Pharmacology Midterm Review
Pharmacology Midterm Review Quiz
Test your knowledge and understanding of pharmacology with our comprehensive midterm review quiz. This quiz covers essential concepts, terminology, and practical applications in the field of pharmacology. It's perfect for students and professionals aiming to solidify their grasp of this vital subject.
Key features include:
- Multiple-choice format for easy answering
- Covers a wide range of pharmacology topics
- Track your score and identify areas for improvement
Generic drug names begin with a lowercase letter?
True
False
1.Which term specifies the chemical, molecular, or elemental make-up of the drug?
Generic name
Brand or trade name
Chemical name
Which term below describes the drug name which usually starts with a capital letter in medical documents?
Generic name
Brand or trade name
Chemical name
Which term is the property of the company who owns the name? This means the drug has a propietary, trademark- protected name or registered brand which usually starts with a capital letter.
Generic name
Brand or trade name
Chemical name
All drugs have at least three names: 1.chemical 2. generic 3.brand or trade name
True
False
Which of the following is the official name of a drug?
Chemical
Brand
Trade
Generic
Who regulates the manufacture and distribution of substances with abuse potential?
DEA
DOL
FDA
DHHS
OSHA
Which federal regulatory agency decides which drugs require a prescription and which drugs may be sold over-the-counter (OTC)?
DEA
OSHA
FDA
The word stat on a prescription means:
Three times a day
After meals
At bedtime
Immediately
Which of the following is true concerning generic and trade names of drugs?
A drug may have several generic names, but it may only have one trade name
A drug may only have one generic name, but it may have several trade names
A drug may have several generic names and several trade names.
A drug may only have one generic name and one trade name.
The abbreviation used on prescriptions for four times a day is:
Qid
Tid
Prn
bid
The abbreviation used on prescriptions for three times a day is:
Qid
Tid
Prn
Bid
The abbreviation used on prescriptions for twice a day is:
Qid
Tid
Prn
Bid
Which of the following statements best describes the ED50?
The time it takes for 50% of the patients to reach maximal drug efficacy.
The dose of a drug that produces a response in 50% of the population.
The dose at which 50 percent of patients will have drug toxicity.
The number of doses it takes to achieve 50% of the response.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the therapeutic index (TI) of a drug?
A drug with a large TI is more dangerous than a drug with a small TI
The formula for TI is ED50/LD50.
ED50 is 50% of the effective clinical dose.
TI is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose.
The distribution of a drug is determined by:
Blood flow to the organ.
Presence of certain barriers.
Plasma protein-binding capacity.
solubility of the drug.
all of the above.
The _____ is the most common site for biotransformation.
kidney
Blood plasma
liver
Small intestine
If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics:
Elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased.
A constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
The drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body.
the elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.
Which organ is involved in the first-pass effect after oral administration of a drug?
Kidney
Lungs
Liver
Spleen
The greater the therapeutic index is, the greater the toxicity will be.
True
False
A drug that is delivered from the outside of the body to the inside of the body using the GI tract. Three ways of entering the body are the mouth, by feeding tube, or rectally.
Enteral Route
Parenteral Route
Percutaneous Route
A patient's perception that a pill without active ingredients is having a pharmacologic effect is termed:
Tachyphylaxis.
Hypersensitivity.
neurosis.
Compliance.
Placebo effect.
The route of administration of a drug affects both the onset and duration of response.
True
False
A drug effect that is neither predictable nor dose related is called a:
Therapeutic Effect
Toxic Reaction
Side Effect
Drug Allergy
Both B and D are correct
Drug allergy and a side effect are 2 examples of dose-related responses
True
False
An acute. life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, and cardiac arrhythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Which hypersensitivity reaction causes antibody- antigen (immune complex) deposition?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Type _____ hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE antibodies.
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Which local anesthetic agents would be safest for pregnant women based on the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) pregnancy categories?
Lidocaine 2% with 1:50,000 epinephrine
Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine
Mepivacaine 3%, plain
Articaine 4%
What is the most difficult time for teratogenicity during pregnancy?
First trimester
Second trimester
Third trimester
All of the above
A medication or drug that produces a defect in fetal development is called a(n)
Abortifacient
Teratogen
Phocomelia
Syndactyly
Which is the safest analgesic to use during pregnancy?
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Opioids
Acetaminophen
The acronym SLUD denotes adverse reactions associated with administration of ______ agents.
Cholinergic
Anticholinergic
Adrenergic
Antiadrenergic
The principal neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic system is
Dopamine
Acetylcholine
Epinephrine
Adrenaline
What nervous system has epinephrine and norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter?
The sympathetic system
The parasympathetic system
Which drug would be best to treat xerostomia?
Atropine
Propranolol
Pilocarpine
Pseudoephedrine
Stimulation of 2-receptors results in:
Vasoconstriction of skin and skeletal muscle.
Increase in heart rate and force of contraction.
smooth-muscle relaxation.
Bronchoconstriction.
The pain threshold is raised by
Sleep
Sympathy
Activities
Analgesics
All of the above
Which of the following choices has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic and antiplatelet action?
Acetaminophen
Codeine
Aspirin
Hydrocodone
Non opioid analgesics work by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis (COX I and Cox II).
True
False
This group of analgesics is believed by many authors to be the most useful analgesia to treat dental pain.
Narcotics
Salicylates
Acetaminophen
NSAIDs
Which of the following NSAIDs is the drug of choice for treating a nursing woman?
Naproxen
Diflunsial
Ibuprofen
Fenoprofen
Acetaminophen does not possess any of these clinically significant effects: _______ (1) antipyretic, (2) anti-inflammatory, (3) analgesic
1, 2, 3
1 and 2
1 and 3
2
What do aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and codeine have in common?
They are all anti-inflammatory.
They are all analgesic.
They all inhibit platelet aggregation.
They are all antipyretic.
____ is usually the cause of death with an overdose of opioids.
Tachycardia
Respiratory depression
Electrolyte imbalance
Cellular necrosis
Which is an advantage of the nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) over the opioids for the management of dental pain in an opioid addict?
They are not addictive.
They are antitussive.
They are all useful if the patient is pregnant.
They cause less fluid retention (edema).
Tylenol #3 contains _____ mg of codeine.
7.5
15
30
60
Which of the following is associated with pseudomembranous colitis?
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Clindamycin
Metronidazole
Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for an early dental infection unless the patient is allergic to it?
Erythromycin
Clindamycin
Penicillin
Metronidazole
The disease-producing power of the microorganism is called:
Resistance.
Superinfection.
Infection.
Virulence.
Superinfection is more often caused by _____-spectrum antibiotics and increases when taken for a _____ time period.
Narrow; shorter
Narrow; longer
broad; shorter
Broad; longer
The possibility of superinfection can be minimized by use of the _____ specific antiinfective agent, the _____ effective course of therapy, and adequate doses.
Least; shortest
Least; longest
most; shortest
Most; longest
_____ is the drug of choice for prophylaxis to prevent bacterial endocarditis before a dental procedure.
Penicillin G
Penicillin V
Ampicillin
Amoxicillin
A cephalosporin would be most closely related to which of the following agents?
Penicillin VK
Clarithromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline
Clindamycin
Tetracyclines should not be used in children younger than _____ years of age.
6
9
12
15
_____ is associated with a severe drug interaction with alcohol.
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
Metronidazole
Aminoglycosides
Oral candidiasis can be treated with Nystatin.
True
False
Viruses are easy to treat because they don't require cooperation with the host's cells to replicate.
True
False
Topical acyclovir does prevent the recurrence of herpes labialis.
True
False
Anesthetics in 4% solution, such as Septocaine/articaine, have an increased risk of nerve damage and should be used with caution or avoided.
True
False
Addition of vasoconstrictor to local anesthetic
Reduces blood supply to the area
Limits systemic absorption
reduces systemic toxicity
All of the above
The maximal safe dose of epinephrine for the cardiac patient is __________ mg.
0.02
0.04
0.2
0.4
N2O is NOT contraindicated in a patient with COPD.
True
False
A patient should be instructed to breathe 100% oxygen after N2O for at least how many minutes?
1
5
Oxygen is not needed
All of the following are relative contraindications of N2O/O2 use except one. Which one of the following indicates when N2O/O2 should be used?
Hypersensitive gag reflex
Severely claustrophobic patients
Current upper respiratory tract infection
First trimester of pregnancy
Alcohol intoxication or drug use
All of the following are relative contraindications to the use of N2O/O2 sedation except one. Which one is this exception?
Patient with psychotic illness taking several medications
Patient who does not have the mental capacity to understand the procedure
Operator who cannot communicate with the patient because of a language barrier
Patient has undiagnosed anorexia.
Phase 1 clinical trials involve all of the following except which one?
Safe dose range
Toxic effects of the drug
Potential side effects
Effectiveness
In comparing two drugs on a dose-response curve, the drug that is more efficacious would
Be closer to the y-axis
Have a higher median effective dose (ED50)
Be farther from the y-axis
Have a greater curve height
Which of the following is considered to be the strongest centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant and is used in dentistry for TMD patients?
Ambien
Lunesta
Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Celebrex
An enteral route of administration would be
Intravenous
Oral
Sublingual
Transdermal
On a prescription, the directions to the patient are preceded by
Rx.
Sig.
#.
Disp.
Nitrous oxide is contraindicated for use in a patient with which of the following conditions?
Diabetes
Emphysema/ COPD
Hypertension
Glaucoma
When different drugs compete for the same receptor sites, the drug with the stronger affinity for the receptor will bind to
More receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity
None of the available receptors
Fewer receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity
All of the available receptors
Which term refers to the time required for a drug to begin to have its effect?
Duration
Onset
Efficacy
First pass
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) functions as a(n) _____ system for many bodily functions.
Somatic negative feedback
Somatic modulating
Automatic negative feedback
Automatic modulating
The neurotransmitter released from a preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is:
Epinephrine.
Norepinephrine.
Dopamine.
Acetylcholine.
The S in SLUD stands for:
Sympathetic.
Salivation.
Severe.
Secretion.
SLUD stands for:
Salivation, localized, urination, disease
Salivation, lacrimation, unique, disease
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation
Agents such albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) cause bronchodilation by binding to _____ receptors.
Alpha
Beta1
Beta2
Nicotinic
Epinephrine will block the action of histamine during a medical emergency allergic reaction.
True
False
The Autonomic Nervous System functions largely as an automatic modulating system for many bodily functions.
True
False
Which of the following is the best to use in pediatric patients for both its analgesic and antipyretic action?
Aspirin
Acetaminophen
NSAIDs
Codeine
Which of the following opioids is used primarily in the treatment of opioid addicts?
Propoxyphene
Meperidine
Hydromorphone
Methadone
Which opioid is commonly used as an antitussive?
Propoxyphene
Codeine
Diphenoxylate
Pentazocine
_____ has the highest incidence of gastrointestinal complaints of any of the antibiotics.
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Bactrim
Cephalosporin
Which of the following drugs can be used to treat heroin addiction?
A. Morphine
B. Methadone
C. Naltrexone
Both A and C
Both B and C
Which of the following agents is the most common topical local anesthetic?
Lidocaine
Benzocaine
Tetracaine
Dyclonine
Which of the following agents is the drug of first choice against infections caused by aerobic microorganisms in penicillin-allergic patients?
Metronidazole
Erythromycin
Doxycycline
Clindamycin
Azithromycin and clarithromycin:
Cause lysis of the bacterial cell wall.
Are not effective against anaerobes.
Have a higher incidence of adverse reactions than erythromycin.
May be used as alternative antibiotics for the prophylaxis of endocarditis and prosthetic joint infections.
Cholinergic stimulation is most like _____ stimulation and the opposite of _____ and _____ stimulation.
PANS, SANS, PANS
SANS, PANS, adrenergic
PANS, SANS, cholinergic
PANS, SANS, adrenergic
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