Management USMLE 12 (1503-1590)
In preparation for an inguinal hernia repair, a 22-year-old man has a spinal anesthetic placed. The level of sensory block turns out to be much higher than had been planned, and shortly thereafter his blood pressure drops to 75/20 mm Hg. He looks warm and flushed, and his central venous pressure is near zero. Which of the following should be included in his therapy?
. Diuretics and fluid restriction
. Whole blood and clotting factors
. Inotropic agents and cardiac assist pump
. Vasoconstrictors and IV fluids
. Vasodilators and IV fluids
In the course of a robbery, a young woman is stabbed repeatedly. On arrival at the emergency department, she is shivering and asks for a blanket and a drink of water; she is noted to be pale and perspiring. Her blood pressure is 72/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130/min. Her neck and forehead veins are large and distended. A quick initial survey reveals entry wounds in her left chest and upper abdomen. She has bilateral breath sounds and a scaphoid, nontender abdomen. As IV infusions of Ringer's lactate are started, her systolic blood pressure drops further to 40 mm Hg, no distal pulses can be felt, and she loses consciousness. Her central venous pressure at that time is 28 cm H2O. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Chest x-ray to direct further therapy
. Bilateral chest tubes
. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
. Evacuation of the pericardial sac
. Crash laparotomy in the emergency department to clamp the aorta
In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and β-hCG assays. The β-hCG test is positive, and the prolactin level is 100 ng/mL (normal is < 25 ng/mL in nonpregnant women in this assay). This patient requires which of the following?
. Routine obstetric care
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of her sella turcica to rule out pituitary adenoma
. Repeat measurements of serum prolactin to ensure that values do not increase more than 300ng/mL
. Bromocriptine to suppress prolactin
. Evaluation for possible hypothyroidism
Incisional biopsy of a breast mass in a 35-year-old woman demonstrates cystosarcoma phyllodes at the time of frozen section. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this lesion?
. Wide local excision with a rim of normal tissue
. Lumpectomy and axillary lymphadenectomy
. Modified radical mastectomy
. Excision and postoperative radiotherapy
. Excision, postoperative radiotherapy, and systemic chemotherapy
On the 5th postoperative day, it is noticed that large amounts of clear, pink, salmon-colored fluid are soaking the wound dressings of a patient who had a negative exploratory laparotomy for a stab wound of the abdomen. The laparotomy was done through a midline supraumbilical and infraumbilical incision. When seen by the surgical staff, the patient is lying in bed in the supine position, with the dressings removed. In the dim light of his hospital room, the incision appears intact and not particularly red or inflamed, but there are indeed traces of the clear pink fluid on his skin. He has no specific complaints. He is still NPO and on IV fluids, but has already been passing gas per rectum, and plans had been made to feed him today. The abdomen is not distended, and he has normal bowel sounds. He is afebrile. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Culture the pink fluid and start empiric antibiotic therapy
. Gently probe the wound at several points until pus is found and drained
. Help the patient out of bed and have him walk to the examining room for proper inspection of the wound
. Stop plans for oral feedings and start total parenteral nutrition
Tape the wound securely, bind the abdomen, and avoid events that would suddenly increase his intra-abdominal pressure
One of your asthmatic patients arrives for a check-up. The mother reports that the child seems to need albuterol daily, especially when exercising, and she has coughing fits that awaken her from sleep about twice a week. Her grandmother had recommended a Chihuahua as a “cure” for her asthma, but her mother has seen no difference since the arrival of the pet. Appropriate treatment measures would include which of the following?
Short-acting, inhaled β-agonists, as needed
Daily leukotriene modifier with short-acting β-agonist
Inhaled nedocromil with short-actingβ-agonists
Medium-dose, inhaled corticosteroids with short-acting β-agonists
High-dose, inhaled corticosteroids with theophylline and short-actingβ-agonists
One of your patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents to the emergency room complaining of prolonged, heavy vaginal bleeding. She is 26 years old and has never been pregnant. She was taking birth control pills to regulate her periods until 4 months ago. She stopped taking them because she and her spouse want to try to get pregnant. She thought she might be pregnant because she had not had a period since her last one on the birth control pills 4 months ago. She started having vaginal bleeding 8 days ago. She has been doubling up on superabsorbant sanitary napkins 5 to 6 times daily since the bleeding began. On arrival at the emergency room, the patient has a supine blood pressure of 102/64 mm Hg with a pulse of 96 beats per minute. Upon standing, the patient feels light-headed. Her standing blood pressure is 108/66 mm Hg with a pulse of 126 beats per minute. While you wait for lab work to come back, you order intravenous hydration. After 2 hours, the patient is no longer orthostatic. Her pregnancy test comes back negative, and her Hct is 31%. She continues to have heavy bleeding. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Perform a dilation and curettage.
. Administer a blood transfusion to treat her severe anemia.
. Send her home with a prescription for iron therapy.
. Administer high-dose estrogen therapy.
. Administer antiprostaglandins.
The imaging studies demonstrate three lesions in the right hepatic lobe suspicious for metastatic disease, each measuring 3–4 cm in diameter. There was no evidence of extrahepatic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Systemic chemotherapy
. intra-arterial chemotherapy through the hepatic artery
. Surgical resection
. Radiation therapy to the liver
. Repeat imaging studies in 3 months to determine the growth rate of the disease
The patient is a 25-year-old G1 P0 with an intrauterine pregnancy (IUP) at 24 weeks' gestation. She presents for her routine prenatal checkup. She has never had problems with blood pressure (BP). At her previous visit, her BP was 160/90 mm Hg. Now her vital sign: BP, 155/90 mm Hg; P, 85 beats/min; R, 12 breaths/min; T, 98F (37 C). She denies chest pain, denies shortness of breath, denies headache and blurry vision, denies abdominal pain and contractions, denies leakage of fluid, denies vaginal bleeding, fetal movement: present. Physical examination: cardiovascular: S1S2+ RRR no murmur, no rale, no gallop, lung: CTA bilaterally, extremities: 1+ edema, fundal height: 23 cm, fetal heart rate: 150s. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
. Start lisinopril
. Perform renal ultrasonography
. Check urine dipstick
. Observe BP
. Prescribe hydrochlorothiazide
Two days after admission to the hospital for a myocardial infarction, a 65-year-old man complains of severe, unremitting midabdominal pain. His cardiac index is 1.6. Physical examination is remarkable for an absence of peritoneal irritation or distention despite the patient’s persistent complaint of severe pain. Serum lactate is 9 mmol/L (normal is < 3 mmol/L). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
. Perform computed tomography.
. Perform mesenteric angiography.
. Perform laparoscopy.
. Perform flexible sigmoidoscopy to assess the distal colon and rectum.
. Defer decision to explore the abdomen until the arterial lactate is greater than 10mmol/L.
While discussing a case presentation with a medical student, a nearby patient who just returned from getting an ankle radiograph done yells out in pain. You walk over to him and ask what is wrong. He states that since returning from the radiology suite, his automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) is discharging. You hook him up to the monitor and note that his rhythm is sinus. You observe a third shock while the patient is in sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Send the patient back to the radiology suite for another radiograph to desensitize his AICD
. Administer pain medication and wait until the device representative arrives at the hospital to power off the AICD
. Admit the patient to the telemetry unit to monitor his rhythm and find the cause of his AICD discharge
. Place a magnet over the AICD generator to inactivate it and thereby prevent further shocks
. Make a small incision over his chest wall and remove the AICD generator and leads
While running to catch a bus, and old man twists his ankle and falls on his inverted foot. Anteroposterior (AP), lateral, and mortise x-ray films show displaced fractures of both malleoli. Which of the following would be the preferred form of treatment?
. Closed reduction and casting
. Skeletal traction
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Replacement with a metal prosthesis
. Fusion of the ankle joint
While working on-site at a factory doing physical examinations for workers, a physician is suddenly called to help a worker who amputated his finger. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management in this situation?
Place the amputated finger in a plastic bag with water and bring it along with the patient to the emergency department
Place the amputated finger in a plastic bag with alcohol; place the bag on a bed of ice and bring it along with the patient to the emergency department
Place the amputated finger in saline moistened gauze in a plastic bag: place the bag on a bed of ice and bring it along with the patient to the emergency department
. Place the amputated finger in antiseptic solution and bring it along with the patient to the emergency department
. Place the amputated finger on a bed of ice and bring it along with the patient to the emergency department
You are a physician in charge of patients who reside in a nursing home. Several of the patients have developed influenza-like symptoms, and the community is in the midst of influenza A outbreak. None of the nursing home residents have received the influenza vaccine. Which course of action is most appropriate?
. Give the influenza vaccine to all residents who do not have a contraindication to the vaccine (ie, allergy to eggs)
Give the influenza vaccine to all residents who do not have a contraindication to the vaccine; also give oseltamivir for 2 weeks to all residents
. Give amantadine alone to all residents
. Give azithromycin to all residents to prevent influenza-associated pneumonia
. Do not give any prophylactic regimen
You are asked to assist in the well-born nursery with neonatal care. Which of the following is a part of routine care in a healthy infant?
. Administration of ceftriaxone cream to the eyes for prophylaxis for gonorrhea and chlamydia
. Administration of vitamin A to prevent bleeding problems
. Administration of hepatitis B vaccination for routine immunization
. Cool-water bath to remove vernix
. Placement of a computer chip in left buttock for identification purposes
You are asked to consult on a 23-year-old woman who is 18hours status-post cesarean delivery. She presented 20 hours ago, at 32 weeks’ gestation, with vaginal bleeding and contractions and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She was rushed to the operating room for an emergent cesarean delivery. The placenta had a large retroplacental clot. The infant is in the neonatal intensive care unit. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.7C (99.9 F), blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, pulse of 124/min, and respirations of 14/min. The patient has bleeding from her abdominal incision and her intravenous sites. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 18%; Leuckocytes: 16,000/mm3; Platelets: 62,000/mm3; Prothrombin time: 60sec; Partial thromboplastin time: 100sec. Appropriate management includes which of the following?
. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Heparin
. Magnesium sulfate
Penicillin
Terbutaline
You are asked to evaluate a 4-year-old boy admitted to your local children’s hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The parents state that the child has had multiple, intermittent episodes of fever and respiratory difficulty over the past 2 years, including cyanosis, wheezing, and dyspnea; each episode lasts for about 3 days. During each event he has a small amount of hemoptysis, is diagnosed with left lower lobe pneumonia, and improves upon treatment. Repeat radiographs done several days after each event are reportedly normal. His examination on the current admission is significant for findings similar to those described above, as well as digital clubbing. Which of the following is the most appropriate primary recommendation?
Intravenous cephalosporin and oral macrolide therapy
Modified barium swallow study to evaluate for aspiration
Nasal swab for viral culture
Incentive spirometry
Bronchoalveolar lavage
You are called to examine a newly delivered infant, who is 41 weeks gestation and a product of an uncomplicated pregnancy. Physical examination reveals a matted mass of edematous bowel loops protruding from the abdomen. There is no covering over the bowel loops. The umbilical cord appears normal. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Intravenous nutrition
Sterile wrapping of exposed bowel
Immediate surgery
Look for associated anomalies
Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics
You are discussing surgical options with a patient with symptomatic pelvic relaxation. Partial colpocleisis (Le Fort procedure) may be more appropriate than vaginal hysterectomy and anterior and posterior (A&P) repair for patients in which of the following circumstances?
. Do not desire retained sexual function
. Need periodic endometrial sampling
. Have had endometrial dysplasia
. Have cervical dysplasia that requires colposcopic evaluation
. Have a history of urinary incontinence
You are examining a newborn infant in the well-baby nursery. The infant was the product of a benign pregnancy and vaginal delivery; he appears to be in no distress. Interestingly, your measurement of fronto- occipital head circumference is about 2 cm larger than the initial measurement done several hours before. Your examination otherwise is significant for tachycardia and a “squishy” feel to the entire scalp. You can elicit a fluid wave over the scalp. Management of this condition should include which of the following?
Transfer to the newborn ICU
Observation and parental reassurance
CT scan of the skull with bone windows
Surgical drainage
Elevation of the head of the crib
You are following a 22-year-old G2P1 at 39 weeks during her labor. She is given an epidural for pain management. Three hours after administrating the pain medication, the patient’s cervical examination is unchanged. Her contractions are now every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds. The fetal heart rate tracing is 120 beats per minute with accelerations and early decelerations. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
. Place a fetal scalp electrode
. Rebolus the patient’s epidural
. Place an IUPC
. Prepare for a cesarean section secondary to a diagnosis of secondary arrest of labor
. Administer Pitocin for augmentation of labor
You are making rounds on a 29-year-old G1P1 who underwent an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at term on the previous day. The patient is still very confused about whether she wants to breast-feed. She is a very busy lawyer and is planning on going back to work in 4 weeks, and she does not think that she has the time and dedication that breast-feeding requires. She asks you what you think is best for her to do. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding breast-feeding?
. Breast-feeding decreases the time to return of normal menstrual cycles.
. Breast-feeding is associated with a decreased incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.
. Breast-feeding is a poor source of nutrients for required infant growth.
. Breast-feeding is associated with an increased incidence of childhood obesity.
. Breast-feeding is associated with a decreased incidence of childhood attention deficit disorder.
You are seeing a 45-year-old female patient of your partner for the first time in your clinic. A quick review of the patient’s medical record shows that her systolic blood pressure was greater than 140 mmHg at both of her last clinic appointments. Her medical history is otherwise significant only for diabetes mellitus. Her blood pressure today is 164/92 mmHg. What is the best next step in her blood pressure management?
. Ask the patient to keep a written record of her blood pressure and bring with her to a return appointment
. Advise the patient to begin a heart healthy, low sodium diet and refer to a nutritionist
. Prescribe an ACE inhibitor in addition to heart healthy diet
. Prescribe a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker in addition to a heart healthy diet
. Arrange for echocardiogram to assess for end-organ damage
You are treating a 31-year-old woman with danazol for endometriosis. You should warn the patient of potential side effects of prolonged treatment with the medication. When used in the treatment of endometriosis, which of the following changes should the patient expect?
. Occasional pelvic pain, since danazol commonly causes ovarian enlargement
. Lighter or absent menstruation, since danazol causes endometrial atrophy
. Heavier or prolonged periods, since danazol causes endometrial hyperplasia
. More frequent Pap smear screening, since danazol exposure is a risk factor for cervical dysplasia
. Postcoital bleeding caused by the inflammatory effect of danazol on the endocervical and endometrial glands
You are volunteering with a dental colleague in a community indigent clinic. A nurse has prepared a list of patients who are scheduled for a dental procedure and may need antibiotic prophylaxis beforehand. Of the patients listed below, who would be most likely to benefit from antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infective endocarditis?
. 17-year-old male with coarctation of the aorta
. 26-year-old female with a ventricular septal defect repaired in childhood
. 42-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse
. 65-year-old male with prosthetic aortic valve
. 72-year-old female with aortic stenosis
You evaluate a 48-year-old man for chronic renal insufficiency. He has a history of hypertension, osteoarthritis, and gout. He currently has no complaints. His medical regimen includes lisinopril 40 mg daily, hydro-chlorothiazide 25 mg daily, allopurinol 300 mg daily, and acetaminophen for his joint pains. He does not smoke but drinks 8 oz of wine on a daily basis. Examination shows BP 146/86 mm Hg, pulse 76, a soft S4 gallop, and mild peripheral edema. There is no abdominal bruit. His UA reveals 1+ proteinuria and no cellular elements. Serum creatinine is 2.2 mg/dL and his estimated GFR from the MDRD formula is 42 mL/minute. What is the most important element is preventing progression of his renal disease?
. Discontinuing all alcohol consumption
. Discontinuing acetaminophen
. Adding a calcium channel blocker to improve blood pressure control
. Obtaining a CT renal arteriogram to exclude renal artery stenosis
. Changing the lisinopril to losartan
You have been asked to evaluate a 42-year-old white male smoker who presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of crushing substernal chest pain, nausea, diaphoresis and shortness of breath. His initial ECG revealed ST segment elevation in the anterior-septal leads. Cardiac enzymes were normal. The patient underwent emergent cardiac catheterization, which revealed only a 25% stenosis of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery. No percutaneous intervention was performed. Which of the following interventions would most likely reduce his risk of similar episodes in the future?
. Placement of a percutaneous drug-eluting coronary artery stent
. Placement of a percutaneous non-drug-eluting coronary artery stent
. Beginning therapy with an ACE inhibitor
. Beginning therapy with a beta-blocker
. Beginning therapy with a calcium-channel blocker
You have just given a 10-year-old boy an injection of pollen extract as prescribed by his allergist. You are about to move on to the next patient when the boy starts to complain about nausea and a funny feeling in his chest. You note that his face is flushed and his voice sounds muffled and strained. Which of the following is the first priority in managing this episode of anaphylaxis?
Preparation for endotracheal intubation
Intramuscular injection of diphenhydramine
Administration of oxygen
Subcutaneous injection of 1:1000 epinephrine
Administration of corticosteroids
Your patient had an ultrasound examination today at 39 weeks gestation for size less than dates. The ultrasound showed oligohydramnios with an amniotic fluid index of 1.5 centimeters. The patient’s cervix is unfavorable. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Admit her to the hospital for cesarean delivery
. Admit her to the hospital for cervical ripening then induction of labor
. Write her a prescription for misoprostol to take at home orally every 4 hours until she goes into labor
. Perform stripping of the fetal membranes and perform a BPP in 2 days
Administer a cervical ripening agent in your office and have the patient present to the hospital in the morning for induction with oxytocin
Your patient is a 48-year-old Hispanic male with a 4-year history of diabetes mellitus type 2. He is currently utilizing NPH insulin/Regular insulin 40/20 units prior to breakfast and 20/10 units prior to supper. His supper time has become variable due to a new job and ranges from 5 to 8 PM. In reviewing his glucose diary, you note some very low readings (40-60 mg/dL) during the past few weeks at 3 AM. When he awakens to urinate, he feels sweaty or jittery so has been checking a fingerstick blood glucose. Morning glucose levels following these episodes are always higher (200-250) than his average fasting glucose level (120-150). Which change in his insulin regimen is most likely to resolve this patient’s early AM hypoglycemic episodes?
. Increase morning NPH and decrease evening NPH
. Decrease morning NPH and decrease evening regular insulin
. Change regimen to glargine at bedtime and continue morning and evening regular insulin
. Discontinue both NPH and regular insulin; implement sliding scale regular insulin with meals
. Change regimen to glargine at bedtime with lispro prior to each meal
Your patient presents with a complaint of a mass on her right cheek, which has been slowly enlarging. Biopsy shows a pleomorphic adenoma. Which is the next step in her management?
. Superficial parotidectomy with preservation of the facial nerve
. Superficial parotidectomy with resection of the facial nerve
. Total parotidectomy with preservation of the facial nerve
. Total parotidectomy with resection of the facial nerve
. Enucleation of the adenoma
{"name":"Management USMLE 12 (1503-1590)", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"In preparation for an inguinal hernia repair, a 22-year-old man has a spinal anesthetic placed. The level of sensory block turns out to be much higher than had been planned, and shortly thereafter his blood pressure drops to 75\/20 mm Hg. He looks warm and flushed, and his central venous pressure is near zero. Which of the following should be included in his therapy?, In the course of a robbery, a young woman is stabbed repeatedly. On arrival at the emergency department, she is shivering and asks for a blanket and a drink of water; she is noted to be pale and perspiring. Her blood pressure is 72\/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130\/min. Her neck and forehead veins are large and distended. A quick initial survey reveals entry wounds in her left chest and upper abdomen. She has bilateral breath sounds and a scaphoid, nontender abdomen. As IV infusions of Ringer's lactate are started, her systolic blood pressure drops further to 40 mm Hg, no distal pulses can be felt, and she loses consciousness. Her central venous pressure at that time is 28 cm H2O. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?, In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and β-hCG assays. The β-hCG test is positive, and the prolactin level is 100 ng\/mL (normal is < 25 ng\/mL in nonpregnant women in this assay). This patient requires which of the following?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
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