days and have him follow-up with a urologist.
Swab his urethra, send a culture for gonorrhea and Chlamydia, and treat if positive.
Send a urinalysis and treat for a urinary tract infection (UTI) if positive.
Treat the patient for epididymitis and have him return if symptoms persist.
Order a statim (STAT) color Doppler ultrasound and urologic consultation.
A 22-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of dysuria for 3 days. He states that he has never had this feeling before. He is currently sexually active and uses a condom most of the time. He denies hematuria but notes a yellowish discharge from his urethra. His BP is 120/75 mm Hg, HR is 60 beats per minute, and temperature is 98.9°F. You send a clean catch urinalysis to the laboratory that returns positive for leukocyte esterase and 15 white blood cells per high power field (WBCs/hpf). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Send a urethral swab for culture and administer 125 mg ceftriaxone intramuscularly and 1 g azithromycin orally.
Send urine for culture and administer SMX/TMP orally.
Discharge the patient with strict instructions to return if his symptoms worsen.
Order a CT scan to evaluate for a kidney stone.
Have him follow-up immediately with a urologist to evaluate for testicular cancer.
A 59-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of vomiting and sharp abdominal pain in the epigastric area that began abruptly this afternoon. He describes feeling nauseated and has no appetite. Laboratory results reveal WBC 18,000/μL, hematocrit 48%, platelets 110/μL, AST 275 U/L, ALT 125 U/L, alkaline phosphatase 75 U/L, amylase 1150 U/L, lipase 1450 IU, LDH 400 U/L, sodium 135 mEq/L, potassium 3.5 mEq/L, chloride 110 mEq/L, bicarbonate 20 mEq/L, BUN 20 mg/dL, creatinine 1.5 mg/dL, and glucose 250 mg/dL. Which of the following laboratory results correlate with the poorest prognosis?
Amylase 950, lipase 1250, LDH 400
Lipase 1250, LDH 400, bicarbonate 20
Lipase 1250, creatinine 1.5, potassium 3.5
WBC 18,000, LDH 400, glucose 250
WBC 18,000, amylase 950, lipase 1250
An 18-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of acute onset of RLQ abdominal pain. She also describes the loss of appetite over the last 12 hours, but denies nausea and vomiting. Her BP is 124/77 mm Hg, HR is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 102.1°F, RR is 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals lower abdominal tenderness bilaterally. On pelvic examination you elicit cervical motion tenderness and note cervical exudates. Her WBC is 20,500/μL and β-hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Bring her to the OR for an appendectomy.
Begin antibiotic therapy.
Perform a culdocentesis.
Bring her to the OR for immediate laparoscopy.
Order an abdominal plain film.
A 27-year-old man is seen in the ED for a leak around a surgical G-tube that was placed 2 weeks ago and has been used for enteral feeding for 1 week. Inspection reveals the tube is pulled out from the stoma, but is still in the cutaneous tissue. The abdomen is soft and nondistended and there are no signs of skin infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Insert a Foley catheter into the tract and aspirate. If gastric contents are aspirated the tube can be used for feeding.
Insert a Foley catheter into the tract, instill water-soluble contrast, and obtain an abdominal radiograph prior to using for feeding.
Remove the tube and admit the patient for observation.
Remove the tube and immediately obtain a CT scan of the abdomen.
Return to the OR for closure of gastrotomy and placement of a new tube.
A 30-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of sudden onset of abdominal bloating and back pain lasting for 2 days. The pain woke him up from sleep 2 nights ago. It radiates from his back to his abdomen and down toward his scrotum. He is in severe pain and is vomiting. His temperature is 101.2°F and HR is 107 beats per minute. A CT scan reveals a 9-mm obstructing stone of the left ureter with hydronephrosis. Urinalysis is positive for 2+ blood, 2+ leukocytes, 2+ nitrites, 40 to 50 WBCs, and many bacteria. You administer pain medicine, antiemetics, and antibiotics. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Admit for IV antibiotics and possible surgical removal of stone.
Observe in ED for another 6 hours to see if stone passes.
Discharge with antibiotics and pain medicine.
Discharge patient with instructions to consume large amounts of water.
Discharge patient with antibiotics, pain medicine, and instructions to drink large amounts of water and cranberry juice.
A 24-year-old woman presents to the ED after being sexually assaulted. She is a college student with no past medical history. Her BP is 130/75 mm Hg, HR is 91 beats per minute, temperature is 98.6°F, and RR is 16 breaths per minute. On physical examination you observe vaginal trauma and scattered bruising and abrasions. Which of the following medications should be offered to the patient in this scenario?
Ceftriaxone, azithromycin, metronidazole, antiretrovirals, emergency contraception
Ceftriaxone, tetanus, metronidazole, antiretrovirals, emergency contraception
Ceftriaxone, azithromycin, tetanus, metronidazole, emergency contraception
Ceftriaxone, azithromycin, tetanus, antiretrovirals, emergency contraception
Ceftriaxone, azithromycin, tetanus, metronidazole, antiretrovirals, emergency contraception
A 43-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of progressively worsening abdominal pain over the past 2 days. The pain is constant and radiates to his back. He also describes nausea and vomiting and states he usually drinks six pack of beer daily, but has not had a drink for 2 days. His BP is 144/75 mm Hg, HR is 101 beats per minute, temperature is 99.8°F, and RR is 14 breaths per minute. He is lying on his side with his knees flexed. Examination shows voluntary guarding and tenderness to palpation of his epigastrium. Laboratory results reveal WBC 10,500/μL, hematocrit 51%, platelets 225/μL, and lipase 620 IU. An abdominal radiograph reveals a nonspecific bowel gas pattern. There is no free air under the diaphragm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Observe in the ED.
Send home with antibiotic therapy.
Admit to the hospital for endoscopy.
Admit to the hospital for exploratory laparotomy.
Admit to the hospital for medical management and supportive care.
A 77-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room because of nonspecific abdominal discomfort. She has no anorexia, fever, chills, or weight loss. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender on physical examination. Abdominal x-rays show lots of stool in the colon, but no free air or air-fluid levels. The amylase is 150 U/L (25–125U/L), and the rest of her biochemistry and complete blood count are normal. Which of the following conditions can cause a false positive elevation in the serum amylase?
Maturity-onset diabetes mellitus (DM)
Gastric ulcer
Renal failure
Sulfonamide therapy
Gastric carcinoma
A 76-year-old woman with a history of congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, and an “irregular heart beat” is brought to the ED by her family. She has been complaining of increasing abdominal pain over the past several days. She denies nausea or vomiting and bowel movements remain unchanged. Vitals are HR of 114 beats per minute, BP 110/75 mm Hg, and temperature 98°F. On cardiac examination, her HR is irregularly irregular with no murmur detected. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended. The stool is heme-positive. This patient is at high risk for which of the following conditions?
Perforated gastric ulcer
Diverticulitis
Acute cholecystitis
Mesenteric ischemia
Sigmoid volvulus
A 78-year-old man with a history of atherosclerotic heart disease and congestive heart failure presents with increasing abdominal pain. The pain began suddenly a day ago and has progressively worsened since then. He denies nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, but states that he had black tarry stool this morning. He denies any history of prior episodes of similar pain. Vitals are BP 120/65 mm Hg, HR 105 beats per minute, and temperature 99°F. The patient is at high risk for which of the following conditions?
Cholecystitis
Cecal volvulus
Mesenteric ischemia
Perforated peptic ulcer
Small bowel obstruction
A 22-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea. She has no abdominal discomfort, feels well, and reports no weight loss or systemic symptoms. Physical examination reveals a healthy young woman who is 5’7” tall and weighs 150 lb. The complete physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of a secretory diarrhea in this young woman?
Surreptitious use of stimulant laxatives
Carcinoid tumor
Ulcerative colitis
Lactose deficiency
Celiac disease
A 23-year-old woman presents with weight loss and chronic diarrhea. She appears unwell and cachectic. Routine laboratory tests reveal a low hemoglobin level and an increased international normalized ratio (INR) even though she is not taking any anticoagulants. The liver enzymes are normal, but the albumin and calcium levels are low, suggesting generalized malnutrition. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for malabsorption?
Xylose absorption
Schilling test
X-ray studies
Stool fat quantitation
Small intestinal biopsy
A 29-year-old man with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) comes to the emergency department because of progressively increasing abdominal discomfort. Examination shows voluntary guarding in the upper abdomen. His biochemistry is normal except for an elevated amylase at 370 U/L (25–125 U/L). Which of the following infections can trigger this disorder in AIDS patients?
Toxoplasmosis
Mycobacterium avium complex
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Pneumocystis carinii
Herpes virus
A full-term 5-day-old African-American girl is taken to the pediatrician because her “eyes look yellow.” She is being exclusively formula- fed with an iron-rich formula. She has six wet diapers a day and stools twice a day. The pregnancy was uncomplicated and she was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery. Her Apgar scores were 9 and 10 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), her head circumference is in the 50th percentile, and her weight is 3420 g (3 g below her birth weight). Her sclerae are icteric. There is no hepatomegaly or splenomegaly. Her total bilirubin is 9 mg/dL and her conjugated bilirubin is 0.2 mg/dL. Hemoglobin is 15 g/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
Biliary atresia
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Physiologic jaundice
Rotor syndrome
A 76-year-old man who has had multiple episodes of pancreatitis presents to his physician’s office with mild epigastric pain and 9.1-kg (20.0-lb) weight loss over the past 6 months. The patient also describes daily foul-smelling stools that “float” in the toilet bowl. The physician pulls up his electronic medical record and finds that the patient presented to the emergency department last week for the same symptoms. During that visit he had a CT of the abdomen (see image). Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
Pancreatic enzyme replacement
Pancreaticogastrostomy
Surgical resection of pancreas
Whipple procedure
A 50-year-old man with a history of alcohol and tobacco abuse has complained of difficulty swallowing solid food for the past 2 months. More recently, swallowing fluids has also become a problem. He has noted black, tarry stools on occasion. The patient has lost 10 lb. Which of the following statements is correct?
A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is the best next test.
Barium contrast esophagram will likely establish a diagnosis.
The most likely diagnosis is peptic ulcer disease.
The patient has achalasia.
Herpes simplex virus infection of the esophagus is likely.
A 34-year-old man presents with substernal discomfort. The symptoms are worse after meals, particularly a heavy evening meal, and are sometimes associated with hot/sour fluid in the back of the throat and nocturnal awakening. The patient denies difficulty swallowing, pain on swallowing, or weight loss. The symptoms have been present for 6 weeks; the patient has gained 20 lb in the past 2 years. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial approach?
Therapeutic trial of ranitidine
Exercise test with thallium imaging
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
CT scan of the chest
Coronary angiography
A 48-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit and 10-lb weight loss over the past 2 months despite preservation of appetite. She notices increased abdominal gas, particularly after fatty meals. The stools are malodorous and occur 2 to 3 times per day; no rectal bleeding is noticed. The symptoms are less prominent when she follows a clear liquid diet. Which of the following is the most likely histological abnormality associated with this patient’s symptoms?
Signet ring cells on gastric biopsy
Mucosal inflammation and crypt abscesses on sigmoidoscopy
Villous atrophy and increased lymphocytes in the lamina propria on small bowel biopsy
Small, curved gram-negative bacteria in areas of intestinal metaplasia on gastric biopsy
Periportal inflammation on liver biopsy
A 62-year-old woman is transferred to the medical service with an appendiceal mass serendipitously picked up at the edge of an x-ray taken of a broken femur in the emergency department. Otherwise, the patient has no significant past medical history and no current symptoms. Which of the following studies is most likely to be useful?
Arterial blood gas
CT of the chest and abdomen
Immediate ECG
MRI of the chest and abdomen
Room air oxygen saturation
A 60-year-old woman complains of fever and constant left lower quadrant pain of 2 days duration. She has not had vomiting or rectal bleeding. She has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. She has never had similar abdominal pain, and has had no previous surgeries. Her only regular medication is lisinopril. On examination blood pressure is 150/80, pulse 110, and temperature 38.9°C (102°F). She has normal bowel sounds and left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness with rebound. A complete blood count reveals WBC = 28,000. Serum electrolytes, BUN, creatinine and liver function tests are normal. What is the next best step in evaluating this patient’s problem?
Colonoscopy
Barium enema
Exploratory laparotomy
Ultrasound of the abdomen
CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
A 72-year-old woman notices progressive dysphagia to solids and liquids. There is no history of alcohol or tobacco use, and the patient takes no medications. She denies heartburn, but occasionally notices the regurgitation of undigested food from meals eaten several hours before. Her barium swallow is shown. Which of the following is the cause of this condition?
Growth of malignant squamous cells into the muscularis mucosa
Scarring caused by silent gastroesophageal reflux
Spasm of the lower esophageal sphincter
Loss of intramural neurons in the esophagus
Psychiatric disease
A 37-year-old woman presents for evaluation of abnormal liver chemistries. She has long-standing obesity (current BMI 38) and has previously taken anorectic medications but not for the past several years. She takes no other medications and has not used parenteral drugs or had high risk sexual exposure. On examination, her liver span is 13 cm; she has no spider angiomas or splenomegaly. Several sets of liver enzymes have shown transaminases two to three times normal. Bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase are normal. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C antibody are normal, as are serum iron and total iron-binding capacity. Which of the following is the likely pathology on liver biopsy?
Macrovesicular fatty liver
Microvesicular fatty liver
Portal triaditis with piecemeal necrosis
Cirrhosis
Copper deposition
A 20-year-old man presents to the ED with fever and severe right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain for 1 day. Prior to this episode, he reports 2 months of crampy abdominal pain, generalized malaise, a 10-lb weight loss, and occasional bloody diarrhea. On examination, his HR is 115 beats per minute, BP is 125/70 mm Hg, RR is 18 breaths per minute, and temperature is 100.8°F. His only significant past medical history is recurrent perirectal abscesses. On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and has a tender mass in the RLQ, without guarding or rebound. Rectal examination is positive for trace heme-positive stool. An abdominal computed tomographic (CT) scan reveals no periappendiceal fat stranding. There is inflammation of the distal ileum and several areas of the colon. There are no rectal inflammatory changes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Crohn disease (CD)
Ulcerative colitis (UC)
Appendicitis
Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Diverticulitis
A 55-year-old white woman with a history of iron deficiency anemia has had intermittent trouble swallowing solids for the past few years. She denies alcohol or tobacco use. Her vital signs are stable. Her iron level is 40μg/dL and total iron binding capacity is 500 μg/dL. Other laboratory tests are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Achalasia
Barrett’s esophagus
Esophageal carcinoma
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
A 55-year-old man from China is known to have chronic liver disease, secondary to hepatitis B infection. He has recently felt unwell, and his hemoglobin level has increased from 130 g/L, 1 year ago, to 195 g/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
Alkaline phosphatase
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Aspartate transaminase (AST)
Alanine transaminase (ALT)
Unconjugated bilirubin
A 67-year-old man is brought to the ED by emergency medical service (EMS). His wife states that the patient was doing his usual chores around the house when all of a sudden he started complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of coronary artery disease and hypertension. His BP is 85/70 mm Hg, HR is 105 beats per minute, temperature is 98.9°F, and his RR is 18 breaths per minute. On physical examination, he is diaphoretic and in obvious pain. Upon palpating his abdomen, you feel a large pulsatile mass. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals sinus tachycardia. You place the patient on a monitor, administer oxygen, insert two largebore IVs, and send his blood to the laboratory. His BP does not improve after a 1-L fluid bolus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Order a CT scan to evaluate his aorta.
Call the angiography suite and have them prepare the room for the patient.
Order a portable abdominal radiograph.
Call surgery and have them prepare the operating room (OR) for an exploratory laparotomy.
Call the cardiac catheterization laboratory to prepare for stent insertion.
A 48-year-old man with a past medical history of hepatitis C and cirrhosis presents to the ED complaining of acute-onset abdominal pain and chills. His BP is 118/75 mm Hg, HR is 105 beats per minute, RR is 16 breaths per minute, temperature is 101.2°F rectally, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His abdomen is distended, and diffusely tender. You decide to perform a paracentesis and retrieve 1 L of cloudy fluid. Laboratory analysis of the fluid shows a neutrophil count of 550 cells/mm 3. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice of treatment?
Metronidazole
Vancomycin
Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (SMX/TMP)
Neomycin and lactulose
Cefotaxime
A 64-year-old woman develops sudden-onset abdominal discomfort after eating a large meal. The pain is constant, localizes to the epigastric area with radiation to her right scapula. She also has nausea and vomiting. It eventual subsides 1 hour later. An ultrasound of the abdomen reveals a dilated common bile duct secondary to stones. Which of the following statements regarding common bile duct stones is most likely true?
All originate in the gallbladder
Always produce jaundice
Produce constant level of jaundice
Can be painless
Indicate anomalies of the bile duct
A 29-year-old woman complains of dysphagia with both solids and liquids, worse when she is eating quickly or is anxious. Manometry reveals normal basal esophageal sphincter pressure, with no relaxation of the sphincter on swallowing. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Beta-blocker therapy
Partial esophagectomy
Anticholinergic drugs
Calcium channel blockers
Dietary modification
A 33-year-old woman develops mild epigastric abdominal pain with nausea and vomiting of 2 days duration. Her abdomen is tender on palpation in the epigastric region, and the remaining examination is normal. Her white count is 13,000/mL, and amylase is 300 U/L (25–125 U/L). Which of the following is the most common predisposing factor for this disorder?
Drugs
Gallstones
Malignancy
Alcohol
Hypertriglyceridemia
A 54-year-old man complains of burning epigastric pain that usually improves after a meal, and is occasionally relieved with antacids. On examination, he appears well and besides some epigastric tenderness on palpation, the rest of the examination is normal. Upper endoscopy confirms a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following statements concerning PUD is most likely correct?
Duodenal ulcer is seen more often in older people than is gastric ulcer
Clinically, gastric ulcers are more common than duodenal ulcers
Duodenal ulcers can frequently be malignant
Infection can cause both types of peptic ulcer
Peptic gastric ulcers are usually quite proximal in the stomach
A 30-year-old man complains of chronic diarrhea for the past 6 months. There is no weight loss, fever, or abdominal pain. He takes no medications and feels fine. His physical examination is completely normal. Further history reveals that this man does not take laxatives; however, in an effort to stay slim he eats a lot of sugar-free gum and sugarless candy. Which of the following explanations is the most likely cause of his diarrhea?
Direct stimulant effect of chemicals in the candies
Lack of fiber in his diet
Pancreatic insufficiency secondary to chronic protein-calorie malnutrition
Secondary intestinal mucosal atrophy
Nonabsorbed carbohydrates
A 32-year-old man with Crohn’s disease presents to the emergency department with acute-onset diffuse abdominal pain and emesis. The patient states these symptoms are different than his usual Crohn’s disease flare-ups. The pain is severe (10/10) and is cramping in nature. He says his abdomen feels larger than usual. His Crohn’s disease has been well managed on 6-mercaptopurine for the past 6 months. The patient denies any recent sick contacts or eating underprepared foods. He states he had a bowel movement and flatus since the abdominal pain began. In addition to Crohn’s disease, the patient had appendicitis for which he underwent an appendectomy 12 years ago. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F), blood pressure is 135/86 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respiratory rate is 14/ min. On physical examination the abdomen is distended and diffusely tender with high-pitched bowel sounds. There is rebound tenderness throughout the abdomen along with guarding. The remainder of the physical examination is noncontributory. An x-ray of the abdomen shows dilated small loops of bowel along with absence of gas in the colon. What is the best next step in management?
Bowel rest only
Intravenous fluids and antibiotics only
Laparotomy
MRI of the abdomen
Ultrasound
A 39-year-old Japanese-American woman with insulin-dependent diabetes and asthma presents to her primary care physician complaining of trouble swallowing for the past few months. She explains that it started with solids, and then progressed to liquids. She states it now is hard even to swallow water and that she is often very thirsty. She says she has lost about 3.2 kg (7 lb), but says she is working out frequently. Her blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F). Laboratory tests show Na+: 144 mEq/L K+: 4.0 mEq/L Cl−: 100 mEq/L Carbon dioxide: 22 mmol/L Blood urea nitrogen: 18 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL Glucose: 88 mg/dL Her hemoglobin A1c level, measured 3 months earlier, was 6.1%. A barium swallow is per- formed, which reveals a dilated esophagus, especially distally, that flares out near the lower esophageal junction. Still not completely sure of the diagnosis, esophageal manometry is performed, which reveals abnormal peristalsis and increased lower sphincter pressure. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Cholinergic agents
Glucose pharmacotherapy
Instructions to elevate the bed, avoid fatty foods, and consider a histamine blocker
Pneumatic dilation
Surgery to remove diverticula
A 42-year-old previously well woman presents with pruritus. She is not taking any medications, and only drinks alcohol on a social basis. Her physical examination is entirely normal with no signs of chronic liver disease or jaundice. Laboratory evaluation reveals an alkaline phosphatase level of three times normal, and an ultrasound of the liver and gallbladder is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
INR or prothrombin time
Antinuclear antibodies
Protein immunoelectrophoresis
Abdominal ultrasound
Antimitochondrial antibodies
A 22-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease is noted to have a “string sign” in the ileal area on barium enema. In which of the following conditions is this sign most often seen?
In the stenotic or nonstenotic phase of the disease
In the stenotic phase only
As a rigid, nondistensible phenomenon
With gastric involvement
With rectal involvement
A 24-year-old man with a history of depression is brought to the emergency room because of a drug overdose. He is experiencing some nausea and vomiting, but no other symptoms. Physical examination and vital signs are normal. Six hours prior to presentation, he intentionally took 40 tablets of acetaminophen (500mg/tablet). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Give ethanol to compete with the parent drug for metabolism, therefore preventing formation of toxic metabolites
Give Narcan to block its actions directly
Give intravenous prostacyclins to maintain cellular integrity
Give N-acetylcysteine to allow binding of the toxic metabolite
Give glucocorticoids to block the immune cascade
A 16-year-old girl is referred to the office because of chronic diarrhea and weight loss. She is experiencing large-volume watery diarrhea that is painless. The symptoms persist even when she is fasting, and there is no relationship to foods or liquids. She is not on any medications, and there is no travel history or other constitutional symptoms. Her physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Partial small bowel obstruction
Partial large bowel obstruction
Osmotic diarrhea
Secretory diarrhea
Inflammatory bowel disease
A 55-year-old man is brought to the ED by his family. They state that he has been vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. The patient is an alcoholic with cirrhotic liver disease and a history of portal hypertension and esophageal varices. His vitals on arrival are HR 110 beats per minute, BP 80/55 mm Hg, RR 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 99°F. The patient appears pale and is in moderate distress. Which of the following is an inappropriate option in the initial management of a hypotensive patient with a history of known esophageal varices presenting with hematemesis?
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube placement
Two large-bore IV lines and volume repletion with crystalloid solutions
Nasogastric (NG) lavage
IV octreotide
Gastrointestinal (GI) consult
A 59-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of worsening lower abdominal pain over the previous 3 days. She describes feeling constipated recently and some burning when she urinates. Her BP is 135/75 mm Hg, HR is 89 beats per minute, temperature is 101.2°F, and her RR is 18 breaths per minute. Her abdomen is mildly distended, tender in the LLQ, and positive for rebound tenderness. CT scan is consistent with diverticulitis with a 7-cm abscess. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this condition?
Reserve the OR for emergent laparotomy.
Start treatment with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole and plan for CT-guided draining of the abscess
Give an IV dose of ciprofloxacin and have the patient follow up with her primary physician.
Start treatment with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole and plan for an emergent barium enema.
Start treatment with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole and prepare for an emergent colonoscopy.
A 60-year-old man is brought to the ED complaining of generalized crampy abdominal pain that occurs in waves. He has been vomiting intermittently over the last 6 hours. His BP is 150/75 mm Hg, HR is 90 beats per minute, temperature is 99.8°F, and his RR is 16 breaths per minute. On abdominal examination you notice an old midline scar across the length of his abdomen that he states was from surgery after a gunshot wound as a teenager. The abdomen is distended with hyperactive bowel sounds and mild tenderness without rebound. An abdominal plain film confirms your diagnosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Begin fluid resuscitation, bowel decompression with a nasogastric tube, and request a surgical consult.
Begin fluid resuscitation, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics, and admit the patient to the medical service.
Begin fluid resuscitation, give the patient stool softener, and administer a rectal enema.
Begin fluid resuscitation, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics, and observe the patient for 24 hours.
Order an abdominal ultrasound, administer antiemetics, and provide pain relief.
A 52-year-old man has suffered with chronic diarrhea for several years, but has refused to see a doctor. He finally comes because he is having trouble driving at night, because of difficulty seeing. Physical examination reveals a slender, pale, unwell-looking man. He has a microcytic anemia, low calcium, and albumin levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his diarrhea?
Malabsorption
Osmotic diarrhea
Secretory diarrhea
Inflammatory bowel disease
Colonic tumor
A 54-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with the complaint of upper abdominal fullness and pain. He states that he has lost 2.3-4.6 kg (5-10 lb), but denies other symptoms. Physical examination reveals a firm mass in the epigastric area. Ultrasonography reveals a mass in the gastric antrum. A salivary gland biopsy reveals the pathology shown in the image. Which of the following therapies is expected to be part of his treatment plan?
Antibiotic therapy
Bone marrow transplantation
Gene therapy
Liver transplantation
Multiagent chemotherapy
A 55-year-old white man with a 20-year history of gastroesophageal reflux visits the clinic for worsening reflux symptoms over the past 18 months. His last visit was 7 years ago and he claims to be otherwise in good health. He has been compliant with his antireflux medications, including an H2-blocker and a proton pump inhibitor. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Double the dose of his H2-blocker and schedule him for follow-up in 4 weeks
Double the dose of his proton pumps inhibitor and schedule him for follow-up in 4 weeks
Perform an esophagoscopy
Schedule him for elective esophagectomy
Schedule him for emergent Nissen fundoplication
The physician on call is paged to the well-baby nursery because a full-term, 3-hour-old boy has had green emesis twice, once after each of his feedings. He is being breast-fed. He was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery following a pregnancy complicated by polyhydramnios. His Apgar scores were 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, pulse is 150/min, and respiratory rate is 24/ min. His upper abdomen is distended, soft, and without palpable masses. Air is visualized in the duodenum and the stomach on x-ray. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Duodenal atresia
Hirschsprung’s disease
Intussusception
Malrotation with volvulus
Pyloric stenosis
A 68-year-old African-American man presents to his primary care physician for a check-up. He has not been to the physician’s office in over 15 years. He reports that he is fine but that his wife keeps telling him that he has to “go see the doctor.” He says he has never been sick, despite smoking three packs of cigarettes per day for over 40 years. He also says that he drinks 2–3 beers a night but never had a problem with that either. He’s as healthy “as a bull,” he says. His wife is in the room and says that he recently has had some problems swallowing food and that he is losing weight. He laughs and says, “I just need to chew more and eat more.” His vital signs are normal, as are his laboratory values. The physician is concerned and orders an endoscopy, which reveals a biopsy positive for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. Which of the following most likely could have prevented this condition?
Avoiding fruits and vegetables
Eating more meats, especially smoked meats
Eliminating smoking and alcohol consumption
Getting a colonoscopy every 5 years
Taking proton pump inhibitors regularly
A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of colicky abdominal pain over the past 3 days that suddenly became more severe and constant over the past 6 hours. A contrast study is performed and results are shown in the image. What is the first-line treatment after fluid resuscitation and nasogastric tube placement?
Colonoscopy
Hemicolectomy
Proximal colostomy with delayed resection
Sigmoid colectomy
Sigmoidoscopy
A full-term 6-day-old boy presents to a physician’s office for routine care. He is tolerating breast milk well. He is urinating, defecating, and sleeping normally. Physical examination reveals an alert newborn with mild eczema, good skin turgor, normal reflexes, and a musty odor. His newborn laboratory screen is notable for phenylketones in the urine. What is the best advice to give his parents regarding the boy’s diet?
Increase iron
Increase niacin
Increase phenylalanine
Increase tyrosine
Increase vitamin D
A 59-year-old woman with renal cell carcinoma presents to the emergency department with severe right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. She is afebrile, acutely tender in the RUQ, and has shifting dullness and a palpable liver edge. Murphy’s sign is negative. Laboratory studies show: Na+: 138 mEq/L K+: 3.6 mEq/L Glucose: 80 mg/dL Aspartate aminotransferase: 50 U/L Alanine aminotransferase: 43 U/L Alkaline phosphatase: 138 U/L Total protein: 6.4 g/dL Albumin: 3.8 g/dL Total bilirubin: 1.1 mg/dL Imaging demonstrates a spider web of collateral veins in the liver. Although extensive measures are taken, the patient dies 6 hours after arriving. Which of the following was the most likely initial treatment?
β-Blocker followed by lactulose
Cholecystectomy
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with dilation of the common bile duct
Exploratory laparotomy
Tissue plasminogen activator followed by anticoagulation
A 65-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of difficulty swallowing, occasional chest pain, and regurgitation of food. Over the past 2 months he has lost about 7 kg (15 lb). Results of a barium swallow study are shown in the image. What test should be performed to look for possible causes of his condition?
24-hour pH monitoring
Esophageal manometry
Serum gastrin level measurement
Upper endoscopy
Urease breath test
A 63-year-old man with a long history of alcohol abuse presents with ascites. He is experiencing mild abdominal discomfort and nausea. Examination reveals tense ascites and generalized tenderness but no rigidity. A diagnostic paracentesis of the fluid is performed. Which of the following ascitic fluid results is most likely to suggest an uncomplicated ascites due to portal hypertension from cirrhosis?
Hemorrhage
Protein >25 g/L
Bilirubin level twice that of serum
Serum to ascites albumin gradient >1.1 g/dL
More than 1000 white cells/mm3
A 67-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and congestive heart failure presents with “burning” epigastric pain that began 2 hours after eating a meal. She states that she has had similar pain over the past several weeks, and has been taking antacids and a medication that her primary care physician had prescribed with moderate relief. The pain has occurred with increasing frequency and now awakens her from sleep. She states she came to the ED today because the pain was not relieved with her usual medications. She denies nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or fever. She also denies hematemesis, black stool, or bright red blood per rectum. On physical examination, she is tender at the epigastrium, with an otherwise normal abdominal, pulmonary, and heart examination. Stool guaiac tests positive for occult blood. Which of the following is the most common serious complication of peptic ulcer disease?
GI haemorrhage
GI perforation
GI penetration
Gastric outlet obstruction
Pernicious anemia
A 60-year-old man with no past medical history undergoes upper endoscopy and biopsy for an upset stomach that is worsened by eating. He is found to have inflammation predominantly in the antrum of the stomach. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this condition?
Alcohol abuse
Cigarette smoking
Iatrogenic
Infection
Spicy foods
A 21-year-old man presents to the clinic feeling tired and generally unwell. He has fallen several times over the past month and has developed a slight tremor in both hands. Physical examination is significant for scleral icterus, ankle edema, and a distended and tense abdomen. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin: 7 g/dL Reticulocyte count: 7% Total bilirubin: 3.1 mg/dL Aspartate aminotransferase: 84 U/L Alanine aminotransferase: 92 U/L Ceruloplasmin: 5 mg/dL (normal: 20–45 mg/dL) Results of a Coombs’ test are negative. Which of the following is an appropriate preventive management step after chelation therapy?
Blood protein electrophoresis
Colonoscopy
ECG
Schilling test
Upper endoscopy
A 70-year-old man with a history of constipation has been experiencing intermittent left- sided abdominal pain and fevers for 2 days. He came to the emergency department immediately after he noticed blood in his toilet this morning. His heart rate is 110/min, blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 18/ min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. On physical examination the physician notes copious amounts of bright red blood per rectum. The physician immediately places two large bore intravenous lines, administers fluid, and sends blood for type and screen. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Arteriography
Colonoscopy
Endoscopy
Nasogastric tube aspiration
Surgical consultation
A 23-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of pain with urination. She has no other complaints. Her symptoms started 3 week ago. During this time, she has been to the clinic twice, with negative urine cultures each time. Her condition has not improved with antibiotic therapy with sulfonamides or quinolones. Physical examination is normal. Wet mount showed epithelial cells. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms?
Staphylococcus aureus
Herpes simplex virus
Trichomonas vaginalis
Escherichia coli
Chlamydia trachomatis
A 35-year-old alcoholic man is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has had several previous episodes of pancreatitis presenting with the same symptoms. Which of the following laboratory values suggests a poor prognosis in this patient?
Elevated serum lipase
Elevated serum amylase
Leukocytosis of 20,000/μm
Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg
Heart rate of 100 beats/minute
A 60-year-old woman with depression and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of episodic vomiting over the last three months. She has constant nausea and early satiety. She vomits once or twice almost every day. In addition, she reports several months of mild abdominal discomfort that is localized to the upper abdomen and that sometimes awakens her at night. She has lost 5 lb of weight. Her diabetes has been poorly controlled (glycosylated hemoglobin recently was 9.5). Current medications are glyburide, metformin, and amitriptyline. Her physical examination is normal except for mild abdominal distention and evidence of a peripheral sensory neuropathy. Complete blood count, serum electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, and liver function tests are all normal. Gallbladder sonogram is negative for gallstones. Upper GI series and CT scan of the abdomen are normal. What is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient’s symptoms?
Barium esophagram
Scintigraphic gastric emptying study
Colonoscopy
Liver biopsy
Small bowel biopsy
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician because his mother noticed a reddish-purple rash on his buttocks and thighs (see image). She notes that he has not seemed well since he had a mild cold 2 weeks earlier; he has been complaining of aches and pains in his legs and a stomach ache. Urinalysis shows 10–20 RBCs/ mm³ and 2+proteinuria. Which of the following is associated with this patient’s disease process?
Hemoptysis
High antistreptolysin O titer
Impaired glucose tolerance
Intussusception
Malar rash
A 63-year-old man with diabetes is called by his primary care physician because of abnormal liver function test results, as follows: Aspartate aminotransferase: 85 U/L Alanine aminotransferase: 102 U/L Alkaline phosphatases: 180 U/L Total bilirubin: 1.9 mg/dL. On physical examination his liver is enlarged. His skin has a slightly yellow hue, especially on his face. The review of symptoms is significant for some weight loss, weakness, arthritis in his hands, and inability to achieve an erection. What test would generate the most likely diagnosis and should be done first?
Blood smear
CT scan of the abdomen
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
Fasting transferrin saturation levels
Liver biopsy
A 28-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of constant vague, diffuse epigastric pain. He describes having a poor appetite and feeling nauseated ever since eating sushi last night. His BP is 125/75 mm Hg, HR is 96 beats per minute, temperature is 100.5°F, and his RR is 16 breaths per minute. On examination, his abdomen is soft and moderately tender in the right lower quadrant (RLQ). Laboratory results reveal a WBC of 12,000/ μL. Urinalysis shows 1+ leukocyte esterase. The patient is convinced that this is food poisoning from the sushi and asks for some antacid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Order a plain radiograph to look for dilated bowel loops.
Administer 40 cc of Maalox and observe for 1 hour.
Send the patient for an abdominal ultrasound.
Order an abdominal CT scan.
Discharge the patient home with ciprofloxacin.
A 23-year-old woman presents to the ED in moderate pain in her left lower quadrant (LLQ). She states that the pain began suddenly and is associated with nausea and vomiting. She had a bout of diarrhea yesterday. This is the second time this month that she experienced pain in this location, however, never with this severity. Her BP is 120/75 mm Hg, HR is 101 beats per minute, temperature is 99.5°F, and RR is 18 breaths per minute. She has a tender LLQ on abdominal examination and a tender adnexa on pelvic examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the patient?
CT scan
MRI
X-ray
Doppler ultrasound
Laparoscopy
A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of mild diffuse abdominal pain. He states that he underwent a routine colonoscopy yesterday and was told “everything is fine.” The pain began upon waking up and is associated with some nausea. He denies fever, vomiting, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. His BP is 143/71 mm Hg, HR is 87 beats per minute, temperature is 98.9°F, and RR is 16 breaths per minute. His abdomen is tense but only mildly tender. You order baseline laboratory tests. His chest radiograph is seen below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Ascending cholangitis
Acute pulmonary edema
Acute liver failure
Pancreatitis
Pneumoperitoneum
A 34-year-old woman complains bitterly of heartburn. Physical examination reveals healing lesions of the fingertips that she says were small ulcers, and there are small areas of telangiectasias on her face. Esophageal manometry reveals a decrease in the expected amplitude of smooth muscle contraction. Lower esophageal sphincter tone is subnormal, but relaxes normally with swallowing. Which of the following statements regarding this condition is most likely correct?
Characterized by systemic signs of inflammation
Predominantly treated symptomatically
Characterized by a poor prognosis
Usually more frequent in men
Characterized by death secondary to a renal crisis
{"name":"2nd Gastrointestinal USMLE", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, congestive heart failure, and atrial fibrillation presents to the ED with several hours of acute onset diffuse abdominal pain. She denies any nausea or vomiting. The pain is constant, but she is unable to localize it. She was diagnosed with a renal artery thrombosis several years ago. Vital signs include HR of 95 beats per minute, BP of 110\/70 mm Hg, and temperature of 98°F. Her abdomen is soft and mildly tender, despite her reported severe abdominal pain. Her WBC count is 12,000\/μL, hematocrit 38%, platelets 250\/μL, and lactate 8 mg\/dL. The stool is traced heme-positive. You are concerned for acute mesenteric ischemia. What is the best way to diagnose this condition?, An 81-year-old diabetic woman with a history of atrial fibrillation is transferred to your emergency department (ED) from the local nursing home. The note from the facility states that the patient is complaining of abdominal pain, having already vomited once. Her vital signs in the ED are temperature 100.1°F, blood pressure (BP) 105\/75 mm Hg, heart rate (HR) 95 beats per minute, and respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute. You examine the patient and focus on her abdomen. Considering that the patient has not stopped moaning in pain since arriving to the ED, you are surprised to find that her abdomen is soft on palpation. You decide to order an abdominal radiographic series. Which of the findings on plain abdominal film is strongly suggestive of mesenteric infarction?, As you palpate the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of a 38-year-old woman’s abdomen, you notice that she stops her inspiration for a brief moment. During the history, the patient states that over the last 2 days she gets pain in her RUQ that radiates to her back shortly after eating. Her vitals include a temperature of 100.4°F, HR of 95 beats per minute, BP of 130\/75 mm Hg, and RR of 16 breaths per minute. What is the initial diagnostic modality of choice for this disorder?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
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