Life4QuestionBankQuiz
Emerging Viral Diseases Quiz
Test your knowledge on emerging viral diseases and their implications in public health with this engaging quiz. Challenge yourself with questions about viral mechanisms, transmission routes, and the impact of various viruses on human health.
This quiz covers a wide range of topics:
- Viral genetics and life cycles
- Clinical manifestations
- Preventive measures
- Associated diseases and complications
Which of the following is not an important factor contributing to the phenomenon of emerging viral diseases?
International air travel
Antibiotic resistance
Deforestation
War
Organ and tissue transplantation
The viral envelope performs all but which of the following functions?
Neutralization of the virus
Protection of the viral nucleic acid
Binding to the host cell surface
Assisting in penetration of the viral nucleic acid
Stimulation of the host immune response
Your summer research project is to study the viruses that cause gastroenteritis. You recover a virus from a stool sample and notice that the growth medium on the infected cultures is highly acidic. You find that the viral genome is double-stranded DNA. Of the following, which one is the most appropriate conclusion you could draw?
There is a high likelihood that the agent is a rotavirus.
You need to determine the viral serotype to establish whether the virus was important in causing the disease.
The patient should have been treated with the antiviral drug amantadine to shorten the duration of symptoms.
The virus particle would contain a reverse transcriptase enzyme.
Adults who have had varicella as children occasionally suffer a recurrent form of the disease, shingles. The agent causing these diseases is a member of which of the following viral families?
Herpesvirus
Poxvirus
Adenovirus
Myxovirus
Paramyxovirus
Which of the following tumors is caused by a virus other than Epstein-Barr virus?
Posttransplant lymphomas
Hodgkin disease
Kaposi sarcoma
AIDS-related central nervous system non-Hodgkin lymphomas
Burkitt lymphoma
Which of the following viruses causes a mononucleosis-like syndrome and is excreted in the urine?
Cytomegalovirus
Epstein-Barr virus
Human herpesvirus 6
" Varicella-zoster virus"
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Laboratory scientists who work with vaccinia virus–infected cultures or animals are at risk of accidental exposure to the virus. Which of the following procedures by the laboratory worker is of least benefit in protecting against inadvertent infection with vaccinia virus?
Proper use of personal protective equipment such as gloves and goggles
Use of biosafety hoods
Cleaning of laboratory work space before experimentation
Smallpox vaccination
Safe needle-handling practices
A 27-year-old man develops fever, chills, headache, and backache. Four days later he develops a high fever and jaundice. Yellow fever is diagnosed. Which of the following statements concerning yellow fever is correct?
The virus is transmitted by culicine mosquitoes in the urban form of disease.
Monkeys in the jungle are a major reservoir of yellow fever virus.
Yellow fever often has long-term complications.
All infections lead to apparent disease.
Ribavirin is specific therapy.
Each of the following statements concerning respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is correct EXCEPT:
RSV has a single-stranded RNA genome.
RSV induces the formation of multinucleated giant cells.
RSV causes pneumonia primarily in children.
RSV infections can be effectively treated with acyclovir.
A 2-month-old infant developed a respiratory illness that the pediatrician diagnosed as bronchiolitis. The most likely cause of the disease is
Parainfluenza virus type 4
Respiratory syncytial virus
Influenza virus
Metapneumovirus
Measles virus
A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months before after drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg, antibodies to HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive for IgM core antibody. The nurse
Does not have hepatitis B
Has hepatitis A
Is in the late stages of hepatitis B infection
Is in the “window” (after the disappearance of HBsAg and before the appearance of anti-HBsAg)
Has hepatitis C
Which of the following statements regarding HBIG is not true?
HBIG provides temporary protection when administered in standard doses.
HBIG typically is used instead of hepatitis B vaccine for postexposure immunoprophylaxis to prevent HBV infection.
No evidence exists that HBV, HCV, or HIV have ever been transmitted by HBIG in the United States.
MHBIG is not used as protection against HCV infection.
One month after school has been let out for the summer, a 16-year-old girl develops fever, myalgia, and headache. An outbreak of an illness with similar symptoms caused by an echovirus is known to be occurring in the community. The primary anatomic site of echovirus multiplication in the human host is
The muscular system
The central nervous system
The alimentary tract
The blood and lymph system
The respiratory system
This viral gastroenteritis agent has a segmented, doublestranded RNA genome and a double-shelled capsid. It is a member of which virus family?
Adenoviridae
Astroviridae
Caliciviridae
Reoviridae
Coronaviridae
An arbovirus common in the Middle East, Africa, and Southwest Asian first appeared in New York in 1999. By 2002 the virus had spread throughout the continental United States. This arbovirus, a member of the Japanese B encephalitis antigenic complex, is which of the following?
Japanese B encephalitis virus
Tick-borne encephalitis virus
West Nile virus
Dengue virus
Rift Valley fever virus
Human papillomavirus can cause cancer in humans and is most commonly associated with
Rectal polyps
Breast cancer
Prostate cancer
Mesotheliomas
Anogenital cancers
Regarding the oncogenes of DNA tumor viruses, which one of the following is most accurate?
They encode protein kinases that phosphorylate p53 protein.
They interact with cellular proto-oncogenes and activate them.
They encode cellular growth factors that activate S-phase DNA synthesis.
They encode proteins that bind to the proteins encoded by tumor suppressor genes.
Chagas disease is especially feared in Latin America because of the damage that can occur to the heart and parasympathetic nervous system and the lack of an effective drug for the symptomatic later stages. Your patient is planning to reside in a Venezuelan village for 1–2 years. Which one of the following suggestions would be of special value for avoiding Chagas disease?
Boil or treat all of your drinking water.
Do not keep domestic pets in your house.
Sleep under a bed net.
Never walk barefoot in the village compound.
Do not eat lettuce or other raw vegetables or unpeeled fruit.
An apparently fatigued but alert 38-year-old woman has spent 6 months as a teacher in a rural Thailand village school. Her chief complaints include frequent headaches, occasional nausea and vomiting, and periodic fever. You suspect malaria and indeed find parasites in red blood cells in a thin blood smear. To rule out the dangerous falciparum form of malaria, which one of the following choices is NOT consistent with a diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum malaria based on a microscopic examination of the blood smear?
Red blood cells containing trophozoites with Schuffner’s dots
Red blood cells containing >1 parasite per RBC
Banana-shaped or crescent-shaped gametocytes
Parasites within normal-sized red blood cells
Parasites with double nuclei
Regarding E. histolytica, which one of the following is most accurate?
E. Histolytica causes “flask-shaped” ulcerations in the colon mucosa.
Domestic animals such as dogs and cats are the main reservoir of E. histolytica.
In the microscope, E. Histolytica is recognized by having two sets of paired flagella. 933
E. Histolytica infections are limited to the intestinal mucosa and do not spread to other organs.
The infection is typically acquired by the ingestion of the trophozoite in contaminated food and water.
Your patient is a 30-year-old man with persistent watery diarrhea for 2 weeks. He is HIV antibody positive with a CD4 count of 10. Routine stool culture revealed no bacterial pathogen. Ova and parasite analysis revealed cysts that stained red in an acid-fast stain. Of the following, which one is the most likely cause of this infection?
C. hominis
E. histolytica
G. lamblia
T. vaginalis
Your patient is a 25-year-old man with fever and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. He is a soldier in the U.S. Army who recently returned from a tour of duty in the Middle East. Physical exam was noncontributory. Laboratory tests revealed anemia and leukopenia. Multiple blood cultures for bacteria and fungi were negative, as was a test for the p24 antigen of HIV. CT scan of the abdomen revealed splenomegaly. A bone marrow biopsy was performed, and a stained sample revealed amastigotes within mononuclear cells. Of the following, which one is the most likely cause?
L. donovani
P. falciparum
T. gondii
T. brucei
T. cruzi
Regarding prions, which one of the following is the most accurate?
The genome of prions consists of a negative-polarity RNA that has a defective polymerase gene.
Prion proteins are characterized by having changes in conformation from the alpha-helical form to the beta-pleated sheet form.
Prions are very sensitive to ultraviolet (UV) light, which is why UV light is used in hospital operating rooms to prevent their transmission.
The main host defense against prions consists of an inflammatory response composed primarily of macrophages and CD4-positive T cells.
Which of the following statements regarding virus morphology is true?
Helical nucleocapsids are found with single-stranded DNA viruses
All RNA viruses are spherical in shape.
Some viruses with DNA genomes contain a primitive nucleus.
Some viruses contain flagella.
Viral surface proteins protect the viral genome from nucleases.
What is the definition of the eclipse phase?
When the virus is developing but not yet infectious
When a virus matures and is capable of infecting a new host
When the active, infectious viral particle escapes from the host
When the viral DNA becomes latent as a prophage
When the virion enters the host cell
Which one of the following is a disease in which the role of parvovirus B19 has not been established?
Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
Transient aplastic crisis
Hydrops fetalis
Fulminant hepatitis
Each of the following statements concerning herpesvirus latency is correct except
Exogenous stimuli can cause reactivation of latent infection, with induction of symptomatic disease.
During latency, antiviral antibody is not demonstrable in the sera of infected individuals.
Reactivation of latent herpesviruses is more common in patients with impaired cell-mediated immunity than in immunocompetent patients.
Virus can be recovered from latently infected cells by cocultivation with susceptible cells.
Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features. Which one of the following features is least likely to be shared?
Important cause of morbidity and mortality in the newborn
Congenital abnormalities caused by transplacental passage
Important cause of serious disease in immunosuppressed individuals
Mild or inapparent infection
Which feature of the variola virus makes it an extreme bioterrorism threat?
Wide availability of the virus
Weaponized strains present in several laboratories
Limited immunity in present population
Low stockpiles of effective drugs for treatment
Potential emergence from animal reservoir
Regarding varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which one of the following is most accurate?
High-dose acyclovir can eliminate the latent state caused by VZV.
The principal site of latency of VZV is in the nucleus of motor neurons.
Domestic animals, such as pigs and chickens, are the main reservoir for VZV.
The vaccine against varicella contains all three serotypes of formalin-killed VZV as the immunogen.
When zoster occurs in an immunocompromised patient, acyclovir should be given to prevent disseminated infection.
Regarding viroids, which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate?
They are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
They consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
They cause tumors in experimental animals.
They require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
Which of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
St. Louis encephalitis virus
Colorado tick fever virus
Yellow fever virus
Dengue fever virus
Coxsackievirus
Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
It results in major antigenic changes.
It is exhibited only by influenza A viruses.
It is caused by frameshift mutations in viral genes.
It results in new subtypes over time.
It affects predominantly the matrix protein.
A person with asthma has an acute exacerbation with increased lower respiratory illness. A virus is recovered. The isolate is most likely to be which of the following virus types?
Parainfluenza virus
Parechovirus
Rhinovirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Echovirus
Your patient is a 27-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use who now is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis C. He is HIV antibody negative. Which one of the following is the best choice of drugs to treat his chronic hepatitis C?
Acyclovir and foscarnet
Ganciclovir and enfuvirtide
Peginterferon and ribavirin
Zidovudine and lamivudine
Zidovudine and ritonavir
A 23-year-old woman is planning a 1-year trip through Europe, Egypt, and the Indian subcontinent and receives a vaccine for hepatitis A. The current hepatitis A vaccine is
A live attenuated virus vaccine
A recombinant DNA vaccine
A formalin-inactivated virus vaccine
An envelope glycoprotein subunit vaccine
A chimeric poliovirus that expresses HAV neutralizing epitopes
Norwalk virus illness might be prevented by any of the following except
Avoidance of raw fruits
Live, reassortant vaccine
Careful handwashing
Avoidance of local drinking water
Avoidance of raw oysters
Hantaviruses, which are emerging pathogens in the United States, can be described by which of the following?
They are arenaviruses.
They are readily transmitted human to human.
They cause influenza-like symptoms followed rapidly by acute respiratory failure.
They are acquired by inhalation of aerosols of deer urine.
They show a high frequency of antigenic variation.
Regarding poliovirus, which one of the following is MOST accurate?
Poliovirus remains latent within sensory ganglia, and reactivation occurs primarily in immunocompromised patients.
When the live, attenuated virus in the oral vaccine replicates, revertant mutants can occur that can cause paralytic polio.
The widespread use of the killed vaccine in the countries of North and South America has led to the virtual elimination of paralytic polio in those areas.
The current recommendation is to give the live, attenuated vaccine for the first 3 immunizations to prevent the child from acting as a reservoir, followed by boosters using the killed vaccine.
Regarding hepatitis A virus (HAV), which one of the following statements is most accurate?
The HAV vaccine contains live, attenuated virus as the immunogen.
The screening of blood for transfusion has greatly reduced the spread of this virus.
The diagnosis is typically made by serologic tests rather than by culturing the virus.
Multiple episodes of hepatitis A are common because it has three serotypes.
It has a segmented, negative-polarity, single-stranded RNA genome and an RNA polymerase in the virion.
Your patient is a 20-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B that was diagnosed by detecting hepatitis B antigen in her blood more than 6 months after her acute infection. Which one of the following is the best choice of drug to treat her chronic hepatitis B?
Acyclovir
Foscarnet
Entecavir
Ritonavir
Zidovudine
Cellular oncogenes represent activated genes involved in cancer. A second class of cancer genes is involved in cancer development only when both alleles of such a gene are inactivated. The second class of genes is called
Proto-oncogenes
Tumor suppressor genes
Transduced genes
Silent genes
T antigen genes
A woman was hiking in an isolated area when a skunk appeared and bit her on the leg. She now presents to your emergency room about an hour after the bite. Which one of the following is the most appropriate thing to do?
Give rabies vaccine and hyperimmune globulin immediately.
Test the patient’s serum for antibodies now and in 10 days to see if there is a rise in antibody titer before treating her.
Reassure her that rabies is not a problem because skunks do not carry rabies.
Quarantine the animal for 10 days and only treat her if signs of rabies appear in the animal.
A 32-year-old male tourist traveled to Senegal for 1 month. During the trip, he swam in the Gambia river. Two months after his return, he began complaining of intermittent lower abdominal pain with dysuria. Laboratory results of ova and parasites revealed eggs with a terminal spine. Which of the following parasites is the cause of the patient’s symptoms?
Toxoplasma gondii
Schistosoma mansoni
Schistosoma haematobium
Ascaris lumbricoides
Taenia solium
Risk factors for severe MERS coronavirus infection include which of the following?
Recent camel exposure
Prior coronavirus infection
Seasonal allergies
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Scrapie and kuru possess all of the following characteristics except
A histologic picture of spongiform encephalopathy
Transmissibility to animals associated with a long incubation period
Slowly progressive deterioration of brain function
Prominent intranuclear inclusions in oligodendrocytes
Regarding Plasmodium species, which one of the following is most accurate?
These organisms are transmitted by the bite of female Anopheles mosquitoes.
The bite of the vector injects merozoites into the bloodstream that then infect red blood cells.
Both male and female gametocytes are formed in the vector and are injected into the person at the time of the bite.
Hypnozoites are produced by P. Falciparum and can cause relapses of malaria after the acute phase is over.
Malaria caused by P. Vivax is characterized by a cerebral malaria and blackwater fever more often than malaria caused by the other three species.
Regarding prion-mediated diseases, which one of the following is the most accurate?
Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a disease of cattle caused by the ingestion of sheep brain mixed into cattle feed.
Prion-mediated diseases are characterized by vacuoles in the brain called “spongiform changes.”
Kuru is a prion-mediated disease for which the diagnosis can be confirmed in the laboratory by a fourfold or greater rise in antibody titer.
In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, only neurons latently infected by JC virus produce the prion filaments that disrupt neuronal function.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease occurs primarily in children under the age of 2 years because they cannot mount an adequate immune response to the prion protein.
A 70-year-old woman with no significant medical history begins to experience memory loss and personality changes. Over the next few months, her symptoms become more severe, as she experiences rapid mental deterioration. She also starts to have sudden, jerking movements in response to being startled and gait disturbances. Eventually, she lapses into a coma and dies eight months after the onset of symptoms. What process likely caused this woman's illness?
Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta.
Autoimmune inflammation and demyelination of the central nervous system.
Autoimmune inflammation and demyelination of the peripheral nervous system.
Conversion of a protein from an a-helix to a ß-pleated form, which resists degradation.
Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem
High risk of T cell leukemia
Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
Inability to use a live donor
Delayed hypersensitivity
Defects in neutrophil NADPH oxidase system produce
Chronic granulomatous disease
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
Hashimoto's disease
Streptococcal infection
T-cell-mediated immune responses can result in
Formation of granulomas
Induration at the reaction site
Rejection of a kidney transplant
All of the above
Circulating immune complexes are an etiologic factor in the following diseases:
Myastenia gravis
Tuberculosis
Farmer’s lung
Goodpasture’s syndrome
A transplant of tissue between individuals of the same species, but with different genetic background is called a(n):
autograft
Isograft
Allograft
Xenograft
The human immunodeficiency virus primarily infects:
helper cells
Plasma cells
Killer cells
Epithelial cells lining the genitourinary tract
Tumor antigens have been shown to cross-react immunologically in cases of
Tumors induced by chemical carcinogens
Tumors induced by RNA viruses
Tumors induced by irradiation with ultraviolet light
Tumors induced by the same chemical carcinogen on two separate sites on the same individuals
Rejection of a tumor may involve which of the following?
T-cell-mediated cytotoxicity
ADCC
Complement-dependent cytotoxicity
All answer are correct
An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
Carcinoembryonic antigen
Viral antigen
IgG
Bacterial antigen
Cancer cells often have reduced amounts of cell surface proteins, including class I MHC antigens. Which of the following cells of the immune system can exploit this property to kill cancer cells?
B-cells
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Cytotoxic T-cells
A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. His identical twin brother has the same HLA alleles at all loci, and volunteers to donate a kidney to his brother. Which of the following terms correctly describes the proposed organ transplant?
Autograft
Allograft
Syngeneic graft
Heterograft
Chemically induced tumors have tumor-associated transplantation antigens that
Are always the same for a given carcinogen
Are different for two tumors of different histologic type even if induced by the same carcinogen
Are very strong antigens
Do not induce an immune response
In what manner does a type III hypersensitivity reaction differ from a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
The antigens involved in a type III reaction are not bound to a cell's surface, while those involved in a type II reaction are bound to the surface
Type III hypersensitivities are B-cell mediated, while type II hypersensitivities are T-cell mediated.
Type III hypersensitivities involve IgD, while type II hypersensitivities involve IgG and IgM.
Type III is an immediate hypersensitivity, while type II is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
SLE
Type I diabetes
Serum sickness
Rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the categories of hypersensitivities involves an IgG antibodies production
Type I
Type II
Type II and III
Type IV
The maternal antibodies that cross the placenta and lead to the development of erythroblastosis fetalis are of what class
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgG
Immune complexes consist of
Antibody plus complement
basophil plus complement
antigen plus antibody
antigen plus complement
Reaction to poison ivy or poison oak is
An IgM-mediated response
An IgE-mediated response
A cell-mediated response
An Arthus reaction.
When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, damage to the membrane is caused mainly by
Enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells
Gamma interferon
Phagocytosis
Cytotoxic T cells
Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill target cells
Infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.
Infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.
From the same host infected with any virus.
You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis
Perforins from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells
Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells
Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells.
Interleukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells.
Which of the following represents an important anatomic barrier to infection by microorganisms
Interferons
Lymphocytes
Mucous membranes
Kinin system
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type I
Type II
Type II and III
Type IV
Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae. The ability of this organism to cause disease is related to it’s ability to infect, persist in, and replicate within macrophages. The leprom in skin test is used to determine what type of leprosy a person has. In this test, inactivated Mycobacterium leprae organisms are injected just beneath the skin. At the site of injection, a person with a positive test will develop an area of induration with erythema peaking around 48 hours after the injection. If this test measures a hypersensitivity reaction against the organism, what type of hypersensitivity reaction is it intended to detect?
Type I
Type II
Type IV
Type II and III
Type IV hypersensitivity responses
are mediated through antibody-antigen complexes
Typically occur immediatly
Occur in contact dermatitis
Occur in hay fever
Type III hypersensitivity responses
Typically occur in 15 minutes
Are mediated through antibody-antigen complexes
Occur in contact dermatitis
Are Ig-E mediated
Type III hypersensitivity is triggered by:
Mast cells and IgE
K cells and IgG
Deposition of antigen-antibody complex
Th cells
Most autoimmune diseases are caused by a
immunodeficiency
Simultaneously impact of genetic and environmental events
Complement deficiency
Neutrophils activation
Identifying an autoimmune disease in humans is often accomplished by
Finding an antibody against self-components
Passively transferring T cells to a healthy individual
Immunosuppressive drugs
Showing that macrophages are the cause of the tissue damage
The following is/are possible mechanism(s) for the recognition of self-components by the immune system in autoimmune diseases
loss of suppressor cells
alteration of a self-antigen so it is recognized as foreign
Infection with a microorganism that carries a cross-reactive antigen
All answer are true
The pathology in autoimmune diseases due to antibody may be a result of
The formation of antigen —antibody complexes
Antibody blocking a cell receptor
Antibody-induced complement mediated lysis
All answer are true
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Is due to a mutation in double-stranded DNA
is a classic example of a T-cell-mediated autoimmune disease
results from antibodies specific to thyroid
Has multiple symptoms and affects many organs
Diseases in which TH cells and cytotoxic CD8+ T cells probably play major roles in their pathology include all of the following except
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Multiple sclerosis
insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
myasthenia gravis
A patient is found to have a form of diabetes in which his immune system is destroying his pancreatic islet cells. Which is the most likely explanation for this disease state?
The patient has a fever
In the islets of the pancreas, b cells have upregulated MHC class II and Fas molecules, making them susceptible to cell death by immune cells
CD4+ T cells are being destroyed by pancreatic enzymes
Immune complex formation and complement are the main contributors to insulitis
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
is due primarily anti-thyreoglobulin antibodies
Can be transmitted by kisses
Is an autoimmune disease which affects males and females equally
Is characterized by immune complex deposition in the thyroid
Acquired immunodeficiency later in life is
X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Selective IgG deficiency
HIV
Hyper-IgM syndrome
Low IgG levels, high IgM concentrations
Transient hypogammaglobulinemia
Hyper-IgM syndrome
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Common variable immunodeficiency
Severe combined immunodeficiency is a:
Occurs when a person is exposed to too much sunlight
Mainly occurs in people who eat too much pizza, resulting in diabetes
A problem caused by a bacterium called Pseudomonas
Genetic disease
Immunodeficiency diseases which would be cured by a successful hematopoietic stem cell transplant include:
Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
C3 deficiency
Chronic granulomatous disease
DiGeorge’s syndrome
What is HIV?
Bacteria
Virus
Fungi
Protozoa
Tumor antigens have been shown to cross-react immunologically in cases of
Tumors induced by chemical carcinogens
Tumors induced by RNA viruses
Tumors induced by irradiation with ultraviolet light
tumors induced by the same chemical carcinogen on two separate sites on the same individuals
Rejection of a tumor may involve which of the following?
T-cell-mediated cytotoxicity
ADCC
Complement-dependent cytotoxicity
All answers are correct
An 8-month-old baby has a history of repeated gram-positive bacterial infections. The most probable cause for this condition is that
The mother did not confer sufficient immunity on the baby in utero
The baby suffers from erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)
The baby has a defect in the alternative complement pathway
The baby is allergic to the mother's milk
Which of the following immune deficiency disorders is associated exclusively with an abnormality of the humoral immune response?
DiGeorge syndrome
X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
A 2-year-old child has had three episodes of pneumonia and two episodes of otitis media. All the infections were demonstrated to be pneumococcal. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be the cause?
an isolated transient T-cell deficiency
A combined T- and B-cell deficiency
A B-cell deficiency
Transient anemia
Immunodeficiency disease can result from
a developmental defect of T lymphocytes.
A developmental defect of bone marrow stem cells.
a defect in phagocyte function.
All of the above
A 9-month-old baby was vaccinated against smallpox with attenuated smallpox virus. He developed a progressive necrotic lesion of the skin, muscles, and subcutaneous tissue at the site of inoculation. The vaccination reaction probably resulted from
B-lymphocyte deficiency.
reaction to the adjuvant.
Complement deficiency.
B- and T-lymphocyte deficiency
A healthy woman gave birth to a baby. The newborn infant was found to be HIV-seropositive. This finding is most likely the result of
The virus being transferred across the placenta to the baby
The baby is making anti-HIV antibodies
Maternal HIV-specific IgG being transferred across the placenta to the baby
The baby's erythrocyte antigens cross-reacting with the virus
An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
Viral antigen.
Carcinoembryonic antigen.
IgG
bacterial antigen
Cancer cells often have reduced amounts of cell surface proteins, including class I MHC antigens. Which of the following cells of the immune system can exploit this property to kill cancer cells?
B-cells
Cytotoxic T-cells
Macrophages
Neutrophils
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