Life 4-qbank
Emerging Viral Diseases Quiz
Test your knowledge about emerging viral diseases with this comprehensive quiz designed for medical students and professionals. Challenge yourself with diverse questions covering various aspects of virology, epidemiology, and infectious diseases.
Features of the quiz:
- Multiple choice questions
- In-depth explanations for correct answers
- Educational and informative
Which of the following is not an important factor contributing to the phenomenon of emerging viral diseases?
A) International air travel
B) Antibiotic resistance
C) Deforestation
D) War
E) Organ and tissue transplantation
2. The viral envelope performs all but which of the following functions?
A) Neutralization of the virus
B) Protection of the viral nucleic acid
C) Binding to the host cell surface
D) Assisting in penetration of the viral nucleic acid
E) Stimulation of the host immune response
Your summer research project is to study the viruses that cause gastroenteritis. You recover a virus from a stool sample and notice that the growth medium on the infected cultures is highly acidic. You find that the viral genome is double-stranded DNA. Of the following, which one is the most appropriate conclusion you could draw?
A) There is a high likelihood that the agent is a rotavirus.
B)You need to determine the viral serotype to establish whether the virus was important in causing the disease.
C) The patient should have been treated with the antiviral
D) drug amantadine to shorten the duration of symptoms.
E) The virus particle would contain a reverse transcriptase enzyme.
Adults who have had varicella as children occasionally suffer a recurrent form of the disease, shingles. The agent causing these diseases is a member of which of the following viral families?
A) Herpesvirus
B) Poxvirus
C) Adenovirus
D) Myxovirus
E) Paramyxovirus
5. Which of the following tumors is caused by a virus other than Epstein-Barr virus?
A) Posttransplant lymphomas
B) Hodgkin disease
C) Kaposi sarcoma
D) AIDS-related central nervous system non-Hodgkin
E) lymphomas
F) Burkitt lymphoma
6. Which of the following viruses causes a mononucleosis-like syndrome and is excreted in the urine?
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Human herpesvirus 6
E) Varicella-zoster virus
F) Herpes simplex virus type 2
Laboratory scientists who work with vaccinia virus–infected cultures or animals are at risk of accidental exposure to the virus. Which of the following procedures by the laboratory worker is of least benefit in protecting against inadvertent infection with vaccinia virus?
A) Proper use of personal protective equipment such as gloves
B) and goggles
C) Cleaning of laboratory work space before experimentation
D) Smallpox vaccination
E) Safe needle-handling practices
F) Use of biosafety hoods
. A 27-year-old man develops fever, chills, headache, and backache. Four days later he develops a high fever and jaundice. Yellow fever is diagnosed. Which of the following statements concerning yellow fever is correct?
A) The virus is transmitted by culicine mosquitoes in the urban form of disease.
B) Monkeys in the jungle are a major reservoir of yellow fever virus.
C) Yellow fever often has long-term complications.
D) All infections lead to apparent disease.
E) Ribavirin is specific therapy
Each of the following statements concerning respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)is correct EXCEPT:
A) RSV has a single-stranded RNA genome.
B) RSV induces the formation of multinucleated giant cells.
C) RSV causes pneumonia primarily in children.
D) RSV infections can be effectively treated with acyclovir.
10. A 2-month-old infant developed a respiratory illness that the pediatrician diagnosed as bronchiolitis. The most likely cause of the disease is
(A) Parainfluenza virus type 4
(B) Respiratory syncytial virus
(C) Influenza virus
(D) Metapneumovirus
(E) Measles virus
11. A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months before after drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg, antibodies to HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive for IgM core antibody. The nurse
A) Does not have hepatitis B
B) Has hepatitis A
C) Is in the late stages of hepatitis B infection
D) [Y]Is in the “window” (after the disappearance of HBsAg and before the appearance of anti-HBsAg)
12. Which of the following statements regarding HBIG is not true?
A) HBIG provides temporary protection when administered in standard doses.
C) No evidence exists that HBV, HCV, or HIV have ever been transmitted by HBIG in the United States.
B) HBIG typically is used instead of hepatitis B vaccine for postexposure immunoprophylaxis to prevent HBV infection.
D) MHBIG is not used as protection against HCV infection.
13. One month after school has been let out for the summer, a 16-year-old girl develops fever, myalgia, and headache. An outbreak of an illness with similar symptoms caused by an echovirus is known to be occurring in the community. The primary anatomic site of echovirus multiplication in the human host is
A) The muscular system
B) The central nervous system
C) The alimentary tract
D) The blood and lymph system
E) The respiratory system
14. This viral gastroenteritis agent has a segmented, doublestranded RNA genome and a double-shelled capsid. It is a member of which virus family?
A) Adenoviridae
B) Astroviridae
C) Caliciviridae
D) Reoviridae
E) Coronaviridae
15. An arbovirus common in the Middle East, Africa, and Southwest Asian first appeared in New York in 1999. By 2002 the virus had spread throughout the continental United States. This arbovirus, a member of the Japanese B encephalitis antigenic complex, is which of the following?
A) Japanese B encephalitis virus
B) Tick-borne encephalitis virus
C) West Nile virus
D) Dengue virus
E) Rift Valley fever virus
16. Human papillomavirus can cause cancer in humans and is most commonly associated with
A) Rectal polyps
B) Breast cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Anogenital cancers
E) Mesotheliomas
17. Regarding the oncogenes of DNA tumor viruses, which one of the following is most accurate?
A) They encode protein kinases that phosphorylate p53 protein.
B) They interact with cellular proto-oncogenes and activate them.
C) They encode cellular growth factors that activate S-phase DNA synthesis.
D) They encode proteins that bind to the proteins encoded by tumor suppressor genes.
18. Chagas disease is especially feared in Latin America because of the damage that can occur to the heart and parasympathetic nervous system and the lack of an effective drug for the symptomatic later stages. Your patient is planning to reside in a Venezuelan village for 1–2 years. Which one of the following suggestions would be of special value for avoiding Chagas disease?
A) Boil or treat all of your drinking water.
B) Do not keep domestic pets in your house.
C) Sleep under a bed net.
D) Never walk barefoot in the village compound.
E) Do not eat lettuce or other raw vegetables or unpeeled fruit.
19. An apparently fatigued but alert 38-year-old woman has spent 6 months as a teacher in a rural Thailand village school. Her chief complaints include frequent headaches, occasional nausea and vomiting, and periodic fever. You suspect malaria and indeed find parasites in red blood cells in a thin blood smear. To rule out the dangerous falciparum form of malaria, which one of the following choices is NOT consistent with a diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum malaria based on a microscopic examination of the blood smear?
A)Red blood cells containing trophozoites with Schuffner’s dots
B) Red blood cells containing >1 parasite per RBC
C) Banana-shaped or crescent-shaped gametocytes
D) Parasites within normal-sized red blood cells
E) Parasites with double nuclei
20. Regarding E. histolytica, which one of the following is most accurate?
A)E. Histolytica causes “flask-shaped” ulcerations in the colon mucosa.
B) Domestic animals such as dogs and cats are the main reservoir of E. histolytica.
C) In the microscope, E. Histolytica is recognized by having two sets of paired
D) flagella. 933
E) E. Histolytica infections are limited to the intestinal mucosa and do not spread to other organs
F) The infection is typically acquired by the ingestion of the trophozoite in contaminated food and water.
21. Your patient is a 30-year-old man with persistent watery diarrhea for 2 weeks. He is HIV antibody positive with a CD4 count of 10. Routine stool culture revealed no bacterial pathogen. Ova and parasite analysis revealed cysts that stained red in an acid-fast stain. Of the following, which one is the most likely
A) C. hominis
B) E. histolytica
C) G. lamblia
D) T. vaginalis
22. Your patient is a 25-year-old man with fever and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. He is a soldier in the U.S. Army who recently returned from a tour of duty in the Middle East. Physical exam was noncontributory. Laboratory tests revealed anemia and leukopenia. Multiple blood cultures for bacteria and fungi were negative, as was a test for the p24 antigen of HIV. CT scan of the abdomen revealed splenomegaly. A bone marrow biopsy was performed, and a stained sample revealed amastigotes within mononuclear cells. Of the following, which one is the most likely cause?
A) L. donovani
B) P. falciparum
C) T. gondii
D) T. brucei
E) T. cruzi
23. Regarding prions, which one of the following is the most accurate?
A) The genome of prions consists of a negative-polarity RNA that has a defective polymerase gene
B) Prion proteins are characterized by having changes in conformation from the alpha-helical form to the beta-pleated sheet form.
C) Prions are very sensitive to ultraviolet (UV) light, which is why UV light is used in hospital operating rooms to prevent their transmission.
D) The main host defense against prions consists of an inflammatory response composed primarily of macrophages and CD4-positive T cells.
24. Which of the following statements regarding virus morphology is true?
A) Helical nucleocapsids are found with single-stranded DNA viruses
B) All RNA viruses are spherical in shape.
C) Some viruses with DNA genomes contain a primitive nucleus.
D) Viral surface proteins protect the viral genome from nucleases
E) Some viruses contain flagella.
25. What is the definition of the eclipse phase?
A) When the virus is developing but not yet infectious
B) When a virus matures and is capable of infecting a new host
C) When the active, infectious viral particle escapes from the host
D) When the viral DNA becomes latent as a prophage When the virion enters the host cell
26. Which one of the following is a disease in which the role of parvovirus B19 has not been established?
A) Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
B) Transient aplastic crisis
C) Hydrops fetalis
D) Fulminant hepatitis
27. Each of the following statements concerning herpesvirus latency is correct except
A) Exogenous stimuli can cause reactivation of latent infection, with induction of symptomatic disease.
During latency, antiviral antibody is not demonstrable in the sera of infected individuals
Reactivation of latent herpesviruses is more common in patients with impaired cell-mediated immunity than in immunocompetent patients.
Virus can be recovered from latently infected cells by cocultivation with susceptible cells.
28. Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features. Which one of the following features is least likely to be shared?
A) Important cause of morbidity and mortality in the newborn
B) Congenital abnormalities caused by transplacental passage
C) Important cause of serious disease in immunosuppressed
D) individuals
E) Mild or inapparent infection
29. Which feature of the variola virus makes it an extreme bioterrorism threat?
A) Wide availability of the virus
B) Weaponized strains present in several laboratories
C) Limited immunity in present population
D) Low stockpiles of effective drugs for treatment
E) Potential emergence from animal reservoir
30. Regarding varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which one of the following is most accurate?
) High-dose acyclovir can eliminate the latent state caused by VZV.
B) The principal site of latency of VZV is in the nucleus of motor neurons.
C) Domestic animals, such as pigs and chickens, are the main reservoir for VZV.
D) The vaccine against varicella contains all three serotypes of formalin-killed VZV as the immunogen
When zoster occurs in an immunocompromised patient, acyclovir should be given to prevent disseminated infection.
31. Regarding viroids, which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate?
B) They are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
C) They consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
D) They cause tumors in experimental animals.
E) They require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
32. Which of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A) St. Louis encephalitis virus
B) Colorado tick fever virus
C) Coxsackievirus
D) Yellow fever virus
E) Dengue fever virus
33. Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
A) It results in major antigenic changes.
B) It is exhibited only by influenza A viruses.
C) It is caused by frameshift mutations in viral genes.
D) It results in new subtypes over time.
E) It affects predominantly the matrix protein.
34. A person with asthma has an acute exacerbation with increased lower respiratory illness. A virus is recovered. The isolate is most likely to be which of the following virus types?
(A) Parainfluenza virus
(B) Parechovirus
(C) Rhinovirus
(D) Respiratory syncytial virus
(E) Echovirus
35. Your patient is a 27-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use who now is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis C. He is HIV antibody negative. Which one of the following is the best choice of drugs to treat his chronic hepatitis C?
A) Acyclovir and foscarnet
B) Ganciclovir and enfuvirtide
C) Peginterferon and ribavirin
D) Zidovudine and lamivudine
E) Zidovudine and ritonavir
36. A 23-year-old woman is planning a 1-year trip through Europe, Egypt, and the Indian subcontinent and receives a vaccine for hepatitis A. The current hepatitis A vaccine is?
A) A live attenuated virus vaccine
B) A recombinant DNA vaccine
C) A formalin-inactivated virus vaccine
D) An envelope glycoprotein subunit vaccine
E) A chimeric poliovirus that expresses HAV neutralizing epitopes
37. Norwalk virus illness might be prevented by any of the following except
A) Avoidance of raw fruits
B) Live, reassortant vaccine
C) Careful handwashing
D) Avoidance of local drinking water
E) Avoidance of raw oysters
38. Hantaviruses, which are emerging pathogens in the United States, can be described by which of the following?
A) They are arenaviruses.
B) They are readily transmitted human to human.
C) They cause influenza-like symptoms followed rapidly by acute respiratory failure.
D) They are acquired by inhalation of aerosols of deer urine.
E) They show a high frequency of antigenic variation.
39. Regarding poliovirus, which one of the following is MOST accurate?
A) Poliovirus remains latent within sensory ganglia, and reactivation occurs primarily in immunocompromised patients.
B) When the live, attenuated virus in the oral vaccine replicates, revertant mutants can occur that can cause paralytic polio.
C) The widespread use of the killed vaccine in the countries of North and South America has led to the virtual elimination of paralytic polio in those areas
D) The current recommendation is to give the live, attenuated vaccine for the first 3 immunizations to prevent the child from acting as a reservoir, followed by boosters using the killed vaccine.
40. Regarding hepatitis A virus (HAV), which one of the following statements is most accurate?
A) The HAV vaccine contains live, attenuated virus as the immunogen.
B) The screening of blood for transfusion has greatly reduced the spread of this virus
C) The diagnosis is typically made by serologic tests rather than by culturing the virus.
D) Multiple episodes of hepatitis A are common because it has three serotypes. It has a segmented, negative-polarity, single-stranded RNA genome and an RNA polymerase in the virion.
41. Your patient is a 20-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B that was diagnosed by detecting hepatitis B antigen in her blood more than 6 months after her acute infection. Which one of the following is the best choice of drug to treat her chronic hepatitis B?
A) Acyclovir
B) Foscarnet
C) Entecavir
D) Ritonavir
E) Zidovudine
42. Cellular oncogenes represent activated genes involved in cancer. A second class of cancer genes is involved in cancer development only when both alleles of such a gene are inactivated. The second class of genes is called?
A) Proto-oncogenes
B) Tumor suppressor genes
C) Transduced genes
D) Silent genes
E) T antigen genes
A woman was hiking in an isolated area when a skunk appeared and bit her on the leg. She now presents to your emergency room about an hour after the bite. Which one of the following is the most appropriate thing to do?
Give rabies vaccine and hyperimmune globulin immediately.
B) Test the patient’s serum for antibodies now and in 10 days to see if there is a rise in antibody titer before treating her
C) Reassure her that rabies is not a problem because skunks do not carry rabies.
D) Quarantine the animal for 10 days and only treat her if signs of rabies appear in the animal.
44. A 32-year-old male tourist traveled to Senegal for 1 month. During the trip, he swam in the Gambia river. Two months after his return, he began complaining of intermittent lower abdominal pain with dysuria. Laboratory results of ova and parasites revealed eggs with a terminal spine. Which of the following parasites is the cause of the patient’s symptoms?
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Schistosoma mansoni
C) Schistosoma haematobium
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
E) Taenia solium
45. Risk factors for severe MERS coronavirus infection include which of the following?
A) Recent camel exposure
B) Prior coronavirus infection
C) Seasonal allergies
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
46. Scrapie and kuru possess all of the following characteristics except
A) A histologic picture of spongiform encephalopathy
B) Transmissibility to animals associated with a long incubation period
C) Slowly progressive deterioration of brain function
D) Prominent intranuclear inclusions in oligodendrocytes
47. Regarding Plasmodium species, which one of the following is most accurate?
A) These organisms are transmitted by the bite of female Anopheles mosquitoes.
B) The bite of the vector injects merozoites into the bloodstream that then infect red blood cells
C) Both male and female gametocytes are formed in the vector and are injected into the person at the time of the bite.
D) Hypnozoites are produced by P. Falciparum and can cause relapses of malaria after the acute phase is over.
E) Malaria caused by P. Vivax is characterized by a cerebral malaria and blackwater fever more often than malaria caused by the other three species.
48. Regarding prion-mediated diseases, which one of the following is the most accurate?
Prion-mediated diseases are characterized by vacuoles in the brain called “spongiform changes.”
Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a disease of cattle caused by the ingestion of sheep brain mixed into cattle feed.
Kuru is a prion-mediated disease for which the diagnosis can be confirmed in the laboratory by a fourfold or greater rise in antibody titer.
In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, only neurons latently infected by JC virus produce the prion filaments that disrupt neuronal function.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease occurs primarily in children under the age of 2 years because they cannot mount an adequate immune response to the prion protein
49. A 70-year-old woman with no significant medical history begins to experience memory loss and personality changes. Over the next few months, her symptoms become more severe, as she experiences rapid mental deterioration. She also starts to have sudden, jerking movements in response to being startled and gait disturbances. Eventually, she lapses into a coma and dies eight months after the onset of symptoms. What process likely caused this woman's illness?
A) Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta.
B) Autoimmune inflammation and demyelination of the central nervous system.
C) Autoimmune inflammation and demyelination of the peripheral nervous system.
D) Conversion of a protein from an a-helix to a ß-pleated form, which resists degradation.
1. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem
A. Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
B. High risk of T cell leukemia
C inability to use a live donor
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
2. Defects in neutrophil NADPH oxidase system produce
A. Chronic granulomatous disease
B. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
C. Hashimoto's disease
D. Streptococcal infection
3. T-cell-mediated immune responses can result in
A. Formation of granulomas
B. Induration at the reaction site
C. Rejection of a kidney transplant
D. All of the above
4. Circulating immune complexes are an etiologic factor in the following diseases:
A. Myastenia gravis
B. farmer’s lung
C. Tuberculosis
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
5. A transplant of tissue between individuals of the same species, but with different genetic background is called a(n):
A. autograft
B. isograft
C. allograft
D. xenograft
6. The human immunodeficiency virus primarily infects:
A. Plasma cells
B. Helper cells
C. Killer cells
D. Epithelial cells lining the genitourinary tract
7. Tumor antigens have been shown to cross-react immunologically in cases of
A. Tumors induced by chemical carcinogens
B. Tumors induced by RNA viruses.
C. Tumors induced by irradiation with ultraviolet light
D. Tumors induced by the same chemical carcinogen on two separate sites on the same individuals
8. Rejection of a tumor may involve which of the following?
A. T-cell-mediated cytotoxicity
B. ADCC
C. complement-dependent cytotoxicity
D. All answer are correct
9. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
A. Viral antigen.
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen.
C. IgG
D. Bacterial antigen
10. Cancer cells often have reduced amounts of cell surface proteins, including class I MHC antigens. Which of the following cells of the immune system can exploit this property to kill cancer cells?
A. Cytotoxic T-cells
B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils
D. B-cells
11. A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. His identical twin brother has the same HLA alleles at all loci, and volunteers to donate a kidney to his brother. Which of the following terms correctly describes the proposed organ transplant?
A. Allograft
B. Autograft
C. Heterograft
D. Syngeneic graft
12. Chemically induced tumors have tumor-associated transplantation antigens that
A. Are always the same for a given carcinogen
B. Are different for two tumors of different histologic type even if induced by the same carcinogen
C. Are very strong antigens
D. Do not induce an immune response
13. In what manner does a type III hypersensitivity reaction differ from a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type III is an immediate hypersensitivity, while type II is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type III hypersensitivities involve IgD, while type II hypersensitivities involve IgG and IgM.
C. Type III hypersensitivities are B-cell mediated, while type II hypersensitivities are T-cell mediated.
D. The antigens involved in a type III reaction are not bound to a cell's surface, while those involved in a type II reaction are bound to the surface
14. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A. SLE
B. Type I diabetes
C. Serum sickness
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
15. Which of the categories of hypersensitivities involves an IgG antibodies production
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type II and III
16. The maternal antibodies that cross the placenta and lead to the development of erythroblastosis fetalis are of what class
A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgG
17. Immune complexes consist of
A. Antibody plus complement
B. Basophil plus complement
C. Antigen plus antibody
D. Antigen plus complement
18. Reaction to poison ivy or poison oak is
A. an IgM-mediated response
B. an IgE-mediated response
C. A cell-mediated response
D. an Arthus reaction.
19. When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, damage to the membrane is caused mainly by
A. Gamma interferon.
B. phagocytosis.
C. cytotoxic T cells.
D. Enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells
20. Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill target cells
A. From the same host infected with any virus.
B. Infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.
C. Infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.
D. Infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
21. You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. Which one of the following mechanisms is MOST likely to explain the hemolysis
A. Perforins from cytotoxic T cells lyse the red cells
B. Neutrophils release proteases that lyse the red cells
C. Interleukin-2 binds to its receptor on the red cells, which results in lysis of the red cells.
D. Complement is activated, and membrane attack complexes lyse the red cells.
22. Which of the following represents an important anatomic barrier to infection by microorganisms
A. lymphocytes
B. interferons
C. Mucous membranes
D. Kinin system
23. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type II and III
24. Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae. The ability of this organism to cause disease is related to it’s ability to infect, persist in, and replicate within macrophages. The leprom in skin test is used to determine what type of leprosy a person has. In this test, inactivated Mycobacterium leprae organisms are injected just beneath the skin. At the site of injection, a person with a positive test will develop an area of induration with erythema peaking around 48 hours after the injection. If this test measures a hypersensitivity reaction against the organism, what type of hypersensitivity reaction is it intended to detect?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type II and III
25. Type IV hypersensitivity responses
A. Are mediated through antibody-antigen complexes
B. Typically occur immediatly
C. Occur in contact dermatitis
D. Occur in hay fever
26. Type III hypersensitivity responses
A. Are mediated through antibody-antigen complexes
B. Typically occur in 15 minutes
C. Occur in contact dermatitis
D. are Ig-E mediated
27. Type III hypersensitivity is triggered by:
A. Mast cells and IgE
B. K cells and IgG
C. Deposition of antigen-antibody complex
D. Th cells
28. Most autoimmune diseases are caused by a
A. Simultaneously impact of genetic and environmental events
B. immunodeficiency
C. Complement deficiency
D. Neutrophils activation
29. Identifying an autoimmune disease in humans is often accomplished by
A. Finding an antibody against self-components
B. Passively transferring T cells to a healthy individual
C. Immunosuppressive drugs
D. Showing that macrophages are the cause of the tissue damage
30. The following is/are possible mechanism(s) for the recognition of self-components by the immune system in autoimmune diseases
A. Loss of suppressor cells
B. Alteration of a self-antigen so it is recognized as foreign
C. Infection with a microorganism that carries a cross-reactive antigen
D. All answer are true
31. The pathology in autoimmune diseases due to antibody may be a result of
A. The formation of antigen —antibody complexes
B. Antibody blocking a cell receptor
C. antibody-induced complement mediated lysis
D. All answer are true
32. Systemic lupus erythematosus
A. Is due to a mutation in double-stranded DNA
B. Is a classic example of a T-cell-mediated autoimmune disease
C. Results from antibodies specific to thyroid
D. Has multiple symptoms and affects many organs
33. Diseases in which TH cells and cytotoxic CD8+ T cells probably play major roles in their pathology include all of the following except
A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
D. Myasthenia gravis
34. A patient is found to have a form of diabetes in which his immune system is destroying his pancreatic islet cells. Which is the most likely explanation for this disease state?
B. In the islets of the pancreas, b cells have upregulated MHC class II and Fas molecules, making them susceptible to cell death by immune cells
C. CD4+ T cells are being destroyed by pancreatic enzymes
C. Immune complex formation and complement are the main contributors to insulitis
A. The patient has a fever
35. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
A. Is due primarily anti-thyreoglobulin antibodies
B. Can be transmitted by kisses
C. Is an autoimmune disease which affects males and females equally
D. Is characterized by immune complex deposition in the thyroid
35. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
A. Is due primarily anti-thyreoglobulin antibodies
B. Can be transmitted by kisses
C. Is an autoimmune disease which affects males and females equally
D. Is characterized by immune complex deposition in the thyroid
36. Acquired immunodeficiency later in life is
A. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B. Selective IgG deficiency
C. Hyper-IgM syndrome
D. HIV
37. Low IgG levels, high IgM concentrations
A. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia
B. Ataxia-telangiectasia
C. Common variable immunodeficiency
D. Hyper-IgM syndrome
38. Severe combined immunodeficiency is a:
A. Occurs when a person is exposed to too much sunlight
B. Mainly occurs in people who eat too much pizza, resulting in diabetes
C. A problem caused by a bacterium called Pseudomonas
D. Genetic disease
39. Immunodeficiency diseases which would be cured by a successful hematopoietic stem cell transplant include:
A. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
B. C3 deficiency
C. Chronic granulomatous disease
D. DiGeorge’s syndrome
40. What is HIV?
A. virus
B. bacteria
C. fungi
D. protozoa
41. Tumor antigens have been shown to cross-react immunologically in cases of
A. Tumors induced by chemical carcinogens
B. Tumors induced by RNA viruses.
C. Tumors induced by irradiation with ultraviolet light
D. Tumors induced by the same chemical carcinogen on two separate sites on the same individuals
42. Rejection of a tumor may involve which of the following?
A. T-cell-mediated cytotoxicity
B. ADCC
C. complement-dependent cytotoxicity
D. All answer are correct
43. An 8-month-old baby has a history of repeated gram-positive bacterial infections. The most probable cause for this condition is that
A. The mother did not confer sufficient immunity on the baby in utero.
B. The baby suffers from erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)
C. The baby has a defect in the alternative complement pathway
D. The baby is allergic to the mother's milk
44. Which of the following immune deficiency disorders is associated exclusively with an abnormality of the humoral immune response?
A. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)
B. DiGeorge syndrome
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
45. A 2-year-old child has had three episodes of pneumonia and two episodes of otitis media. All the infections were demonstrated to be pneumococcal. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be the cause?
A. An isolated transient T-cell deficiency
B. A combined T- and B-cell deficiency
C. a B-cell deficiency
D. Transient anemia
46. Immunodeficiency disease can result from
A. A developmental defect of T lymphocytes.
B. A developmental defect of bone marrow stem cells.
C. A defect in phagocyte function.
D. All of the above
47. A 9-month-old baby was vaccinated against smallpox with attenuated smallpox virus. He developed a progressive necrotic lesion of the skin, muscles, and subcutaneous tissue at the site of inoculation. The vaccination reaction probably resulted from
A. B-lymphocyte deficiency.
B. Reaction to the adjuvant.
C. Complement deficiency.
D. B- and T-lymphocyte deficiency
48. A healthy woman gave birth to a baby. The newborn infant was found to be HIVseropositive. This finding is most likely the result of
A. The virus being transferred across the placenta to the baby
B. The baby is making anti-HIV antibodies
C. The baby's erythrocyte antigens cross-reacting with the virus
D. maternal HIV-specific IgG being transferred across the placenta to the baby
9. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
A. Viral antigen.
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen.
C.IgG
D. Bacterial antigen
50. Cancer cells often have reduced amounts of cell surface proteins, including class I MHC antigens. Which of the following cells of the immune system can exploit this property to kill cancer cells?
A. Cytotoxic T-cells
B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils
D. B-cells
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