REVIEWER QUIZZEE (PHARMA UF)

Spectrum activity of an anti-infective indicates the:
Cell elembrane type that the anti-infective affects
Anti-infective effectiveness against different invading organisms.
Resistance factors that the bacteria fave developed to tis anti-infective
Acidity of the environment in which they are most effective
A client presents with symptoms of a mild head cold and sore throat, following examination a provider decided against prescribing any antibiotics for tis client. What might be the reason why the health care provider not prescribing this agent?
Increased risk of bacterial resistance.
Decreased risk of experiencing adverse effects
Limited availability of antibiotics that can be used to treat this client
Inability to identify the specific antigen causing the cold.
Gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity is a very common adverse effect seen with anti-infective therapy. A patient experiencing Gl toxicity might complain of:
Yellowish skin and sclera.
Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Constipation and abdominal pain.
Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
A bacteriostatic substance is one that:
Directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with
Prevents the growth of any bacteria
Directly kills any hactetta that are sensitive to the substance
Prevents the growth and reproduction of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance.
Which of the following would be appropriate for treatment with a narrow spectrum antimicrobial drug.
Empic therapy of pneumonia while waiting for culture results.
Treatment of strep throat caused by culture identified streptococcus pyogenes.
Treatment of a polymicrobic mixed infection in the intestine.
Prophylaxis against infection after a surgical procedure.
Random use of broad-spectrum antibiotic is contraindicated. They
Can produce dependency and psychogenic symptoms
Are extremely nephrotoxic
Can interfere with indigenous microbiota
Can Iriduce anaphylactoid reactions.
The following generic and brand names are the example of aminoglycoside agents, except:
Gentamycin (Garamycin)
Streptomycin (generic)
Eryhtromycin (E-Mycin)
Amikacin (Amikin)
Which of the following is the mechanism of bactericidal action of kanamycin (Kantrex), an aminoglycoside antibiotic?
Inhibits protein synthesis.
Folic acid synthesis inhibitor
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
Blocks cell wall synthesis
Ototoxicity, vestibulo-toxic impairment, and nephrotoxicity are seen as major adverse effects of:
Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides
Lincosamides
Aminoglycosides
Which drugs/agents belong to fifth generation cephalosporins?
Ceftaroline fosamil (Teflaro)
Cefepline (Maxipime)
Cefuxitin Mefoxin)
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
A 45-year old woman is likely to be prescribed cephalexin (Keflex) for the treatment of moderate bronchitis. Upon evaluation, she states that she once took penicillin for strep throat and had a reaction to it. Which of the following types of reaction would suggest?
Diarrhea.
Rash, hives, wheezing and shortness of breath.
Stomach upset
Constipation
The FDA recently expanded the caution about taking fluoroquinolones antibiotics, you can recognize these medications by their floxacin stem. If the FDA put out another warning about a generic medication, you know the name must be:
Amoxyl
Tylenol
Cipro
Matrin
The following are the side effects of fluoroquinolone antibiotics, except:
Insomnia and depression
Nausea and vomiting
Headache and dizziness
Constipation and urinary frequency
The client prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro) to treat infections caused by a wide spectrum gram-negative bacteria. The following are the take home instructions of this drug be taught to the client, except
Advise client to have an exposure to sunlight
Avoid antacids, iron supplements and dairy products for at least 2 hours after taking this drugs
Increase fluid intake for at least 6-8 glasses day.
Teach client to report any tendon pain or inflammations
Azithromycin (Zithromax), clarithromycin (Biaxin) and erythromycin (E-mycin) belongs to what class of antibiotics?
Lincosamides
Sulfonamides
Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides
The following are the drug-drug interaction seen with macrolides, except:
Warfarin sodium, an anticoagulants
Theophylline, a xanthine bronchodilations
Sycloserine, an antimycobacterial agents
Decongestant: decreases effetcts of clarithromycin and erythromycin.
During patient education regarding own oral macrolide such as erythromycin the nurse will include which information?
If Gl upsets occur the drug will have to be stopped
The patient needs to take each dose with a sip of water.
The patient may take the drug with a small snack to reduce Gl irritation.
The drug needs to be taken with an antacid to avoid Gl problems,
Which of the following group of antibiotics show bacteriostatic action?
Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides
Monobactams
Aminoglycosides
For which serious adverse effect should the nurse closely monitor a pt who is taking lincosamides?
Seizures
Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea.
Ototoxicity
Hepatotoxicity
Which of the following antimicrobial is true based on their drug classification?
Ofloxacin as cephalosporin agent
Amikacin as macrolide agent
Azithromycin, a fluoroquinolone agent.
Clindamycin, a lincosamide agent
Long term management of clindamycin (Cleocin) can cause which of the following conditions?
Mastitis
Crohn's disease
Cystitis
Severe pseudomembranous colitis
The penicillin act by:
Inhibition of neucliec acid synthesis
Interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Phagocytic action,
Inhibition of protein synthesis
Which one of the following agents acts by inhibiting cell wall formation in bacteria?
Isoniazid
Penicillin G
Streptomycin
Tetracyclines
Penicillinase-resistant penicillins include:
Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
Ampicillin (Omnipen)
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Cloxacillin (Cloxapen)
The most important side-effect of the penicillins is which of the following choices?
Hypersensitivity reactions.
Gastrointestinal disturbances
All of the following are true regarding penicillins, EXCEPT
Penicillins inhibit cross linkage of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
Most penicillins only cross the blood brain barrier when the meninges are inflamed
Piperacillin is a penicillin active against pseudomonas
Penicillins don't require dosage adjustment in renal failure.
If penicillins and penicillin-resistant antibiotics are taken concurrently with this drug, it decrease in the effectiveness of the penicillin results. You are pertaining what drugs?
Benzodizepines and tricyclic
NSAIDs and Anti-migraine
Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides parenteral
Diuretics and phenobarbital
The following is true regarding the action of sulfonamides except:
Work synergistically with TMP
Inhibit the dihydrofolate enzyme.
Prevents the formation of folic acid.
Increased PABA concentrations decrease their effectiveness
Which of the following is an example of a sulfonamide antibiotic medication?
Hydrochlorothiazide
Celecoxib
Bactrim
Acetazolamide
A nurse teaches a patient about sulfonamides. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
"I need to use sunscreen when taking this drug."
"I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone."
"I need to drink extra fluids while taking this medication."
"I should call my provider if I develop a rash while taking this drug."
The following are the adverse effects associated with Sulfa drugs, except:
Cross allergy with furosemide
ototoxicity.
crystalluria
leukopenia and agranulocytosis
When administering tetracycline (Achromycin, Panmycin, Sumycin) to a client with PUD, the nurse should do the following nursing considerations, except:
Keep in a dry place.
Administer with milk or milk products.
Give at least 1 hr before a meal.
Give with full glass of water on an empty stomach.
Protect from light.
A teenage patient is taking a tetracycline drug as part of treatment for severe acne. When the nurse teaches this patient about drug related precautions, which is the following is the most important information to cover?
When the acne clears up the medication may be discontinued.
This medication needs to be taken with antacids to reduce GI upset.
The teeth sound be observed closely for signs of mottling or other color changes.
The patient needs to use sunscreen or avoid exposure to sunlight, because this drug may cause photosensitivity
The nurse is reviewing the orders for a patient who has been admitted for treatment of pneumonia. The antibiotic orders include an order for doxycycline (Doryx). However the patient is asked about his allergies, he lists doxycycline as one of them. What is the nurses priority action?
Administer the drug with and antihistamine to reduce adverse effects.
Ask the pharmacy to order a different antibiotic.
Ask the patient to explain what happens when he has the allergic reaction.
Call the provider to clarify the order because of the patients allergy.
Tetracycline use during pregnancy has been associated with which of the following conditions?
Gray-baby syndrome.
Tooth and bone defects of the neonate.
Excessive bleeding.
Acne.
High level of resistance of tubercle bacilli to isoniazid involves a decrease in the activity of which of the following enzymes?
Topoisomerase II
Catalase-peroxidase
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Acetyltransferase
The mechanism of action of rifampin includes an inhibition of which of the following enzymes?
Transpeptidase
Arabinosyl transferase
RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase
DNA dependent RNA-polymerase
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of resistance of M.tuberculosis to rifampin?
Changes in bacterial peptidyl-transferase
Changes in bacterial RNA polymerase
Changes in bacterial topoisomerase II
Increased bacterial acetylation of the drug
You note your patient’s sweat and urine is orange. You reassure the patient and educate him that which medication below is causing this finding?
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
Isoniazid
Rifampin
A 45-year-old woman complained of blurred vision and inability to distinguish green objects from red objects. The woman, recently diagnosed with cavitary pulmonary tuberculosis, has been receiving a 3 drug combination regimen for two months. Which of the following drugs has most likely caused these adverse effects?
Streptomycin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Isoniazid
A patient with active tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol. As the nurse you make it priority to assess the patient’s?
Vision
Vitamin B6 level
Hearing
Mental status
A 56-year-old man complained of tingling sensation in his limbs and that his arms sometimes felt heavy. He was recently diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and has been receiving isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for two months. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to treat his symptoms?
Cyanocobalamin
Pyridoxine
Folic acid
Vitamin C
When providing health promotion teaching at a senior citizen center, the nurse would include information about which medication used to decrease the duration of influenza A and B?
Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)
oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
ganciclovir (Cytovene)
indinavir (Crixivan)
The nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client diagnosed with genital herpes. Which drug would the nurse expect this client to be prescribed?
amantadine (Symmetrel)
acyclovir (Zovirax)
ribavirin (Virazole)
zidovudine (Retrovir)
A client with influenza is prescribed with an antiviral drug. The nurse determines that the client indicates an understanding of the treatment if he or she state the following?
“I will not be able to infect others while I am on this treatment”.
“I will take the medication exactly as prescribed”.
“I will stop the medication once I feel okay”.
“I will resume my usual activities because these medications have minimal undesirable effects”.
All of which are examples of antiviral influenza medications except?
zanamivir (Relenza)
oseltamivir (Tamiflu).
ethionamide (Trecator)
amantadine (Symmetrel).
When the client is started on antiretroviral drugs for HIV, it will be important for the nurse to teach the client which of the following?
This drug will not cure the disease, but could extend the life expectancy.
This drug will cure the disease over a period of time.
This drug is readily available all over the world for treatment.
This type of drug will be used prior to vaccines.
A pregnant patient is HIV-positive. Which antiretroviral agent will the nurse expect the patient's provider to order?
Abacavir/lamivudine/zidovudine (Trizivir)
Lamivudine/zidovudine (Combivir)
Efavirenz/emtricitabine/tenofovir (Atripla)
Rilpivirine/emtricitabine/tenofovir (Complera)
When providing client and family education on the nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug for HIV-AIDS, the nurse would include instructions:
to take the medicine with apple juice to decrease the taste.
To take the medicine with orange juice to increase absorption.
To take the medicine on a full stomach.
To take the medicine on an empty stomach.
What is the primary assessment the nurse should make for a client who is taking ganciclovir sodium (Cytovene)?
Bowel elimination
Input and output
Blood urea nitrogen
Complete blood count
While monitoring a patient who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B, the nurse expects to see which adverse effects.
Diarrhea and stomach cramps
bradycardia
fever and chills
hypertension
Amphotericin B is associated with potentially serious nephrotoxicity and should not be given concurrently with which of the following drugs?
Oral anticoagulants.
phenytoin.
corticosteroids.
digoxin.
The nurse is administering amphotericin B (Albelcet). This medication:
Should not be given with food.
should be alternated with capsule and oral solution to increase effectiveness.
should be given with plenty of fluids..
should be given with an antacid to decrease gastric upset.
When teaching a patient who is taking nystatin lozenges for oral candidiasis, which instruction by the nurse is correct?
Dissolve the lozenge slowly and completely in your moutdissolve the lozenge slowly and completely in your mouth
Dissolve the lozenges until it is half the original size and then swallow it.
Chew the lozenges carefully before swallowing.
These lozenges need to be swallowed whole with a glass of water.
What is the MOST common drug used to treat oral candidiasis?
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
griseofulvin (Fulvicin P/G)
nystatin (Mycostatin)
amantadine (Symmetrel)
Vaginal yeast infections often respond very well to which of the following antifungal dugs?
Clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
naftifine (Naftin)
butenafine (Mentax)
tolnaftate (Tinactin)
A client with histoplasmosis has an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral). What is the correct teaching related to this medication?
Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Avoid exposure to sunlight.
Limit alcohol to 2 ounces per day
Take the medication with an antacid.
When administering fluconazole (Diflucan) to a client, the nurse should:
instruct the client to double the dose the next day if one dose is missed.
encourage the client to increase fluid intake to a minimum of eight glasses of water a day to prevent crystals in the urine.
have the client chew the tablet.
assess for nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, or diarrhea.
Pharmacologic antimalarial selection is based on the drug sensitivity of the species within the desired travel area. If a patient is diagnosed with chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum, which therapeutic drug would be most appropriate?
Mefloquine (Lariam)
streptozocin (Zanosar)
chloroquine (Aralen)
Antibiotics
A client has returned from North Philippines but has contracted malaria. The drug the nurse expects to see used is ________________.
rizatriptan (Maxalt)
proguanil (Paludrine)
chloroquine (Aralin)
penicillin (Ampicillin)
Before taking chloroquine (Aralen), the client should be instructed that:
A CBC will need to be performed.
his blood pressure should be monitored for 60 minutes after taking the medicine.
this is the only cure known for malaria.
daily weights will need to be taken every morning.
An adverse reaction to metronidazole (Flagyl) would be assessed by the nurse if:
the client complains of hearing loss.
the client tells her that he has no appetite.
the blood pressure is elevated.
the client becomes hypothermic.
A female client is treated for trichomoniasis with metronidazole (Flagyl). The nurse instructs the client that:
She should avoid alcohol during treatment and for 24 hours after completion of the drug.
the medication should not alter the color of the urine.
her partner does not need treatment.
she should discontinue oral contraceptive use during this treatment.
A nurse caring for a pediatric patient on anthelmintic therapy should be alarmed of the following adverse drug reactions, except:
Fever and chills.
difficulty in feeding.
unusually sleepy child.
weight loss of 2 kg in 3 days.
Which of the following physical assessment findings will alert the nurse for anthelmintic drug toxicity in elderly client?
10 bowel sounds in one minute on right lower quadrant (RLQ) upon auscultation.
Non-palpable spleen
Muscle strength +2
Blunt liver edge upon palpation.
Mebendazole is the most commonly used anthelmintic. It is effective against which of the following choices?
All stages of schistosomal infections.
pork tapeworms and threadworms.
pinworms, roundworms, whipworms, and hookworms.
trichinosis and flukes.
Client teaching regarding the use of anthelmintics should include counseling about:
Cardiac drug effects.
the importance of maintaining nutrition during therapy
the use of oral anticoagulants.
the use of oral contraceptives.
The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with Busulfan (Myleran), an alkylating agents. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
Platelet count.
Prothrombin time.
Serum calcium.
Uric acid level.
The nurse is providing teachings to a client receiving cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). The nurse tells the client to which of the following?
Eat foods rich in potassium.
Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day.
Take the medication with food.
Eat foods rich in purine.
A client is receiving Methotrexate (Rheumatrex), an antimetabolites for a series of chemotherapy. Which of the following medication should be readily available to avoid toxicity?
leucovorin (Folinic acid).
vigabatrin (Sabril).
oseltamivir (Tamiflu).
mesna (Mesnex).
Mitomycin (Mutamycin), an antineoplastic antibiotic is prescribed to a client with colorectal cancer. All of which are the routes of administration, except:
Intravenous
intravesical.
intraarterial.
oral.
The client with a testicular cancer is being treated with Etoposide (Etopophos), a mitotic inhibitor. Which of the following side effect is specifically associated with this medication?
Alopecia
Orthostatic hypotension
Chest pain
Edema
A male client with breast cancer is receiving Tamoxifen (Nolvadex), a hormone and hormone modulators. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value?
Triglyceride level.
Fasting blood sugar.
Activated partial thromboplastin time.
Serum sodium and potassium.
A client with glaucoma is receiving Betaxolol hydrochloride (Betoptic) eye drops. Which of the following interventions will the nurse likely do before the administration?
Assessing peripheral pulses.
Monitor pulse rate.
Assessing level of orientation.
Monitor blood sugar level
A client went to a health care facility to ask instructions regarding on how to administer ophthalmic medications. The nurse correctly instructs the client to?
Blow the nose to stimulate faster absorption.
Blink quickly to stimulate tearing after the administration.
Apply gentle pressure with a clean tissue to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 seconds after the administration.
Gently allow the tip of the optic bottle to touch with the conjunctival sac.
The client is receiving an eye ointment and an eye drop. The nurse instructs the client to?
Administer the eye drop, wait for 10 minutes then administer the eye ointment.
Administer the eye drop first, followed by the eye ointment.
Administer the eye ointment first, followed by the eye drop.
Administer the eye ointment, wait for 5 minutes then administer the eye drop.
A nurse is providing instructions to a client with an impacted cerumen who is prescribed with Carbamide peroxide (Debrox). Which of the following teachings made by the nurse indicates a further research?
Hold the earlobe up and back.
Use a cold preparation of the medication.
Lie on your side or tilt the affected ear upward. Hold the dropper directly over the ear and place 5 to 10 drops into the ear canal.
Do not touch the dropper tip or let it touch your ear or any other surface.
The nurse prepares an adult client for an ear irrigation as ordered by the physician. Which of the following procedure correctly performed by the nurse?
Position the client with the affected side up after the irrigation.
Directs a slow steady current of irrigating solution into the eardrum.
Pull the pinna down and back.
Warm the irrigating solution to 98º Fahrenheit.
A client went to a health care facility with a complaint of difficulty opening the eyelid because of pain. The physician diagnosed the client with keratitis and is prescribed with an eye lubricant. Which of the following medicine should the nurse expect to administer?
Pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine)
Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (Lacril).
Apraclonidine (Lopidine).
Timolol maleate (Timoptic)
Which of the following NSAIDs is used to prevent thrombosis?
toradol
aspirin
Naproxen
motrin
To minimize the risk of dyspnea and GI bleeding, OTC ibuprofen is given:
With meals.
With orange juice.
intravenous.
on an empty stomach
Which of the following laboratory values would indicate toxicity in the client taking acetaminophen daily?
Direct bilirubin level of 2mg/dL
Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
Platelet count of 400,000/mm3
Celecoxib is what class of drug?
Narcotic
Corticosteroid
Muscle relaxant
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
Mefenamic acid is classified as:
Fenamate.
Triptans
Cox-II inhibitor
Salicylate.
Immune suppressants are used of the following, except:
Reduction of the number of relapses in multiple sclerosis
treatment of aggressive cancers.
treatment of transplant rejection.
treatment of autoimmune disease
Interferon alfa-n3 (Alferon N) would be the drug of choice for:
treatment of leukemias.
treatment of multiple sclerosis.
treatment of Kaposi's sarcoma.
intralesional treatment of warts.
Patient teaching of a patient receiving an interferon would include:
Proper methods of drawing up and injecting the drug.
proper use of oral contraceptives.
importance of exercise and cardiovascular workouts.
use of aspirin to control side effects.
The nurse is assisting in administering immunizations at a health care clinic. The nurse understands that immunization provides which of the following?
Acquired immunity from disease
Innate immunity from disease
Natural immunity from disease
Protection from all diseases
Vaccines are used to stimulate:
serum sickness.
a mild disease in healthy people.
passive immunity to a foreign protein.
active immunity to a foreign protein.
Common adverse effects associated with routine immunization would NOT include:
Difficulty of breathing.
fever and rash.
pain, redness, swelling and nodular formation at the site of injection.
drowsiness and fretfulness.
The nurse is discussing vaccines with the mother of a 4-year-old child who attends a day care center that requires the DTaP vaccine. The mother, who is pregnant, tells the nurse that she does not want her child to receive the pertussis vaccine because she has heard that the disease is "not that serious" in older children. What information will the nurse include when discussing this with the mother?
The vaccine will not be given to her child while she is pregnant.
If she gets the vaccine, both she and her 4 year-old child will be protected.
If the 4-year-old child contracts pertussis, it can be passed on to her newborn.
Vaccinating the 4-year-old will provide passive immunity for her unborn child.
What is the priority nursing assessment to monitor when administering vaccinations?
Pain at the injection site
Anaphylaxis
Myalgias
Symptoms of infection
In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document?
Presidential Proclamation No. 46
Presidential Proclamation No. 6
P.D. 996
R.A. 7846
A 4-week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
OPV1
Infant BCG
DPT1
Hepatitis B vaccine 1
A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?
3 years
10 years
Life time
1 year
A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant's temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?
Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment.
Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well.
Give Paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside.
Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
In our herbal medicines, what are the uses of Akapulko?
Anti Fungal, Ringworm, Athletes foot
Anti Edema, Diuretic, Anti Urolithiasis
Anti-helmintic
Lowers Uric Acid
In our herbal medicines, what are the uses of Lagundi?
Anti Edema, Diuretic, Anti Urolithiasis
Astma, Cough, Fever, Dysentery, Skin diseases, Aromatic bath
Anti Edema, Diuretic, Anti Urolithiasis
Since the mother's blood sugar level is high, you teach her to take which of the following herbal medicine approved by the DOH?
Pansit-pansitan
Ampalaya
Young guava leaves
Garlic
Another herbal plant which the families can use for swollen gums and toothache is:
Herba buena
Ampalaya leaves
Lagundi
Tsaang gubat
{"name":"REVIEWER QUIZZEE (PHARMA UF)", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Spectrum activity of an anti-infective indicates the:, A client presents with symptoms of a mild head cold and sore throat, following examination a provider decided against prescribing any antibiotics for tis client. What might be the reason why the health care provider not prescribing this agent?, Gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity is a very common adverse effect seen with anti-infective therapy. A patient experiencing Gl toxicity might complain of:","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
Powered by: Quiz Maker