USMLE Surgery Management P1 249 QCM

1) A 22-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest with a 5-cm-long knife blade. On arrival at the emergency department, he is wide awake and alert. He is speaking with a normal tone of voice but complaining of shortness of breath. The right hemithorax is hyperresonant to percussion and has no breath sounds; the rest of the initial survey is negative. His blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and venous pressure is 3cm H2O. Pulse oximetry shows a saturation of 85%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient care?
Infusion of 2 L Ringer's lactate
Securing an airway by orotracheal intubation
Immediate insertion of a needle into the right pleural space
Chest x-ray and insertion of a chest tube
Sonographically guided evacuation of the pericardial sac
2) A one-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with scalds on both the buttocks and thighs. His mother states that the child was burned because she accidentally drew a bath for the child with water that was too hot. She states the injury occurred 2 days ago. On examination, the child is irritable. Second-degree burns are noted on the buttocks, genitalia, waist, proximal thighs and feet. There is an abrupt demarcation between the burned and unaffected skin. A faint yellow patch of discoloration is noted on the left thorax with a slight violaceous hue. The child has not yet had his 1-year vaccinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Give wound care instructions and send the patient home with analgesics
. Admit the patient and do a skeletal survey
. Give wound care instructions and advise the mother that she should keep the temperature of the water heater below 140 F to avoid such injuries in future
. Ask the mother if the child is being abused
. Advise the mother of the suspected abuse, but do not notify authorities because this is a violation of patient confidentiality
3) A 47-year old woman comes to the clinic because of worsening left breast swelling and pain. She had mastitis when she nursed her first child 20 years ago. She has not seen a doctor since that time. She is afebrile. Breast examination shows the left breast is enlarged with a 7 x 6 cm area of edema and erythema. A poorly localized mass without fluctuation is palpated in that area. Scant non-bloody discharge is noted on the nipple, and several large axillary nodes are palpated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Antibiotic active against Streptococci and Staphylococci
. Culture of the discharge and treatment depending on the findings of the culture
. Drainage, culture of the drained exudate and treatment depending on the findings of the culture
. Biopsy for culture and treatment depending on the findings of the culture
. Biopsy for histology and treatment depending on the findings of the histology
4) A man involved in a high-speed, head-on automobile collision arrives at the emergency department in a deep coma. His pupils react poorly to light but are of equal size. An airway is placed, and the patient is sent for CT scan of the head with extension to the neck. The study shows no cervical spine fractures, but does reveal a small, crescent-shaped hematoma on the right side, with no deviation of the midline structures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
High-dose steroids
Hyperventilation, diuretics, and fluid restriction
Systemic vasodilators and alpha blockers
Surgical evacuation of his epidural hematoma
Surgical evacuation of his subdural hematoma
5) A 19-year-oldgangmemberisshotintheabdomenwith a .38 caliber revolver. The entry wound is in the epigastrium, to the left of the midline. The bullet is lodged in the psoas muscle on the right. He is hemodynamically stable, and the abdomen is moderately tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Close clinical observation
Emergency ultrasound
CT scan of the abdomen
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Exploratory laparotomy
6) Five days after an uneventful cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic middle-aged woman is found to have a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
. Administration of hypertonic saline solution
. Restriction of free water
. Plasma ultrafiltration
. Hemodialysis
. Aggressive diuresis with furosemide
7) A 33-year-old woman is undergoing a diagnostic work-up because she appears to have Cushing syndrome. She has elevated levels of cortisol, which are not suppressed when she is given high-dose dexamethasone. ACTH levels are greater than 200 pg/ mL. A chest x-ray film shows a central, 3-cm round mass on the hilum of the right lung. Bronchoscopy and biopsies confirm a diagnosis of small cell carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following is the preferred treatment for this woman?
. Bilateral adrenalectomy
. General support only
. Pneumonectomy
. Radiation and chemotherapy directed at the lung cancer
. Trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy and pulmonary lobectomy
8) A multiple trauma patient receives 14 units of packed red cells and several liters of Ringer's lactate solution during a laparotomy for multiple intra-abdominal injuries. The surgeons note that blood is oozing from all dissected raw surfaces, as well as from his TV line sites. His core temperature is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Proceed with surgery and give blood transfusions as needed
Obtain a stat coagulation profile to guide specific therapy
Empiric administration of fresh frozen plasma and platelet packs
Abort the operation and close the abdomen with towel clips
Leave the abdomen open and covered with mesh until coagulation parameters can be corrected
9) A patient with a nonobstructing carcinoma of the sigmoid colon is being prepared for elective resection. Which of the following reduces the risk of postoperative infectious complications?
. A single preoperative parenteral dose of antibiotic effective against aerobes and anaerobes
. Avoidance of oral antibiotics to prevent emergence of Clostridium difficile
. Postoperative administration for 48 hours of parenteral antibiotics effective against aerobes and anaerobes
. Postoperative administration of parenteral antibiotics effective against aerobes and anaerobes until the patient’s intravenous lines and all other drains are removed
. Redosing of antibiotics in the operating room if the case lasts for more than 2 hours
10) A young man is shot with a .45 caliber revolver, point blank in the lower abdomen, just above the pubis. The entrance wound is at the midline, and there is no exit wound. X-ray films show the bullet embedded in the sacral promontory, to the right of the midline. Digital rectal examination and proctoscopic examination are negative, but he has gross hematuria. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. CT scan of the abdomen
. Intravenous pyelogram
. Retrograde cystogram
. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
. Exploratory laparotomy
11) A 25-year-old man is shot with a .22 caliber revolver. The entrance wound is in the anteromedial aspect of his upper thigh, and the exit wound is about 3 inches lower, in the posterolateral aspect of the thigh. He has a large, expanding hematoma in the upper inner thigh. There are no palpable pulses in the foot. The bone is intact by physical examination and x-ray films. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Doppler studies
. Venogram
. Arteriogram
. Embolectomy
. Surgical exploration
12) A 44-year-old woman is recovering from a mild episode of acute ascending cholangitis secondary to choledocholithiasis. When seen initially, she had a spiking fever, leukocytosis, and a very high alkaline phosphatase; however, all these findings subsided rapidly after she was placed on IV antibiotics. A sonogram of the right upper quadrant on the day of admission showed the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder, but the diameter of the biliary ducts was normal. It was assumed that she had passed a common duct stone, and plans to do an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) were canceled. While awaiting elective cholecystectomy, she again developed a fever and leukocytosis, and her liver function tests showed minimal elevation of her bilirubin (to 2.5 mg/dL) and alkaline phosphatase (to 115 U/L). A repeat sonogram shows no changes in her biliary ducts, but now there is a 6-cm abscess in the right lobe of the liver. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this new development?
. Metronidazole
. Long-term IV antibiotics
. ERCP and biliary drainage
. Percutaneous drainage of the liver abscess
. Open surgical resection of the right lobe of the liver
13) On the 5th postoperative day, it is noticed that large amounts of clear, pink, salmon-colored fluid are soaking the wound dressings of a patient who had a negative exploratory laparotomy for a stab wound of the abdomen. The laparotomy was done through a midline supraumbilical and infraumbilical incision. When seen by the surgical staff, the patient is lying in bed in the supine position, with the dressings removed. In the dim light of his hospital room, the incision appears intact and not particularly red or inflamed, but there are indeed traces of the clear pink fluid on his skin. He has no specific complaints. He is still NPO and on IV fluids, but has already been passing gas per rectum, and plans had been made to feed him today. The abdomen is not distended, and he has normal bowel sounds. He is afebrile. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Culture the pink fluid and start empiric antibiotic therapy
. Gently probe the wound at several points until pus is found and drained
. Help the patient out of bed and have him walk to the examining room for proper inspection of the wound
. Stop plans for oral feedings and start total parenteral nutrition
. Tape the wound securely, bind the abdomen, and avoid events that would suddenly increase his intra-abdominal pressure
14) A 2-year-old child has been shot in the arm in a drive-by shooting. His brachial artery was partially transected, and there was copious bleeding. The EMTs control the site of bleeding by local pressure, and the child is no longer losing blood; however, he is hypotensive and tachycardic. IV fluid resuscitation is urgently needed, but several attempts at starting peripheral IV lines have been unsuccessful. Which of the following would be the best alternative route in this situation?
. Central line via subclavian puncture
. Hypodermoclysis
. Intraosseous cannulation in the proximal tibia
. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation
. Saphenous vein cut-down
15) A 62-year-old woman has a 4-cm, hard mass under the nipple and areola of her rather small left breast. The mass occupies most of the breast, but the breast is freely movable from the chest wall. There is no dimpling or ulceration of the skin over the mass, and careful palpation of the axilla is completely negative. A core biopsy of the breast mass has established a diagnosis of infiltrating ductal carcinoma, and the mammogram showed no other lesions in that breast or the other one. A chest x-ray film and liver function tests are normal. She has no symptoms suggestive of brain or bone metastasis. Which of the following should be offered to this woman?
. Lumpectomy only
. Lumpectomy with axillary sampling and post-op radiation
. Total mastectomy only
. Modified radical mastectomy (including axillary sampling)
. Radical mastectomy (including complete axillary dissection)
16) While running to catch a bus, and old man twists his ankle and falls on his inverted foot. Anteroposterior (AP), lateral, and mortise x-ray films show displaced fractures of both malleoli. Which of the following would be the preferred form of treatment?
. Closed reduction and casting
. Skeletal traction
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Replacement with a metal prosthesis
. Fusion of the ankle joint
17) Renal ultrasound and intravenous pyelography (IVP) in a 65-year-old man evaluated for urinary incontinence reveal bilateral hydronephrosis. Which of the following is the most likely condition leading to this complication?
Age-associated detrusor overactivity
Alzheimer disease
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Previous surgery
Prostatic hyperplasia
18) A 57-year-old man is undergoing a femoral-popliteal bypass of his right lower extremity because of severe peripheral vascular disease. This patient has a longstanding history of claudication and shortness of breath. He had a myocardial infarction 3 years ago and has had progressive limitation of his exercise capacity because of his peripheral vascular disease. He has not had any risk stratification after his infarction. Two weeks ago, he underwent a lower extremity arterial study that showed severe diffuse disease of his right leg arterial system. The patient is brought to the operating room, and, during the procedure, his right lower extremity is made bloodless by application of a thigh tourniquet for 1.5 hours. The surgeons complete their bypass and are preparing to restore blood flow. Which of the following is an expected consequence of this maneuver?
Decrease in blood pressure
Increase in cardiac output
Increase in preload
Increase in venous return
Sinus bradycardia
19) A 52-year-old man with gastric outlet obstruction secondary to a duodenal ulcer presents with hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
. Infusion of 0.9% NaCl with supplemental KCl until clinical signs of volume depletion are eliminated
. Infusion of isotonic (0.15 N) HCl via a central venous catheter
. Clamping the nasogastric tube to prevent further acid losses
. Administration of acetazolamide to promote renal excretion of bicarbonate
. Intubation and controlled hypoventilation on a volume-cycled ventilator to further increase PCO2
20) A 31 -year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. He sustained a severe head injury and, on arrival to the emergency department, has a Glasgow coma score of 8. His blood pressure is stable, and an urgent CT scan of the head reveals a large subdural bleed with evidence of a midline shift and cerebellar tonsillar compression. The patient is breathing spontaneously without any respiratory assistance and is not intubated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Obtain an urgent head MRI to evaluate for herniation
Administer IV mannitol
Perform endotracheal intubation and hyperventilation
Induce a barbiturate coma
Initiate immediate surgical decompression
21) A victim of blunt abdominal trauma has splenic and liver lacerations as well as an unstable pelvic fracture. He is hypotensive and tachycardic with a heart rate of 150 despite receiving 2 L of crystalloid en route to the hospital. He was intubated prior to arrival due to declining mental status. He is taken emergently to the operating room for exploratory laparotomy and external fixation of his pelvic fracture. Which of the following is the best resuscitative strategy?
. Infusion of another liter of crystalloid
. Infusion of 500 mL of 5% albumin
. Infusion of packed red blood cells followed by fresh-frozen plasma and platelets as indicated by the PT and platelet counts on laboratory values
. Infusion of packed red blood cells and early administration of fresh-frozen plasma and platelets prior to return of laboratory values
. Infusion of packed red blood cells and vitamin K
22) A 62-year-old man who had a motorcycle accident has been in a coma for several weeks. He is on a respirator, has had pneumonia on and off, has been on pressors, and shows no signs of neurologic improvement. The family inquires about brain death and possible organ donation. An independent neurologic evaluation confirms that the patient is brain dead. What advice should be given to his family?
Anyone who has had pneumonia is excluded as a donor
He is not a suitable donor because of his age
Patients on respirators cannot donate organs
The harvesting team should evaluate him as a potential donor
The use of pressors precludes organ donation
23) A 35-year-old man with new diagnosis of Crohn disease presents with rapidly enlarging painful ulcerations on the lower extremities. Cultures of the lesion are negative, and skin biopsy reveals no evidence of malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?
. Surgical debridement of the wound with skin grafting
. Local wound care with silver sulfadiazine
. Topical corticosteroids
. Systemic steroids and immunosuppressants
. Saphenous vein stripping and compressive stockings
24) A 23-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after being struck by a motor vehicle. The patient sustained a compound fracture of his left femur in the accident and has had moderate blood loss. He was admitted to the hospital, has been stabilized over the past few days, and is now preparing for physical therapy. His hematocrit is 24%. The man feels weak and fatigued and easily gets short of breath with mild exertion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Continue with physical therapy; no transfusion is indicated
Discontinue physical therapy until the patient recovers more of his strength
Transfuse fresh frozen plasma to a hematocrit goal of 30%
Transfuse packed red blood cells to a hematocrit goal of 30%
Transfuse whole blood to a goal hematocrit of 30%
25) A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after being stabbed by her boyfriend. The examining physician notes a 1.5 cm puncture wound lateral to her sternum. She has a blood pressure of 70/min palpable, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Cardiac surgery consult
Echocardiogram
Chest x-ray film
Chest tube placement
Pericardiocentesis
26) A 60-kg, 53-year-old man with no significant medical problems undergoes lysis of adhesions for a small-bowel obstruction. Postoperatively, he has high nasogastric output and low urine output. What is the most appropriate management of his fluids?
. Infusion of D5 0.45% normal saline at 100 mL/h
. Infusion of D5 0.9% normal saline at 100 mL/h
. Infusion of D5 lactated Ringer at 100 mL/h
. Replacement of nasogastric tube losses with lactated Ringer in addition to maintenance fluids
. Replacement of nasogastric tube losses with 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L of potassium chloride in addition to maintenance fluids
27) Four days after surgical evacuation of an acute subdural hematoma, a 44-year-old man becomes mildly lethargic and develops asterixis. He has received 2400 mL of 5% dextrose in water intravenously each day since surgery, and he appears well hydrated. Pertinent laboratory values are as follows:Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 118, K+ 3.4, Cl− 82, HCO3− 24Serum osmolality: 242 mOsm/LUrine sodium: 47 mEq/LUrine osmolality: 486 mOsm/LWhich of the following is the best treatment of his hyponatremia?
. Insulin infusion to keep his glucose level less than 110 mg/dL
. Slow infusion of 3% normal saline until neurologic symptoms are improved
. Rapid infusion of 3% normal saline to correct the sodium to normal
. Desmopressin (DDAVP) administration
. Administration of a loop diuretic
28) A 22-year-old woman has a known family history of breast cancer in her first-degree relatives. She undergoes genetic testing and is found to be a BRCA1 mutation carrier. She does not currently desire bilateral prophylactic mastectomy. Which of the following is the next best option to manage her risk for breast cancer?
. Mammography every 6 months starting at age 25
. Mammography every 6 months starting at age 35
. Mammography every 12 months starting at age 25
. Mammography every 12 months starting at age 35
. Tamoxifen for chemoprevention
29) A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician 6 hours after falling on her outstretched right hand. She has pain and limitation of movement in her wrist, but denies sensations of tingling or numbness. The right wrist is mildly swollen, and its range of passive motion is limited compared with the left side. Palpation elicits maximal tenderness in the area of the anatomic snuffbox, between the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis muscles. Ulnar and radial pulses are normal, and Tinel's and Phalen's tests are negative. Further examination rules out signs of nerve or vascular damage. Plain x-ray films performed in the anteriorposterior, lateral, and oblique views fail to show any evidence of fractures. At this time, which of die following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Bone scanning
MRI examination of the wrist
Treatment for wrist sprain
Treatment for scaphoid fracture
Angiography Pulmonaire
30) A 72-year-old woman undergoes a partial colectomy for adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon. She receives appropriate antibiotic coverage and low-dose heparin prophylaxis. On the 5th hospital day, the patient begins complaining of right chest pain, difficulty in breathing, and dry cough. Her temperature is 37.9C (100.2F), blood pressure is 134/78 mm Hg, pulse is 115/min and regular, and respirations are 20/rnin. Examination shows crackles in the right chest, but no tenderness or edema in the legs. A chest x-ray film reveals areas of opacification in the right lung. ECG reveals sinus tachycardia with nonspecific ST changes. Laboratory studies show: Arterial blood gas analysis- PaO2 74 mm Hg- PaCO2 37 mm Hg- pH 7.35- Blood/serumHematocrit 40%- Leukocytes 8300/mm3- Lactate dehydrogenase 350 U/L- Fibrin D-dimer 600 ng/mL (normal upper limit 500 ng/mL)Which of the following is the most appropriate step in diagnosis?
Bronchoalveolar lavage
Contrast venography
Pulmonary angiography
Ultrasonography of the lower extremities
Ventilation-perfusion lung scanning
31) A 65-year-old man complains of blood in his urine for the past 2 months. He has had no similar episodes in the past. He is otherwise healthy and denies abdominal pain, any trauma, fever, chills, anorexia, or dysuria. He reports having a good urinary stream and no nocturia or dribbling. He is not sexually active. He has no other medical problems and is not taking any medications. His vital signs are stable. Lung, heart, abdominal, and groin examination are unremarkable. Rectal exam reveals a nontender prostate with no masses or enlargement- Urinalysis reveals packed red cells, a few white cells, and no casts. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Prescribe levofloxacin
Schedule a prostatic biopsy
Schedule a renal angiogram
Schedule a cystoscopy
Schedule a pelvic CT scan
32) A 30-year-old woman in her last trimester of pregnancy suddenly develops massive swelling of the left lower extremity. Which of the following would be the most appropriate workup and treatment at this time?
. Venography and heparin
. Duplex ultrasonography and heparin
. Duplex ultrasonography, heparin, and vena caval filter
. Duplex ultrasonography, heparin, warfarin (Coumadin)
. Impedance plethysmography, warfarin
33) A 20-year-old woman with a family history of von Willebrand disease is found to have an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 78 (normal = 32) on routine testing prior to cholecystectomy. Further investigation reveals a prothrombin time (PT) of 13 (normal = 12), a platelet count of 350,000/mm3, and an abnormal bleeding time. Which of the following should be administered in the perioperative period?
. Factor VIII
. Platelets
. Vitamin K
. Aminocaproic acid
. Desmopressin (DDAVP)
34) A pedestrian is hit by a car. Physical examination shows the leg to be angulated midpoint between the knee and the ankle. X-ray films confirm fractures of the shaft of the tibia and fibula. Satisfactory alignment is achieved by external manipulation, and a long leg cast applied. In the ensuing 8 hours, the patient complains of increasing pain. When the cast is removed, the pain persists, the muscle compartments feel tight, and there is excruciating pain with passive extension of the toes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Re-casting with a looser cast
Nerve block prior to re-casting
Arteriogram
Fasciotomy
Open reduction and internal fixation
35) A 75-year-old thin cachectic woman undergoes a tracheostomy for failure to wean from the ventilator. One week later, she develops significant bleeding from the tracheostomy. Which of the following would be an appropriate initial step in the management of this problem?
. Remove the tracheostomy and place pressure over the wound.
. Deflate the balloon cuff on the tracheostomy.
. Attempt to reintubate the patient with an endotracheal tube.
. Upsize the tracheostomy.
. Perform fiberoptic evaluation immediately.
36) A 50-year-old man has respiratory failure due to pneumonia and sepsis after undergoing splenectomy for a traumatic injury. Which of the following management strategies will improve tissue oxygen uptake (ie, shifting the oxygen dissociation curve, depicted here, to the right)?
 
1
. Transfusion of banked blood to correct acute anemia
. Correction of acute anemia with erythropoietic stimulating agent
. Administration of bicarbonate to promote metabolic alkalosis
. Hypoventilation to increase the PaCO2
. Administration of an antipyretic to lower the patient’s temperature
37) A 35-year-old woman has dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, cough, and hemoptysis. The symptoms have been slowly progressive for about 5 years. She looks thin and cachectic, and has atrial fibrillation and a low-pitched, rumbling diastolic apical heart murmur. At age 15, she had rheumatic fever. Surgery has been recommended. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Closure of the ventricular septal defect
Mitral annuloplasty to tighten an incompetent mitral valve
Mitral commissurotomy to open a stenotic mitral valve
Prosthetic replacement of the aortic valve
Prosthetic replacement of the mitral valve
38) A 59-year-old man is planning to undergo a coronary artery bypass. He has osteoarthritis and consumes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment prior to surgery to minimize his risk of bleeding from his NSAID use?
. Begin vitamin K 1 week prior to surgery.
. Give FFP few hours before surgery.
. Stop the NSAIDs 1 week prior to surgery.
. Stop the NSAIDs 3 to 4 days prior to surgery.
. Stop the NSAIDs the day before surgery.
39) A 63-year-old man undergoes a partial gastrectomy with Billroth II reconstruction for intractable peptic ulcer disease. He presents several months postoperatively with a megaloblastic anemia. Which of the following is the best treatment for this surgical complication?
. Transfusion with 1 unit of packed red blood cells
. Oral iron supplementation
. Oral vitamin B12 supplementation
. Intravenous vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) supplementation
. Oral folate supplementation
40) A 52-year-old woman undergoes a sigmoid resection with primary anastomosis for recurrent diverticulitis. She returns to the emergency room 10 days later with left flank pain and decreased urine output; laboratory examination is significant for a white blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3. She undergoes a CT scan that demonstrates new left hydronephrosis, but no evidence of an intra-abdominal abscess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Intravenous pyelogram
. Intravenous antibiotics and repeat CT in 1 week
. Administration of intravenous methylene blue
. No further management if urinalysis is negative for hematuria
. Immediate reexploration
41) A 63-year-old man with history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with right leg swelling and pain. The patient denies trauma to the leg and reports it was normal yesterday. Examination of the right lower extremity is significant for extreme tenderness to palpation, erythema, and edema extending up to the knee. X ray of the right leg shows tissue swelling without gas or osteomyelitis. The patient’s vital signs are normal and he is started on broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and insulin. An hour later the patient’s heart rate increases to 125 beats per minute and the erythema has progressed to the thigh with new blister formation on the leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat x-ray of the right lower extremity
. CT scan of the right lower extremity
. MRI of the right lower extremity
. Bone scan of the right lower extremity
. Immediate surgical intervention with incision and direct visualization of potentially infected tissue
42) A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after sustaining burns during a fire in his apartment. He has blistering and erythema of his face, left upper extremity, and chest. He also has circumferential frank charring of his right upper extremity with decreased capillary refill. He is agitated, hypotensive, and tachycardic. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of his wounds?
. Topical antibiotics should be applied to the burn wounds.
. Excision of facial and hand burns.
. Escharotomy of the right upper extremity.
. Excision of all third-degree burns.
. Split-thickness skin grafts over the areas of third-degree burns.
43) A 55-year-old woman who has end-stage liver disease is referred to a hepatologist for evaluation. Which of the following would prevent her from being a transplantation candidate?
. Use of alcohol 3 months ago
. Two 2-cm hepatocellular carcinomas (HCCs) in the right lobe of the liver
. A 4-cm hepatocellular carcinoma in the right lobe of the liver
. Development of hepatorenal syndrome requiring hemodialysis
. History of breast cancer 5 years ago with no evidence of disease currently
44) A 12-year-old boy with a femur fracture after a motor vehicle collision undergoes operative repair. After induction of anesthesia, he develops a fever of 40°C (104°F), shaking rigors, and blood-tinged urine. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
. Alkalinization of the urine, administration of mannitol, and continuation with the procedure
. Administration of dantrolene sodium and continuation with the procedure
. Administration of dantrolene sodium and termination of the procedure
. Administration of intravenous steroids and an antihistamine agent with continuation of the procedure
. Administration of intravenous steroids and an antihistamine agent with termination of the procedure
45) A 24-year-old Jehovah’s Witness who was in a high-speed motorcycle collision undergoes emergent splenectomy. His estimated blood loss was 1500 mL. Which of the following strategy should be employed for his resuscitation?
. Vasopressors should be primarily utilized for maintenance of his blood pressure.
. Synthetic colloids should be administered as the primary resuscitation fluid in a 3:1 ratio to replace the volume of blood lost.
. 0.9% normal saline should be administered in a 1:1 ratio to replace the volume of blood lost.
. 0.45% normal saline should be administered in a 3:1 ratio to replace the volume of blood lost.
. Lactated Ringer solution should be administered in a ratio of 3:1 to replace the blood lost.
46) A 43-year-old woman develops acute renal failure following an emergency resection of a leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm. One week after surgery, the following laboratory values are obtained:Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 127, K+ 5.9, Cl− 92, HCO3− 15Blood urea nitrogen: 82 mg/dLSerum creatinine: 6.7 mg/dLThe patient has gained 4 kg since surgery and is mildly dyspneic at rest. Eight hours after these values are reported, the following electrocardiogram is obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment in the management of this patient?
 
2
. 10 mL of 10% calcium gluconate
. 0.25 mg digoxin every 3 hours for 3 doses
. Oral Kayexalate
. 100 mg lidocaine
. Emergent hemodialysis
47) A 60-year-old woman with no previous medical problems undergoes a total colectomy with diverting ileostomy for a cecal perforation secondary to a sigmoid stricture. Postoperatively, she has 2 L of ileostomy output per day. Her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation is 98% on 2-L nasal cannula (NC). Her hemoglobin levels have been stable postoperatively at 9.0 mg/dL. Her other laboratory values on postoperative day 6 are as follows:Na+: 128K+: 3.0Cl−: 102HCO3-: 20Which of the following statements is the best strategy for correcting her acid–base disorder?
. Her maintenance fluids should be changed to 0.9% normal saline with 20 mEq/L of potassium chloride.
. She should be intubated to correct her tachypnea and prevent respiratory alkalosis.
. She should be transfused 2 units of packed red blood cells.
. She should be treated with fluid replacement and stool-bulking agents.
. She should undergo immediate dialysis.
48) A 39-year-old man is undergoing resuscitation with blood products for an upper GI bleed. He is suspected of having a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Which of the following is appropriate in the management of this patient?
. Removal of nonessential foreign body irritants, for example, Foley catheter
. Fluid restriction
. 0.1 M HCl infusion
. Steroids
. Fluids and mannitol
49) A 70-kg woman is to undergo nail removal from her right ring finger in the ambulatory surgery clinic. Which of the following is the most appropriate option for local anesthesia?
. Digital block with 1% lidocaine without epinephrine up to 4.5 mg/kg
. Digital block with 1% lidocaine with epinephrine up to 4.5 mg/kg
. Digital block with 1% lidocaine with epinephrine up to 7 mg/kg
. Local injection around the nail bed with 1% lidocaine with epinephrine up to 4.5 mg/kg
. Local injection around the nail bed with 1% lidocaine with epinephrine up to 7 mg/kg/mL
50) A 58-year-old woman with multiple comorbidities and previous cardiac surgery is in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is intubated for airway protection. Because of hemodynamic instability, a central venous catheter is placed in the right subclavian vein. While the surgeon is securing the catheter, the cap becomes displaced and air enters the catheter. Suddenly, the patient becomes tachycardic and hypotensive. What is the best next maneuver?
. Decompression of the right chest with a needle in the second intercostal space
. Placement of a right chest tube
. Withdrawal of the central venous catheter several centimeters
. Placement of the patient in a left lateral decubitus Trendelenburg position
. Bilateral “clamshell” thoracotomy with aortic cross-clamping
51) A 72-year-old chronic smoker with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is found to have a central hilar mass on chest x-ray. Bronchoscopy and biopsies establish a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Pulmonary function studies show that he has a FEVj of 1100 mL, and a ventilation-perfusion scan indicates that 60% of his pulmonary function comes from the affected lung. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
CT scan of the upper abdomen to rule out liver metastasis
Mediastinoscopy to biopsy carinal nodes
Radiation and chemotherapy
Palliative pneumonectomy
Pneumonectomy with hope of cure
52) An 11-year-old girl presents to your office because of a family history of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following tests should you perform?
. Urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) level
. Serum insulin level
. Serum gastrin level
. Serum glucagon level
. Serum somatostatin level
53) A 37-year-old woman has developed a 6-cm mass on her anterior thigh over the past 10 months. The mass appears to be fixed to the underlying muscle, but the overlying skin is movable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
. Above-knee amputation
. Excisional biopsy
. Incisional biopsy
. Bone scan
. Abdominal CT scan
54) A 50-year-old man is incidentally discovered to have a low-grade mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma on biopsy of the stomach during esophagogastroduodenoscopy for dyspepsia. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrate no evidence of enlarged regional lymph nodes or distant metastases. Which of the following is the initial treatment of choice?
. Total gastrectomy with esophagojejunostomy
. Total gastrectomy with esophagojejunostomy and adjuvant chemotherapy
. Chemotherapy
. Steroids
. Antibiotics
55) A 29-year-old woman on oral contraceptives presents with abdominal pain. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen demonstrates a large hematoma of the right liver with the suggestion of an underlying liver lesion. Her hemoglobin is 6, and she is transfused 2 units of packed red blood cells and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma. Two hours after starting the transfusion, she develops respiratory distress and requires intubation. She is not volume overloaded clinically, but her chest x-ray shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following is the management strategy of choice?
. Continue the transfusion and administer an antihistamine
. Stop the transfusion and administer a diuretic
. Stop the transfusion, perform bronchoscopy, and start broad-spectrum empiric antibiotics
. Stop the transfusion and continue supportive respiratory care
. Stop the transfusion and send a Coombs test
56) A 68-year-old hypertensive man undergoes successful repair of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. He receives 9 L Ringer lactate solution and 4 units of whole blood during the operation. Two hours after transfer to the surgical intensive care unit, the following hemodynamic parameters are obtained: systemic blood pressure (BP) 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 110 beats per minute, central venous pressure (CVP) 7 mm Hg, pulmonary artery pressure 28/10 mm Hg, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg, cardiac output 1.9 L/min, systemic vascular resistance 1400 (dynes)/cm5 (normal is 900-1300), PaO2 140 mm Hg (FiO2: 0.45), urine output 15 mL/h (specific gravity: 1.029), and hematocrit 35%. Given this data, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Administration of a diuretic to increase urine output
. Administration of a vasopressor agent to increase systemic blood pressure
. Administration of a fluid challenge to increase urine output
. Administration of a vasodilating agent to decrease elevated systemic vascular resistance
. A period of observation to obtain more data
57) A 71-year-old man returns from the operating room (OR) after undergoing a triple coronary bypass. His initial cardiac index is 2.8 L/ (min•m2). Heart rate is then noted to be 55 beats per minute, BP is 110/80 mm Hg, wedge pressure is 15, and his cardiac index has dropped to 1.6 L/(min•m2). He has a normal left ventricle. Which of the following maneuvers will increase his cardiac output?
. Increase his peripheral vascular resistance.
. Increase his CVP.
. Increase his heart rate to 90 by electrical pacing.
. Increase his blood viscosity.
. Increase his inspired O2 concentration.
58) Eight days after a difficult hemigastrectomy and gastroduodenostomy for gastric ulcer, a patient begins to leak 2-3 L of greenish fluid per day through the right corner of his bilateral subcostal surgical incision. He is afebrile and has no clinical signs of an acute abdomen. At surgery, a feeding catheter jejunostomy was placed, through which the patient has been receiving 3 L/day of elemental diet with a caloric content of 1 cal per mL, and 1 g nitrogen per 100 cal. The nursing staffs have rigged a very effective collection device for the fluid that is leaking through the wound, and the skin around the site is well protected. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
No changes in the present therapeutic plan
Addition of 2-3 L per day of IV Ringer's lactate
Immediate discontinuation of the jejunal feeding, and replacement by 5 L/day of IV 5% dextrose-half normal saline
Surgical drainage of the operative area
Surgical reconstruction of die gastroduodenostomy
59) Six hours after undergoing laparoscopic bilateral inguinal hernia repairs, a 62-year-old man complains of suprapubic discomfort and fullness. He feels the need to void but has not been able to do so since the operation. There is a palpable suprapubic mass that is dull to percussion. Palpation of that mass exacerbates the symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Abdominal x-ray films to ascertain the nature of the mass
Increased rate of IV fluid administration
Loop diuretics
In and out bladder catheterization
Placement of indwelling Foley catheter
60) An 18-year-old previously healthy man is placed on intravenous heparin after having a pulmonary embolism (PE) after exploratory laparotomy for a small-bowel injury following a motor vehicle collision. Five days later, his platelet count is 90,000/μL and continues to fall over the next several days. The patient’s serum is positive for antibodies to the heparin-platelet factor complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step management?
. Cessation of all anticoagulation therapy
. Cessation of heparin and immediate institution of high-dose warfarin therapy
. Cessation of heparin and institution of low-molecular-weight heparin
. Cessation of heparin and institution of lepirudin
. Cessation of heparin and transfusion with platelets
61) A 62-year-old woman undergoes a pancreaticoduodenectomy for a pancreatic head cancer. A jejunostomy is placed to facilitate nutritional repletion as she is expected to have a prolonged recovery. What is the best method for delivering postoperative nutrition?
. Institution of enteral feeding via the jejunostomy tube after return of bowel function as evidenced by passage of flatus or a bowel movement
. Institution of enteral feeding via the jejunostomy tube within 24 hours postoperatively
. Institution of supplemental enteral feeding via the jejunostomy tube only if oral intake is inadequate after return of bowel function
. Institution of a combination of immediate trophic (15 mL/h) enteral feeds via the jejunostomy tube and parenteral nutrition to provide total nutritional support
. Complete nutritional support with total parenteral nutrition
62) A 65-year-old woman has a life-threatening pulmonary embolus 5 days following removal of a uterine malignancy. She is immediately heparinized and maintained in good therapeutic range for the next 3 days, then passes gross blood from her vagina and develops tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria. Following resuscitation, an abdominal CT scan reveals a major retroperitoneal hematoma. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
. Immediately reverse heparin by a calculated dose of protamine and place a vena caval filter (eg, a Greenfield filter).
. Reverse heparin with protamine, explore and evacuate the hematoma, and ligate the vena cava below the renal veins.
. Switch to low-dose heparin.
. Stop heparin and observe closely.
. Stop heparin, give fresh-frozen plasma (FFP), and begin warfarin therapy.
63) A 24-year-old woman presents with lethargy, anorexia, tachypnea, and weakness. Laboratory studies reveal a BUN of 150 mg/dL, serum creatinine of 16 mg/dL, and potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Chest x-ray shows increased pulmonary vascularity and a dilated heart. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Emergency kidney transplantation
. Creation and immediate use of a forearm arteriovenous fistula
. Placement of a catheter in the internal jugular vein and initiation of hemodialysis
. A 100-g protein/day diet
. Renal biopsy
64) A 56-year-old woman is undergoing a cadaveric renal transplant. After revascularization of the transplanted kidney, the transplanted renal parenchyma becomes swollen and blue. The surgeon suspects hyperacute rejection. What is the treatment of choice for this patient?
. There is no therapy for hyperacute rejection
. Systemic anticoagulation
. Catheter-directed anticoagulation into the renal artery
. Intravenous steroids
. Intravenous steroids and cyclosporine
65) A 41-year-old man underwent successful living-related kidney transplantation 1 year ago with good results. Preoperatively, he was noted to have an elevated calcium level; post-transplantation, he continues to have elevated calcium levels and associated symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. 99mTc sestamibi scanning
. Ultrasound of the neck
. CT scan of the neck and mediastinum
. Total parathyroidectomy with autotransplantation of a portion of a gland into the forearm
. Measurement of urinary calcium levels
66) A young man is shot in the upper part of the neck with a .22 caliber revolver. Inspection of the entrance and exit wounds indicates that the trajectory of the bullet is all above die level of the angle of the mandible, but below the skull. He is fully conscious and neurologically intact. A steady trickle of blood flows from both wounds, and it does not seem to respond to local pressure. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Continued clinical observation
Barium swallow
Arteriogram
Endoscopy
Surgical exploration
67) A 21-year-old college student undergoes surgery to remove a small cyst in his palm at the base of his third digit. He receives an axillary regional block prior to die procedure but still has discomfort post-operatively. Injection of anesmetic in which of the following sites may be used to treat his pain?
Between the palmaris longus and flexor digitorum tendons
Into die anatomic snuff box
Near the spiral groove of the humerus
Posterior to the brachioradialis muscle
Posterior to the elbow, between the olecranon and the medial epicondyle
68) A 62-year-old man is suffering from arrhythmias on the night of his triple coronary bypass. Potassium has been administered. His urine output is 20 to 30 mL/h. Serum potassium level is 6.2. Which of the following medications counteracts the effects of potassium without reducing the serum potassium level?
. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
. Sodium bicarbonate
. 50% dextrose
. Calcium gluconate
. Insulin
69) An in-hospital workup of a 78-year-old hypertensive, mildly asthmatic man who is receiving chemotherapy for colon cancer reveals symptomatic gallstones. Preoperative laboratory results are notable for a hematocrit of 24% and urinalysis with 18 to 25 WBCs and gram-negative bacteria. On call to the operating room, the patient receives intravenous penicillin. His abdomen is shaved in the operating room. An open cholecystectomy is performed and, despite a lack of indications, the common bile duct is explored. The wound is closed primarily with a Penrose drain exiting a separate stab wound. On postoperative day 3, the patient develops a wound infection. Which of the following changes in the care of this patient could have decreased the chance of a postoperative wound infection?
. Increasing the length of the preoperative hospital stay to prophylactically treat the asthma with steroids
. Treating the urinary infection prior to surgery
. Shaving the abdomen the night prior to surgery
. Continuing the prophylactic antibiotics for 3 postoperative days
. Using a closed drainage system brought out through the operative incision
70) A 72-year-old man with diabetes, renal insufficiency, and coronary artery disease presents in septic shock from emphysematous cholecystitis. His oxygen saturation is 100% on 6-L nasal cannula and his hemoglobin is 7.2 mg/dL. His mixed venous oxygen saturation is 58%. Which of the following treatment options will improve his oxygen delivery the most?
. Increase his inspired oxygen concentration
. Transfer him to a hyperbaric chamber
. Administer ferrous sulfate
. Administer an erythropoietic agent
. Transfuse two units of packed red blood cells 7
71) A 47-year-old man with hypertensive nephropathy develops fever, graft tenderness, and oliguria 4 weeks following cadaveric renal transplantation. Serum creatinine is 3.1 mg/dL. A renal ultrasound reveals mild edema of the renal papillae but normal flow in both the renal artery and the renal vein. Nuclear scan demonstrates sluggish uptake and excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
. Performing an angiogram
. Decreasing steroid and cyclosporine dose
. Beginning intravenous antibiotics
. Performing renal biopsy, steroid boost, and immunoglobulin therapy
. Beginning FK 506
72) A kidney transplant recipient presents with severe acute rejection that does not respond to steroid treatment. Administration of which of the following agents is the best step in her management?
. Cyclosporine
. Tacrolimus
. Azathioprine
. Muromonab-CD3
. Sirolimus
73) A 30-year-old man is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy for biliary colic. He reports a family history of prolonged paralysis during general anesthesia. Which of the following medications should be avoided during his procedure?
. Succinylcholine
. Vecuronium
. Pancuronium
. Halothane
. Etomidate
74) A 63-year-old man with multiple rib fractures and a pulmonary contusion requires prolonged intubation. He is unable to be weaned from the ventilator and is on a volume control mode. He has a tracheostomy and a percutaneous gastrotomy in place through which he is being fed. The surgeon orders a respiratory quotient (RQ), which is the ratio of the rate of carbon dioxide production over the rate of oxygen uptake. The RQ is 1. Based on this information, which of the following is the next step in his management?
. Decrease the inspired concentration of oxygen
. Decrease the rate on the ventilator
. Increase the rate on the ventilator
. Decrease the carbohydrates in his enteral feeds
. Increase the total number of calories in his enteral feeds
75) A 28-year-old medical student seeks your attention because of a testicular mass. Biopsy is consistent with pure seminoma. There is no evidence of enlarged retroperitoneal lymph nodes on CT scan. Which of the following is the best treatment strategy for this patient?
. Orchiectomy alone
. Orchiectomy followed by chemotherapy
. Orchiectomy with retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
. Orchiectomy with retroperitoneal lymph node dissection followed by external beam radiation
. Orchiectomy followed by external beam radiation to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes
76) Following a boating injury in an industrial-use river, a patient begins to display fever, tachycardia, and a rapidly expanding area of erythema, blistering, and drainage from a flank wound. An x-ray shows gas in the soft tissues. Which of the following measures is most appropriate?
. Administration of an antifungal agent
. Administration of antitoxin
. Wide debridement
. Administration of hyperbaric O2
. Early closure of tissue defect
77) Following pelvic gynecologic surgery, a 34-year-old woman becomes dyspneic, her peripheral arterial O2 saturation falls from 94% to 81%, and her measured PaO2 is 52 on a 100% non-rebreather mask. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT angiogram is consistent with a right lower lobe pulmonary embolus. Which of the following is the next step in her management?
. Systemic anticoagulation with heparin infusion
. Systemic anticoagulation with warfarin
. Placement of an inferior vena cava filter
. Thrombolytic therapy
. Open pulmonary embolectomy
78) A 53-year-old woman presents with bright red blood per rectum, increased abdominal distention, and weight loss. She is found to have a large fungating mass 8 cm from the anal verge. No other lesions are identified. Biopsy is consistent with invasive rectal adenocarcinoma. Endorectal ultrasound shows invasion of the tumor into the perirectal fat and multiple enlarged lymph nodes. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis do not show any metastases. She would like to preserve her sphincter if possible. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient given her preferences?
. Abdominoperineal resection
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by low anterior resection
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by abdominoperineal resection
. Transanal excision followed by adjuvant chemoradiation
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by transanal excision
79) A 35-year-old woman presents with a right breast mass. You perform a thorough history and physical examination as well as a core biopsy of the right breast mass. In which of the following circumstances would a sentinel lymph node biopsy be indicated?
. The core biopsy is consistent with ductal carcinoma in situ without comedo necrosis for which the patient desires partial mastectomy only.
. The core biopsy is consistent with ductal carcinoma and the patient has a positive pregnancy test.
. The core biopsy is consistent with ductal carcinoma and the patient desires partial mastectomy.
. The core biopsy is consistent with ductal carcinoma and the patient has palpable axillary lymph nodes.
. The core biopsy is consistent with ductal carcinoma and the patient has a bone scan suspicious for metastasis.
80) A 70-year-old man is concerned when his dentist finds a white patch on his oral mucosa during a routine examination. Proper management should include which of the following?
. Excisional biopsy of all lesions
. Application of topical antibiotics
. Low-dose radiation therapy
. Strict oral hygiene and avoidance of alcohol and tobacco
. Application of topical chemotherapeutic agents
81) A 40-year-old woman undergoes an incisional biopsy of a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. Pathologic examination reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
. Wide local excision of the melanoma with a 1-cm margin from the tumor, followed by radiation to the groin
. Wide local excision of the melanoma with a 1-cm margin from the tumor and sentinel lymph node biopsy
. Wide local excision of the melanoma with a 1-cm margin from the tumor and groin lymph node dissection
. Wide local excision of the melanoma with a 2-cm margin from the tumor and sentinel lymph node biopsy
. Wide local excision of the melanoma with a 2-cm margin from the tumor and groin lymph node dissection
82) A 49-year-old woman undergoes surgical resection of a malignancy. The family asks about the prognosis. The histopathology is available for review. For which of the following malignancies does histologic grade best correlate with prognosis?
. Lung cancer
. Melanoma
. Colonic adenocarcinoma
. Hepatocellular carcinoma
. Soft tissue sarcoma
83) A 61-year-old man undergoes upper endoscopy for evaluation of weight loss and is identified to have a submucosal mass in the stomach. Biopsy is consistent with a gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST). Workup reveals the presence of liver metastases. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (Imatinib)
. Monoclonal antibody against interleukin-2 receptor (Daclizumab)
. Monoclonal antibody against tumor necrosis factor α (Infliximab)
. Monoclonal antibody against vascular endothelial growth factor A (Bevacizumab)
. Monoclonal antibody against epidermal growth factor receptor (Cetuximab)
84) A 57-year-old woman develops bony metastases 1 year after right modified radical mastectomy for breast cancer. The tumor was estrogen receptor-negative, progesterone receptor-negative and Her-2/neu positive. Which of the following agents is indicated for treatment of her metastatic disease?
. Antiestrogen (Tamoxifen)
. Selective estrogen receptor modulator (Raloxifene)
. Monoclonal antibody (Trastuzumab)
. Aromatase inhibitor (Anastrozole)
. 5-fluorouracil
85) A 44-year-old woman has a 2-cm firm palpable mass in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. The mass is freely movable, and her breast is of normal, rather generous size. There are no palpable axillary nodes. Mammogram shows no other lesions. A core biopsy establishes a diagnosis of infiltrating ductal carcinoma. She has no neurologic or skeletal symptoms, and a chest x-ray film and liver enzymes are normal. She understands that systemic therapy may eventually be needed once the full extent of her disease is known. Although she wants the best chance for cure, she is very concerned about cosmetic deformity and wants to know what can be done about the breast itself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Radiation and chemotherapy without breast surgery
Lumpectomy, axillary sampling, and postoperative radiation
Simple total subcutaneous mastectomy with implants
Modified radical mastectomy with immediate rectus abdominis flap reconstruction
Radical mastectomy and postoperative radiation, with delayed reconstruction
86) A 26-year-old, drug-addicted man develops congestive heart failure over a period of a few days. He is febrile, has a loud, diastolic murmur at the right second intercostal space, and has a blood pressure of 120/20 mmHg. A physical examination performed a few weeks ago, when he attempted to enroll in a detoxification program, was completely normal. His blood pressure at that time was 120/80 mm Hg, and no murmurs were noted. In addition to long-term antibiotic therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Closure of the ventricular septal defect with a pericardial patch
Elective aortic valve repair if he develops a systolic gradient of 50 mm Hg
Emergency aortic valve replacement
Emergency mitral valve repair
Emergency pulmonic valve replacement
87) During a bar brawl, a 19-year-old man sustains a 4-in laceration on his left arm from glass and presents to the emergency room the following morning, 10 hours later. He is neurovascularly intact and the wound is deep, extending down to fascia. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the wound?
. Closure of the skin only and administration of oral antibiotics for 1 week
. Closure of the skin and subcutaneous tissue and administration of oral antibiotics for 1 week
. A single dose of intravenous antibiotics and closure of the skin only
. A single dose of intravenous antibiotics and closure of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
. Local wound care without wound closure or antibiotics
88) A 59-year-old woman undergoes an exploratory laparotomy for peritonitis and is found to have perforated diverticulitis. She undergoes a sigmoid resection with an end colostomy. She is administered a third-generation cephalosporin within 1 hour prior to the incision and the antibiotic is continued postoperatively. One week later, she develops an intra-abdominal abscess, which is percutaneously drained. Bacteroides fragilis is isolated from the cultures. Which of the following statements regarding her perioperative antibiotic regimen is most accurate?
. The preoperative dose of antibiotics should have been given closer to the time of incision.
. The patient should have received several doses of antibiotics prior to laparotomy.
. The patient should have received a first-generation cephalosporin.
. The patient did not have adequate gram-negative coverage.
. The patient did not have adequate anaerobic coverage.
89) While playing football, a college student injures his shoulder. He comes in with his arm held close to his body, complaining of pain over the clavicle, rather than the shoulder joint. Physical examination shows a normal shoulder, but there is point tenderness at the junction of the middle and distal thirds of the clavicle. Gentle pressure elicits a gritty feeling of bone crunching on bone. He has normal pulses on that arm. After appropriate x-ray studies are performed, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Analgesics only
Immobilization by a figure-eight device
Immobilization by hanging cast
Arteriogram of the subclavian vessels
Open reduction and internal fixation
90) A 50-year-old man complains of loss of libido and impotence after starting treatment with leuprolide for prostatic hyperplasia. An alpha-blocker and finasteride have also been tried, but with similar adverse effects. So far, the patient has not experienced any episodes of urinary tract infection or hematuria, but he is excessively bothered by his symptoms without any medication. Digital rectal examination shows mild prostatic enlargement. At this time, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 4.5 ng/mL, and his creatinine is 0.7 mg/dL. Dipstick examination shows no hematuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate alternative to his current pharmacologic treatment?
Watchful waiting
Megestrol acetate
Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP)
Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
Open prostatectomy
91) A 65-year-old man sustains a 50% TBSA burn while burning trash in the backyard. The patient is resuscitated with lactated Ringer (LR) solution using the Parkland formula and a weight of 80 kg. What is the rate of LR given in the first 8 hours?
. 100 mL/h
. 500 mL/h
. 1000 mL/h
. 5000 mL/h
. 10,000 mL/h
92) A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a 1-cm skin lesion on his left forearm. On examination, it has a waxy appearance with rolled pearly borders surrounding a central ulcer. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Mohs surgery
. Curettage of the lesion
. Electrodesiccation of the lesion
. Laser vaporization of the lesion
. Surgical excision
93) A 39-year-old woman with a known history of von Willebrand disease has a ventral hernia after a previous cesarean section and desires to undergo elective repair. Which of the following should be administered preoperatively?
. High-purity factor VIII: C concentrates
. Low-molecular-weight dextran
. Fresh-frozen plasma (FFP)
. Cryoprecipitate
. Whole blood
94) You are the physician on call for the extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) service. There are 5 calls today, but only one machine and one technologist available. Which of the following patients is the most appropriate recipient of this service?
. A 1-day-old, full-term, anencephalic 4-kg boy suffering from meconium aspiration syndrome and hypoxia
. A 75-year-old man with Alzheimer disease, severe pneumonia, and elevated pulmonary arterial pressure
. A neonate with a diagnosis of severe pulmonary hypoplasia who is in respiratory failure
. A 5-year-old girl with rhabdomyosarcoma metastatic to the lungs
. A 3-day-old boy preoperative for a congenital diaphragmatic hernia
95) A 45-year-old man shows up in the emergency department with a pale, pulseless, paresthetic, painful, and paralytic right lower extremity. The process began suddenly 2 hours ago. On examination, no pulses are apparent in the right lower extremity. Pulse at the wrist is 95/min and grossly irregular. Treatment would likely be based on which of the following?
Dacron prosthetic vascular conduits
Fogarty balloon tipped catheters
Heparin and dicumarol
Saphenous vein bypasses
Selective sympathetic blocks medical
96) A neonate does not pass any meconium during the first day of life. On day 2 he is brought for evaluation because of repeated green vomiting and progressive abdominal distention. X-ray films of the abdomen show multiple dilated loops of small bowel and no gas in the colon. A contrast enema shows a normally positioned microcolon, and the contrast material refluxes freely into the small bowel, filling some of the more distal distended loops. Exploratory laparotomy is done. There is no malrotation, the small bowel does not have any atretic or obstructed segments, and there is no inspissated meconium in it. Which of the following is most appropriate next step in management?
Diverting ileostomy
Diverting ileostomy and appendectomy
Transverse loop colostomy
Total colectomy
Total proctocolectomy and permanent ileostomy
97) A 62-year-old woman with a history of coronary artery disease presents with a pancreatic head tumor and undergoes a pancreaticoduodenectomy. Postoperatively, she develops a leak from the pancreaticojejunostomy anastomosis and becomes septic. A Swan-Ganz catheter is placed, which demonstrates an increased cardiac output and decreased systemic vascular resistance. She also develops acute renal failure and oliguria. Which of the following is an indication to start dopamine?
. To increase splanchnic flow
. To increase coronary flow
. To decrease heart rate
. To lower peripheral vascular resistance
. To inhibit catecholamine release
98) A 49-year-old man who underwent liver transplantation 5 years ago for alcoholic cirrhosis presents with a gradually increasing bilirubin level. He undergoes a liver biopsy, which demonstrates a paucity of bile ducts. Which of the following is his best option for treatment?
. Increase his immunosuppression
. Administration of a monoclonal antibody against T cells
. Exploratory laparotomy with hepatic arterial reconstruction
. Exploratory laparotomy with thrombectomy of the portal vein
. Retransplantation
99) An otherwise healthy 24-year-old man presents in the emergency department with very severe pain of recent onset in his right scrotum. The pain is constant and began about 3 hours prior to his arrival. Physical examination shows a temperature of 39.4C (103F) but is otherwise unremarkable, except for the scrotal area. The testis on the affected side is in the normal position; however, it appears to be swollen and is exquisitely tender to palpation. The cord above the testis is equally painful and tender. Urinalysis shows pyuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Antiviral medication started within the hour
Scrotal sonogram and antibiotics
Cystoscopy and bladder irrigation
Trans-scrotal biopsy and appropriate resection
Emergency surgery and bilateral orchiopexy
100) A 25-year-old man is found on a pre-employment chest x-ray film to have a 3-cm peripheral coin lesion. The patient has never smoked, and a chest x-ray film that he had 2 years ago when he enrolled in graduate school had been normal. Prompted by this finding, he undergoes a more thorough physical examination, which discloses the presence of a firm, 2-cm testicular mass of which he was not previously aware. There are also palpable inguinal nodes on the same side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Supportive symptomatic palliative care
Bronchoscopy and biopsy of the lung mass
Trans-scrotal incisional biopsy of the testicular mass
Trans-scrotal orchiectomy and sampling of inguinal nodes
Radical orchiectomy by the inguinal route
101) A 25-year-old man is shot with a .22-caliber revolver. The entrance wound is in the anterior, lateral aspect of his thigh, and the bullet is seen on x-ray films to be embedded in the muscles posterolateral to the femur. The emergency department physician cleans the wound thoroughly. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Tetanus prophylaxis
Doppler studies
Arteriogram
Surgical exploration of the femoral vessels
Surgical removal of the embedded bullet
102) A 25-year-old man presents with a painless, hard, 3-cm testicular mass that he discovered serendipitously while taking a shower. Physical examination confirms that the mass arises from the testicle itself, is not part of the epididymis, and is solid rather than a fluid collection. The rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?
Serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein and beta human chorionic gonadotropin
Trans-scrotal needle biopsy of the mass
Trans-scrotal incisional biopsy at the edge of the mass
Trans-scrotal orchiectomy
Radical inguinal orchiectomy
103) A 53-year-old woman sustains multiple injuries in a head-on automobile collision. She was driving the car and wearing a seat belt. At the moment of impact, she was held in place by the belt, but she hit the windshield with her face, the dashboard with her arms, and the steering wheel with her abdomen. Initial survey reveals closed fractures in both upper extremities, facial lacerations, and abdominal bruises. She is breathing well and is neurologically intact, but she is complaining of severe abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 75/55 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and central venous pressure is zero. Physical examination of the abdomen shows tenderness, guarding, and rebound tenderness on all quadrants. There is no evidence of pelvic fracture. Which of the following would be the most appropriate study to evaluate her abdominal injuries?
Sonogram of the abdomen
Flat and upright x-ray films of the abdomen
CT scan of the abdomen
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Exploratory laparotomy
104) A 42-year-old man sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen and is in shock. Multiple units of packed red blood cells are transfused in an effort to resuscitate him. He complains of numbness around his mouth and displays carpopedal spasm. An electrocardiogram demonstrates a prolonged QT interval. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
. Intravenous bicarbonate
. Intravenous potassium
. Intravenous calcium
. Intravenous digoxin
. Intravenous parathyroid hormone
105) A 39-year-old woman is involved in a head-on, highspeed automobile collision. She arrives at the emergency department in a deep coma, with bilaterally fixed dilated pupils. She has normal blood pressure and pulse rate. CT scan of the head shows diffuse blurring of the gray-white interface and multiple small punctate hemorrhages. There is no single large hematoma or displacement of the midline structures. Extension of the CT to include the neck shows no cervical spine fractures. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Improvement of cerebral perfusion by infusion of large amounts of TV fluids
Improvement of cerebral perfusion by the use of systemic vasodilators
Preservation of neurologic function by the use of hyperbaric oxygen
Prevention of further damage due to development of increased intracranial pressure
Surgical evacuation of the multiple punctate hemorrhages
106) An 82-year-old man develops severe abdominal distention, nausea, vomiting, and colicky abdominal pain. He has not passed any gas or stools for the past 12 hours. His vital signs are normal, and his pulse is regular. He has a distended, tympanitic abdomen, with hyperactive, highpitched bowel sounds. There are no signs of peritoneal irritation. Rectal examination is negative for masses or occult blood, and trie rectal vault is empty. Abdominal xray films show distended loops of small and large bowel, as well as a very large round gas shadow that is located in the right upper quadrant and tapers toward the left lower quadrant in the shape of a parrot's beak. The patient has never had any abdominal surgery, and he does not have any palpable hernias. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Nasogastric suction, IV fluids, and observation
Repeated enemas and laxatives
Emergency celiac and mesenteric arteriogram
Proctosigmoidoscopy
Emergency exploratory laparotomy
107) A 42-year-old woman drops a hot iron on her lap while doing the laundry. She comes in with the shape of the iron clearly delineated on her upper thigh. The area is white, dry, leathery, and anesthetic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Application of mafenide acetate
Application of silver sulfadiazine
Use of triple antibiotic ointment
Repeated debridement and wet to dry dressings
Immediate excision and grafting
108) A 73-year-old woman with a long history of heavy smoking undergoes femoral artery-popliteal artery bypass for rest pain in her left leg. Because of serious underlying respiratory insufficiency, she continues to require ventilatory support for 4 days after her operation. As soon as her endotracheal tube is removed, she begins complaining of vague upper abdominal pain. She has daily fever spikes of 39°C (102.2°F) and a leukocyte count of 18,000/mL. An upper abdominal ultrasonogram reveals a dilated gallbladder, but no stones are seen. A presumptive diagnosis of acalculous cholecystitis is made. Which of the following is the next best step in her treatment?
. Nasogastric suction and broad-spectrum antibiotics
. Immediate cholecystectomy with operative cholangiogram
. Percutaneous drainage of the gallbladder
. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) to visualize and drain the common bile duct
. Provocation of cholecystokinin release by cautious feeding of the patient
109) A 29-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of erythema and edema of the right breast with palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. A punch biopsy of the skin reveals neoplastic cells in the dermal lymphatics. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?
. A course of nafcillin to treat the overlying cellulitis and then neoadjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer
. Modified radical mastectomy followed by adjuvant chemotherapy
. Modified radical mastectomy followed by hormonal therapy
. Combined modality chemotherapy and radiation therapy to the right breast with surgery reserved for residual disease
. Combined modality therapy with chemotherapy, surgery, and radiation
110) A 35-year-old woman presents with a lump in the left breast. Her family history is negative for breast cancer. On examination the mass is rubbery, mobile, and nontender to palpation. There are no overlying skin changes and the axilla is negative for lymphadenopathy. An ultrasound demonstrates a simple 1-cm cyst in the area of the palpable mass in the left breast. Which of the following represents the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Reassurance and re-examination
. Immediate excisional biopsy
. Aspiration of the cyst with cytologic analysis
. Fluoroscopically guided needle localization biopsy
. Mammography and reevaluation of options with new information
111) A 55-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing painless mass on the right side of the neck. A fine-needle aspiration of the nodule shows a well-differentiated papillary carcinoma. A complete neck ultrasound demonstrates a 1-cm nodule in the right thyroid without masses in the contralateral lobe or lymph node metastasis in the central and lateral neck compartments. With regards to this patient, which of the following is associated with a poor prognosis?
. Age
. Sex
. Grade of tumor
. Size of tumor
. Lymph node status
112) Following significant head trauma, a 34-year-old woman undergoes a CT scan that demonstrates bilateral frontal lobe contusions of the brain. There is no midline shift. She has a GCS of 14. Which of the following is the best initial management of this patient?
. Observation alone
. Observation and administration of anticonvulsive medication for 1 week
. Placement of an intracranial pressure monitor
. Administration of 25 g of mannitol
. Intubation and hyperventilation
113) A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a UGI bleed from acute erosive gastritis, secondary to chronic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory use. His hematocrit is 28%. With fluid resuscitation, his blood pressure normalizes, but he has a persistent hyperdynamic precordium, tachycardia, and flow murmur on auscultation. He complains of shortness of breath on ambulation. An ECG shows depressed ST-T segments. Which of the following is the next appropriate step in management?
. Initiation of iron supplementation therapy
. Supplemental oxygen
. continued IV fluid resuscitation
. Initiation of a calcium channel blocker
. Blood transfusion
114) A 45-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension presents with severe chest pain radiating to his back. An ECG demonstrates no significant abnormalities. A CT scan of the chest and abdomen is obtained, which demonstrates a descending thoracic aortic dissection extending from distal to the left sub-clavian take off down to above the iliac bifurcation. A Foley catheter is placed, and urine output is 30 to 40cc/h. His feet are warm, with less than 2-second capillary refill. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
. Emergent operation for repair of the aortic dissection
. Angiography to confirm the diagnosis of aortic dissection
. Echocardiography to rule out cardiac complications
. Initiation of a β-blocker
. Initiation of a vasodilator such as nitroprusside
115) A stockbroker in his mid-40s presents with complaints of episodes of severe, often incapacitating chest pain on swallowing. Diagnostic studies on the esophagus yield the following results: endoscopic examination and biopsy mild inflammation distally; manometry—prolonged high-amplitude contractions from the arch of the aorta distally, lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure 20 mm Hg with relaxation on swallowing; barium swallow 2 cm epiphrenic diverticulum. Which of the following is the best management option for this patient?
. Myotomy along the length of the manometric abnormality
. Diverticulectomy, myotomy from the level of the aortic arch to the fundus, fundoplication
. Diverticulectomy, cardiomyotomy of the distal 3 cm of esophagus and proximal 2 cm of stomach with antireflux fundoplication
. A trial of calcium-channel blockers
. Pneumatic dilatation of the LES
116) A 57-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine checkup. He complains of right-sided leg cramps accompanied by fatigue while walking. He also complains of occasional right thigh pain. He denies chest pain, syncope, nausea, and abdominal pain. His sexual performance has decreased over the past 1 year. His other medical problems include stage 3 chronic kidney disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, gout, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. His blood pressure is 144/92 mm Hg, pulse is 67/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. Peripheral pulses are bilaterally palpable. There is a small ulcer at the base of the right great toe. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is 1.0 (normal: 1.0 - 1.3). His laboratory values are significant for a serum creatinine level of 2.2 mg/dl and an HbA1c level of 7.5% but otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's leg pain?
. Aspirin, cilostazol, and verapamil
. CT angiography of the lower extremities
. Exercise testing with repeat ABI
. Tight glucose control and follow-up in 3 months
. Treatment for diabetic neuropathy
117) A 62-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office with complaints of constipation. She has had constipation for the last 6 months, which has worsened over the last month, associated with mild bloating. She noted that her stool has become “pencil thin” in the last month, with occasional blood, but she continues to have bowel movements daily. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals normal vital signs and heart and lung examination. Abdominal examination reveals mild fullness, especially in the lower quadrants. Rectal examination shows no rectal masses, but the stool is hematest positive. A barium xray is obtained, and one view is shown in Figure 6-11. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
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. Proctoscopy and passage of a rectal tube
. Proctoscopy and biopsy
. colonoscopy
. Endoscopic dilation of the stricture
. NPO, IV fluids, and antibiotics
118) A 55-year-old man with recent onset of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold, numb, pulseless left lower extremity. He is immediately taken to the operating room for an embolectomy of the left popliteal artery. Which additional procedure should be performed along with the embolectomy?
. Electromyography (EMG) of the leg
. Measurement of anterior compartment pressure in the leg
. Fasciotomy of the anterior compartment in the leg
. Fasciotomy of all the compartments in the leg
. Application of a posterior splint to the leg
119) A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe abdominal pain. He states that he suddenly felt weak, diaphoretic, and had no energy. He is a smoker and has hypertension. His blood pressure on initial examination was 110/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a diffusely tender abdomen. During CT scan he becomes pale and drowsy. CT scan is shown below. Repeat examination shows a man with anxiety and a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and pulse of 110/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
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. Exploratory abdominal surgery
. Obtain ultrasound
. Check amylase and lipase
. Laparoscopy
. Drain fluid from the abdomen
120) A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a discussion on breast cancer risk. Her family history is pertinent for a grandmother who died of breast cancer at age 53, a mother who died of premenopausal breast cancer, and one of three sisters with breast cancer diagnosed at age 42. The sister with breast cancer underwent genetic testing and was found to have a BRCA1 mutation. Subsequently, the 35-year-old woman underwent genetic testing and was found to be a carrier of the same deleterious BRCA1 mutation. Which of the following ranges represents the lifetime risk for breast cancer that should be quoted for this patient?
. 0–30%
. 10–40%
. 20–50%
. 50–80%
. 70–100%
121) A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a discussion on breast cancer risk. Her family history is pertinent for a grandmother who died of breast cancer at age 53, a mother who died of premenopausal breast cancer, and one of three sisters with breast cancer diagnosed at age 42. The sister with breast cancer underwent genetic testing and was found to have a BRCA1 mutation. Subsequently, the 35-year-old woman underwent genetic testing and was found to be a carrier of the same deleterious BRCA1 mutation.For this patient, which of the following strategies represents an accepted management option for her high-risk status?
. Yearly self-breast examinations
. Semiannual mammography
. Bilateral breast irradiation
. Prophylactic unilateral mastectomy
. Chemoprevention with tamoxifen
122) A 38-year-old woman presents to the physician because of right upper quadrant pain associated with nausea and vomiting for the past 12 hours. She has had similar pain previously, usually precipitated after the ingestion of fatty foods. However, past episodes have always resolved within one to two hours. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertriglyceridemia, and hypercholesterolemia. Her current medications include metformin, fenofibrate, and a statin. Her temperature is 38.3° C (101° F), blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 20/min. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. Examination shows right upper quadrant tenderness. Abdominal ultrasound reveals gallstones, a thickened gallbladder wall with edema, and a normal common bile duct. Her alkaline phosphatase level is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Cholecystectomy within 72 hours
. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography
. Delayed cholecystectomy
. HIDA scan
. Percutaneous trans-hepatic drainage
123) A 40-year-old, obese, white woman, mother of five children, gives a history of repeated episodes of right upper quadrant abdominal pain. The pain is brought about by the ingestion of fatty foods and is relieved by the administration of anticholinergic medications. The pain is colicky, radiates to the right shoulder and around to the back, and is accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. The patient has no pain at this time, but is anxious to avoid further episodes. She is afebrile, and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Sonogram of the biliary tract and gallbladder
. Upper gastrointestinal series with barium
. Antibiotics, IV fluids, and nothing by mouth
. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP)
. Exploratory surgery
124) In this patient, a benign gastric ulcer was found, and he was placed on a proton-pump inhibitor and triple antibiotics for Helicobacter pylori. He returns to the physician’s office 3 months later with similar complaints and, on re-evaluation, the gastric ulcer was found to persist. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. A second trial of proton-pump inhibitors with triple antibiotics and re-evaluation in 2 months
. A trial of H2 blockers with triple antibiotics and re-evaluation in 2 months
. A trial of sucralfate and re-evaluation in 2 months
. Surgical management
. A trial of prostaglandins and re-evaluation in 2 months
125) In a 6-month-old previously healthy male infant, an abnormality is revealed during a routine diaper change, as illustrated in Figure 6-19. The parents have noted this finding on and off on several occasions over the last month. On each occasion, the child has been feeding well, and is content and playful. We decided to do surgical repair. Several weeks later, the child presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of irritability. He has had one episode of nonbilious vomiting and has refused to breast-feed. In the emergency department, the infant appears inconsolable. He is afebrile, and his abdomen is mildly distended but soft. On removal of his diaper, the same abnormality is documented (see Figure 6-19). Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
 
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. Urgent surgical exploration
. Systemic antibiotics
. Elective surgical repair
. Sedation with manual reduction and arrangements for elective surgical repair
. Sedation with manual reduction, admission, rehydration, and surgical repair within 24–48 hours
126) A 75-year-old woman with history of angina is admitted to the hospital for syncope. Examination of the patient reveals a systolic murmur best heard at the base of the heart that radiates into the carotid arteries. Electrocardiogram (ECG) is notable for left ventricular hypertrophy with evidence of left atrial enlargement. ECG reveals an aortic valve area of 0.7 cm2. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
. Medical management with a nitrate and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
. Bilateral carotid endarterectomies
. Percutaneous coronary artery angioplasty and stenting
. Coronary artery bypass surgery
. Aortic valve replacement
127) A pediatrician's office gets a phone call from a frantic mother. Her 7-year-old daughter was playing under the sink and accidentally spilled Liquid Plumber (a strong, corrosive alkaline drain cleaner) all over her arms and legs. The nurse on the phone can hear the girl screaming in the background. Which of the following are the most appropriate instructions to give the mother?
. Cover the burned areas with triple antibiotic ointment until the girl can be seen at the office
. Get the girl into the shower right away and keep the water running over her for 30 minutes before bringing her to the emergency department
. Get the girl to the emergency department as soon as possible
. Wash the burned areas with diluted vinegar and bring the girl to the office
. Wrap the burned areas in sterile dressings before bringing the girl to the emergency department
128) A 59-year-old man sustains blunt trauma in an automobile accident, resulting in multiple intra-abdominal injuries. Surgery for the repair of these injuries takes several hours and requires multiple blood transfusions and infusions of Ringer's lactate. Before all the operative steps are completed, the patient develops a significant coagulopathy, a core body temperature less than 34 C (93.2 F), and refractory acidosis. The anesthesiologists are administering fresh frozen plasma and platelet packs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for the surgeon?
. Provide hemostasis by liberal use of electrocoagulation
. Wash the abdomen with warm saline and continue to operate
. Complete the operation as soon as possible and do a formal abdominal closure
. Pack the bleeding surfaces and close the abdomen temporarily with towel clips
. Abort the operation and leave the abdomen open, covering the bowel with mesh
129) A previously healthy 19-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a penetrating wound to the right neck. There were reports of bleeding at the scene. The patient is talking, complaining of pain at the injury site and pain with swallowing. On examination, he has a normal respiratory rate, clear air entry on auscultation, blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, and heart rate of 95 beats/min. There is a penetrating right neck wound in zone 2 (between the clavicle and the lower part of the mandible), with a surrounding hematoma. On probing, there is violation of the platysma. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Intubation and observation in the ICU
. Admission to the ICU for close observation without intubation
. Observation in the ICU only if carotid angiogram is normal
. Observation in the ICU only if carotidangiogram, contrast esophagram, and bronchoscopy are normal
. Neck exploration
130) A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in an automobile crash. He is alert and oriented, with a normal neurologic examination. His respiratory rate is 20/min, with clear lungs, pulse rate of 120/min, and blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg. On examination, he is noted to have a distended abdomen, with decreased bowel sounds, and a fracture of the right ankle. IV access is established, and the patient receives a rapid infusion of 2 L of saline, without changes to pulse rate or blood pressure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
. abdominal CT scan
. Insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter
. Exploratory laparotomy
. Focused abdominal sonography for trauma (FAST)
. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
131) A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine checkup. She states that she was recently hospitalized for surgery and was told she had some metal placed in a large blood vessel to prevent blood clots from moving to her lungs. An abdominal x-ray is shown here. Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for placement of this device?
 
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. Recurrent pulmonary embolus despite adequate anticoagulation therapy
. Axillary vein thrombosis
. Pulmonary embolus due to DVT of the lower extremity that occurs 2 weeks postoperatively
. DVT in a patient with patient with metastatic carcinoma
. Pulmonary embolus in a patient with metastatic carcinoma
132) Two days after admission to the hospital for a myocardial infarction, a 65-year-old man complains of severe, unremitting midabdominal pain. His cardiac index is 1.6. Physical examination is remarkable for an absence of peritoneal irritation or distention despite the patient’s persistent complaint of severe pain. Serum lactate is 9 mmol/L (normal is < 3 mmol/L). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
. Perform computed tomography.
. Perform mesenteric angiography.
. Perform laparoscopy.
. Perform flexible sigmoidoscopy to assess the distal colon and rectum.
. Defer decision to explore the abdomen until the arterial lactate is greater than 10mmol/L.
133) A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe retrosternal chest pain that suddenly started a few hours ago. He has been having some chest pain and epigastric burning for the past few days but says that the current pain is different. His other medical problems include nonischemic cardiomyopathy for which he takes furosemide, carvedilol, spironolactone, lisinopril, and potassium chloride. He also has HIV infection but has chosen not to take any medication related to this diagnosis. His temperature is 38.9° C (102° F), blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Examination shows that he is in obvious distress secondary to pain. His lungs are clear to auscultation. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. His ECG is within normal limits. Chest x-ray shows a widened mediastinum and some mediastinal air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and repeat ECG in 30 minutes
. Contrast esophagography
. Oral omeprazole and antacids
. Transesophageal echocardiography
. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
134) A 36-year-old woman presents with palpitations, anxiety, and hypertension. Workup reveals a pheochromocytoma. Which of the following is the best approach to optimizing the patient preoperatively?
. Fluid restriction 24 hours preoperatively to prevent intraoperative congestive heart failure
. Initiation of an α-blocker 24 hours prior to surgery
. Initiation of an α-blocker at 1 to 3 weeks prior to surgery
. Initiation of a β-blocker 1 to 3 weeks prior to surgery
. Escalating antihypertensive drug therapy with β-blockade followed by α-blockade starting at least 1 week prior to surgery
135) A 35-year-old woman is involved in a motor vehicle crash, sustaining a severe pelvic fracture, with disruption of the pelvic ring. In the trauma resuscitation room, she is confused and tachypneic, with a blood pressure of 90 mmHg systolic and a heart rate of 130/min. Laboratory investigations include serum electrolyte analysis, revealing a sodium of 139, a chloride of 103, and a bicarbonate of 14 meq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this acid-based derangement?
. Administration of sodium bicarbonate to correct the base deficit
. Restoration of blood volume with aggressive IV fluid resuscitation
. IV hydrochloric acid
. Intubation and hyperventilation
. This patient has no acid-based abnormality.
136) A 33-year-old pregnant woman notices a persistent, painless lump in the left breast. On examination the left breast has a single mobile mass without evidence of skin changes or lymphadenopathy in the neck or axilla. An ultrasound demonstrates a solid, 1-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. A core-needle biopsy shows invasive ductal carcinoma. The patient is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Termination of the pregnancy followed by modified radical mastectomy
. Immediate administration of chemotherapy followed by modified radical mastectomy after delivery of the baby
. Administration of radiation in the third trimester followed by modified radical mastectomy after delivery of the baby
. Total mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy
. Modified radical mastectomy
137) A 40-year-old woman presents with a rash involving the nipple-areola complex for the last month with associated itching. On physical examination there is crusting and ulceration of the nipple with surrounding erythema involving the areola and surrounding skin, no palpable breast masses, and no cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Reexamine the patient in 1 month
. Corticosteroid cream to the affected area
. Administration of oral antibiotics
. Mammogram and biopsy of the affected area
. Modified radical mastectomy
138) A 54-year-old woman presents to her physician for an opinion regarding additional therapy following curative resection of recently diagnosed colon cancer. She underwent uncomplicated sigmoid resection for invasive colon cancer 4 weeks ago. The pathology revealed carcinoma invading into, but not through, the muscularis propria, with one of eight positive mesenteric nodes. There was no evidence of liver metastases at the time of operation. Preoperative chest x-ray and CT scan of the abdomen showed no evidence of distant disease. Preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level was normal. Past history is positive for diabetes and mild hypertension. Examination is unremarkable except for a healing abdominal incision. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding adjuvant therapy?
. No therapy indicated
. 5-fluorouracil chemotherapy
. 5-fluorouracil chemotherapy with leucovorin
. doxorubicin (Adriamycin) chemotherapy
. Adriamycin chemotherapy with methotrexate and Cytoxam
139) A 55-year-old man presents to the physician’s office for his yearly physical examination. He is asymptomatic. Past history is pertinent for hypertension. Family history is positive for breast cancer in his mother at age 70 and colon cancer in his father at age 65. His examination is unremarkable except for guiac positive stool. Barium enema shows a sigmoid colon polyp. Colonoscopy confirms a 3-cm pedunculated polyp in the sigmoid colon, and snare polypectomy is performed. Pathologic examination reveals an adenomatous polyp with a focus of invasive carcinoma in the head, with a 4-mm resection margin and no tumor noted in the stalk. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. CT scan
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
. Surgical resection of sigmoid
. observation
. Regular use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
140) An elderly woman with osteoporosis falls on her outstretched hand. She comes in with a deformed and painful wrist that looks like a dinner fork. X-ray films show a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. There is also an associated fracture of the ulnar styloid. A neurologic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
. Closed reduction and short arm cast
. Closed reduction and long arm cast
. Skeletal traction
. Intramedullary rod
. Open reduction and internal fixation
141) During endoscopic biopsy of a distal esophageal cancer, perforation of the esophagus is suspected when the patient complains of significant new substernal pain. An immediate chest film reveals air in the mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Placement of a nasogastric tube to the level of perforation, antibiotics, and close observation
. Spit fistula (cervical pharyngostomy) and gastrostomy
. Left thoracotomy, pleural patch oversewing of the perforation, and drainage of the mediastinum
. Left thoracotomy with esophagectomy
. Thoracotomy with chest tube drainage and esophageal exclusion
142) In preparation for an inguinal hernia repair, a 22-year-old man has a spinal anesthetic placed. The level of sensory block turns out to be much higher than had been planned, and shortly thereafter his blood pressure drops to 75/20 mm Hg. He looks warm and flushed, and his central venous pressure is near zero. Which of the following should be included in his therapy?
. Diuretics and fluid restriction
. Whole blood and clotting factors
. Inotropic agents and cardiac assist pump
. Vasoconstrictors and IV fluids
. Vasodilators and IV fluids
143) A 27-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding pain and numbness in the right arm and hand. She reports that it is exacerbated by raising her arm over her head. On examination, the right radial pulse disappears when the patient takes a deep breath and turns her head to the left. A provisional diagnosis is made. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
. Physical rehabilitation
. Gabapentin to treat neuropathic pain
. Right first rib resection
. Thoracoscopic sympathectomy
. Upper thoracic discectomy
144) A 35-year-old man with a history of melanoma status post wide local excision with negative margins and lymph node dissection presents with 2, peripherallylocated pulmonary lesions seen on chest CT scan. Percutaneous biopsy of the lesion is consistent with metastatic melanoma. He has no evidence of recurrence or extrathoracic disease and is in good general health. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Chemotherapy
. Radiation therapy
. Pulmonary metastasectomy
. Pulmonary metastasectomy followed by radiation therapy
. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy followed by pulmonary metastasectomy
145) A 65-year-old man presents to the physician’s office for his yearly physical examination. His only complaint relates to early fatigue while playing golf. Past history is pertinent for mild hypertension. Examination is unremarkable except for trace hematest-positive stool. Blood tests are normal except for a hematocrit of 32. A UGI series is performed and is normal. A barium enema is performed, and one view is shown in Figure 6-10. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy following colonoscopy?
 
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. Proximal colostomy with mucous fistula
. Radiation therapy
. chemotherapy
. Surgical resection and primary anastomosis
. Surgical bypass (colocolostomy)
146) A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of pain and weakness of the left lower extremity of 2-hour duration. Past history reveals chronic atrial fibrillation following a myocardial infarction 12 months ago. On examination, he is found to have a cool, pale left lower extremity with decreased strength and absent popliteal and pedal pulses. The opposite leg has a normal appearance with palpable pulses. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient?
. r-TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) infusion following anticoagulation
. Administration of vasodilators
. four-compartment fasciotomy
. thromboembolectomy
. Anticoagulation and close observation
147) A 53-year-old woman presents with complaints of weakness, anorexia, malaise, constipation, and back pain. While being evaluated, she becomes somewhat lethargic. Laboratory studies include a normal chest x-ray, serum albumin 3.2 mg/dL, serum calcium 14 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.6 mg/dL, serum chloride 108 mg/dL, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 32 mg/dL, and creatinine 2.0 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
. Intravenous normal saline infusion
. Administration of thiazide diuretics
. Administration of intravenous phosphorus
. Use of mithramycin
. Neck exploration and parathyroidectomy
148) A 44-year-old homeless woman presents to the emergency department because she is "bleeding from the breast." Physical examination shows a huge, fungating, ulcerated mass that occupies the entire right breast and is firmly attached to the chest wall. The right axilla is full of hard masses that are not movable either. Core biopsies of the breast are read as highly undifferentiated infiltrating ductal carcinoma, and assay for estrogen and progesterone receptors are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Local wound care, but no specific antineoplastic therapy
. Tamoxifen therapy
. Radiation and chemotherapy
. Palliative mastectomy
. Radical mastectomy with extended lymph node dissection
149) A 64-year-old woman complains of right calf pain and swelling. She recently underwent an uncomplicated left hemicolectomy for diverticular disease. A duplex ultrasound confirms the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the calf. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Pneumatic compression stockings
. Warfarin
. Heparin
. Thrombolysis
. Inferior vena cava filter
150) A 51-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office with a 2-month history of a right breast blood tinged nipple discharge. Past history is unremarkable. Family history is positive for postmenopausal breast cancer in a maternal grandmother. Examination reveals no palpable masses or regional adenopathy, but a serous discharge is easily elicited from a single duct in the right breast. Bilateral mammograms show no abnormalities. Cytology from the discharge was not diagnostic. A ductogram was ordered, and the results are shown in picture. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
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. Collection of discharge for repeat cytologic analysis
. observation, with repeat examination and imaging studies in 3–6 months
. Modified radical mastectomy
. Central lumpectomy (including removal of the nipple/areolar complex
. Terminal duct excision (microdochectomy)
151) A 65-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of an abnormal screening mammogram. She denies any breast masses, nipple discharge, pain, or skin changes. Past history is pertinent for hypertension. Family history is positive for postmenopausal breast cancer in a sister. She has a normal breast examination and no axillary adenopathy. The remainder of her examination is unremarkable. An MLO view of the right breast is shown in Figure 6-6a along with a magnification view of the craniocaudal (CC) film (Figure 6-6b). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
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. observation, with repeat mammogram in 6 months
. observation, with repeat mammogram on an annual basis
. biopsy
. lumpectomy, radiation therapy, and SLN biopsy
. Total mastectomy
152) A 45-year-old woman presents with a 7-cm renal cell carcinoma with radiologic evidence of abdominal lymph node involvement with no distant metastases. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Radical nephrectomy
. Radiation
. Chemotherapy
. Radiation followed by nephrectomy
. Chemotherapy followed by nephrectomy
153) A 58-year-old man is found to have high serum prostate–specific antigen (PSA) concentration with a normal prostate examination. A biopsy of the prostate confirms low-grade carcinoma. The patient wishes to avoid therapy involving any risk for impotence. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Observation
. Chemotherapy
. Prostatectomy
. Radiation therapy
. Hormonal therapy
154) A 28-year-old man with a past history of bilateral orchiopexy for cryptorchidism presents with a painless, unilateral right scrotal enlargement. On examination, there is a palpable right testicular mass and enlarged inguinal node. Scrotal ultrasonography demonstrates heterogeneity of the testis, with an associated hydrocele. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis demonstrated right-sided retroperitoneal adenopathy. CT scan of the chest is normal. Staging workup and surgery reveal a seminoma of the testicle, with positive inguinal and retroperitoneal nodes. Therapeutic management for this patient is which of the following?
. External beam radiotherapy
. Multidrug combination chemotherapy
. Combination radiotherapy and multidrug chemotherapy
. Clinical surveillance
. Laparotomy with pelvic and retroperitoneal node dissection
155) A patient with mild skin pigmentation is admitted emergently to your service because of sudden abdominal pain, fever, and a rigid abdomen. Her blood work indicates a marked leukocytosis, a blood sugar of 55 mg/dL, a sodium value of 119 mEq/dL, and a potassium value of 6.2 mEq/dL. Her blood pressure is 88/58-mmHg. She undergoes an exploratory laparotomy. Which of the following is the definitive treatment for her primary condition?
. 10% dextrose infusion
. Bicarbonate
. Hypertonic saline
. Corticosteroids
. Vasopressors
156) A 10-month-old infant presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of low-grade fever and anorexia. The parents report several episodes in which the child has been suddenly inconsolable and crying, followed by periods of lethargy. He has had nonbilious vomiting and several loose stools. On examination, the infant is pale and mildly dehydrated. His abdomen is soft and nondistended, with fullness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. The child passed another stool in the emergency department (see Figure 6-14). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic evaluation and management of this patient?
 
 
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. proctoscopy
. Oral rehydration and stool cultures
. IV fluid rehydration and a hydrostatic barium enema
. Technetium scan
. IV fluid rehydration, NG decompression, and a UGI contrast study
157) A 45-year-old woman presents with left-sided weakness. A CT scan of the head demonstrates a well-circumscribed mass abutting the skull in the right hemisphere. Workup of the mass reveals a meningioma. Which of the following is the best next step in treatment?
. Cerebral angiography with tumor embolization
. Preoperative radiation therapy followed by surgical excision
. Surgical excision
. Chemotherapy with adriamycin
. Chemoradiation
158) A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and vomiting 3 hours ago. He reports a 6-month history of chronic epigastric pain occurring nearly every day and relieved by antacids. On examination, he appears sweaty and avoids movement. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100°F, BP of 100/60 mmHg, pulse rate of 110/min, and respiratory rate of 12/min. The remainder of his examination reveals diminished bowel sounds and a markedly tender and rigid abdomen. A chest x-ray and abdominal films reveal pneumoperitoneum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate laparotomy
. Nonoperative management with NG decompression and antibiotics
. Fluid resuscitation
. Administration of H2 blockers
. Placement of a central venous line
159) An 18-year-old high school senior develops peripheral vision abnormalities. A CT scan of the brain reveals a cystic suprasellar mass with some calcification noted. Clinically, this is compatible with a craniopharyngioma. What is the best next step in treatment?
. Growth hormone therapy
. Cerebral angiography with tumor embolization
. Transsphenoidal decompression of the optic nerve and optic chiasm
. Surgical resection
. Radiotherapy
160) A 65-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency department with a history of a penetrating wound to his buttock by a wooden stump while working in his garden 24 hours earlier. On examination, he is febrile, the tissue around the wound is violaceous in color, and several bullae and crepitus are noted in the buttock. The drainage from the wound is foul smelling, watery, and grayish in appearance. The optimal treatment for this patient would include which of the following?
High-dose IV penicillin G and broadspectrum antibiotics
High-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, and local wound care with unroofing of bullae and culture of wound drainage
High-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, with surgical debridement only if and when there is no improvement with antibiotics
Radical surgical debridement
High-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, radical surgical debridement, and hyperbaric oxygen therapy
161) A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after being extricated from the driver’s seat of a car involved in a head-on collision. He has a sternal fracture and is complaining of chest pain. He is hemodynamically stable and his electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
. Admit to telemetry for 24-hour monitoring
. Admit to the regular ward with serial ECGs for 24 hours
. Emergent cardiac catheterization
. Immediate operative plating of the sternal fracture
. Discharge to home with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents for the sternal fracture
162) The imaging studies demonstrate three lesions in the right hepatic lobe suspicious for metastatic disease, each measuring 3–4 cm in diameter. There was no evidence of extrahepatic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Systemic chemotherapy
. intra-arterial chemotherapy through the hepatic artery
. Surgical resection
. Radiation therapy to the liver
. Repeat imaging studies in 3 months to determine the growth rate of the disease
163) In your discussion with the patient regarding the risks and benefits of the different management options listed above, which of the following values should you quote regarding the expected 5-year survival rate following curative surgical resection?
. 5–10%
. 15–20%
. 25–35%
. 40–50%
. 60–70%
164) A 60-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction. On his second hospital day, he begins to complain of the sudden onset of numbness in his right foot and an inability to move his right foot. On physical examination, the right femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses are no longer palpable. The left lower extremity is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Duplex imaging of the right lower extremity arteries
. CT angiogram of the right lower extremity
. CT angiogram of bilateral lower extremities
. Embolectomy of the right femoral artery
. Embolectomy of the right femoral artery with exploration of the contralateral femoral artery
165) A 60-year-old man is found on a routine physical examination to have a 3-cm pulsatile mass in the right popliteal fossa. X-ray of the right of the right lower extremity is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
 
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. Antiplatelet therapy
. Anticoagulation
. Thrombolytic therapy
. Surgery
. Reassurance and re-examination if the patient develops symptoms
166) A 46-year-old woman, who had always been in good health, comes in because of the sudden onset of very severe back and leg pain that she experienced 2 hours ago when attempting to lift a heavy object. She says that she felt "a bolt of lightning" running down the back of her leg, and she still has very severe pain that prevents her from walking or moving. The pain is exacerbated by coughing, sneezing, or straining. She keeps the affected leg flexed; straight leg rising gives her excruciating pain. She has good sphincter tone and intact sensation in the perineum. Once the diagnosis is confirmed with the appropriate studies, which of the following will be the most appropriate treatment?
. Analgesics and bed rest for about 3 weeks
. Appropriate antibiotics
. Body cast for 3-6 months
. Radiotherapy to the affected area
. Surgical decompression
167) During diagnostic evaluation, a 14-year-old girl with menorrhagia, frequent nosebleeds, and iron deficiency anaemia is found to have a low platelet count with a normal coagulation profile. Bone marrow biopsy reveals abundant megakaryocytes. On abdominal examination, no organomegaly is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
. splenectomy
. Platelet transfusion when peripheral platelet count drops below 50,000/mL
. Systemic steroids
. chemotherapy
. Expectant, with intervention only if the patient develops significant clinical bleeding.
168) A 70-year-old woman undergoes a cardiac catheterization for exertional chest pain. Her pain continues to worsen and she is interested in having either surgery or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which of the following would be an indication for her to undergo either coronary artery bypass grafting or PCI?
. Two-vessel coronary disease with proximal left anterior descending artery stenosis and depressed left ventricular ejection fraction
. Isolated left main stenosis, no diabetes, and normal left ventricular ejection fraction
. Isolated left main stenosis and diabetes
. Left main stenosis and additional coronary artery disease with depressed left ventricular ejection fraction.
. Three-vessel coronary artery disease and diabetes
169) Six months ago at the time of lumpectomy for breast cancer, a 60-year-old female attorney quit a 30-year smoking habit of 2 packs per day. She had the chest radiograph shown here as part of her routine follow-up examination. Based on her age and history of smoking, you are concerned for either a new primary lung or metastatic breast malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this lesion?
. Follow-up CT scan in 3 months
. Magnetic resonance imaging of bilateral breasts to evaluate for recurrence of the breast cancer
. Transthoracic fine-needle aspiration of the lesion
. Mediastinoscopy
. Thoracotomy with lobectomy
170) A 39-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of a palpable nodule in the neck of 2 years’ duration. Her past history is pertinent for Hashimoto’s disease diagnosed 5 years ago, for which she takes thyroid hormone. She has a history of low-dose chest irradiation for an enlarged thymus gland during infancy. On examination, a 2.5-cm nodule is palpable in the left lobe of the thyroid and is firm and non-tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
. Ultrasound of the neck
. Thyroid scinti-scan
. MRI of the neck
. CT scan of the neck and chest
. FNA of the nodule
171) A 58-year-old man presents with tachycardia, fever, confusion, and vomiting. Workup reveals markedly elevated (triiodothyronine) T 3 and (thyroxine) T4 levels. He is diagnosed as having a thyroid storm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Emergent subtotal thyroidectomy
. Emergent total thyroidectomy
. Emergent hemodialysis
. Administration of fluid, antithyroid drugs, β-blockers, iodine solution, and steroids
. Emergent radiation therapy to the neck
172) A 35-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and comes in complaining of wrist pain. He relates that he was not able to break the fall, and that the heel of his hand took the brunt of his full weight as it hit the pavement. On physical examination, he is distinctly tender to palpation over the anatomic snuff box. Anteroposterior and lateral x-rays are negative. Which of the following are the most likely diagnosis and most appropriate next step in management?
. Carpal navicular fracture; thumb spica cast
. De Quervain tenosynovitis; steroid injections
. Displaced scaphoid fracture; open reduction and internal fixation
. Ligamentous injury; Ace bandage and analgesics
. No fracture; reassurance
173) A 55-year-old-woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of mammographic findings on a screening mammogram. She denies any breast masses, nipple discharge, pain, or skin changes. Past history is pertinent for insulin-dependent diabetes. Family history is positive for postmenopausal breast cancer in her mother. She has a normal breast examination and no axillary adenopathy. A mediolateral oblique (MLO) view of the right breast is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
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. observation, with repeat mammogram in 6–12 months
. ultrasound
. biopsy
. lumpectomy, radiation therapy, and sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy
. Total mastectomy
174) A 34-year-old man is extricated from an automobile after a motor vehicle collision. The patient has an obvious deformity of his right thigh consistent with a femur fracture. Upon closer examination of the right thigh, there is bone visible through an open wound. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of his open femur fracture?
. Intravenous (IV) antibiotics and cast or splint placement
. IV antibiotics and internal or external fixation
. Early irrigation and debridement, IV antibiotics, and cast or splint placement
. Early irrigation and debridement, IV antibiotics, and internal or external fixation
. Early irrigation and debridement, IV antibiotics, compartment decompression, and internal or external fixation
175) A 43-year-old woman comes in because of a breast mass. Two days ago, she noticed a lump on self-examination. She has a 2-cm, firm, nontender mass in the left breast, which is movable from the chest wall, but not movable within the breast. She has no prior history of breast disease, but she is well read and well informed, and she specifically requests that a biopsy be done with a mammotome. Before proceeding, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step?
. Discuss the surgical options in case cancer is found
. Do a mammogram to ascertain whether biopsy is needed
. Do a mammogram to find any other lesions that might also need to be addressed
. First wait for two menstrual cycles to see whether there is spontaneous resolution.
. Obtain a fine-needle aspirate and go no further if no malignant cells are found
176) A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-cm right thyroid mass and palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of one of the lymph nodes demonstrates the presence of calcified clumps of sloughed cells. Which of the following best describes the management of this thyroid disorder?
. The patient should be screened for pancreatic endocrine neoplasms and hypercalcemia.
. The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with modified radical neck dissection.
. The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with frozen section intraoperative, with modified radical neck dissection reserved for patients with extra-capsular invasion.
. The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy followed by iodine 131 (131I) therapies.
. The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy.
177) A 45-year-old woman is found to have suspicious appearing calcifications in the right breast on a screening mammogram. Stereotactic biopsy of the calcifications shows lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS). On examination both breasts are dense without palpable masses. The neck and bilateral axilla are negative for lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Frequent self-breast examinations and yearly screening mammograms
. Chemotherapy
. Radiation
. Right total mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy
. Bilateral modified radical mastectomy
178) A 32-year-old, previously healthy man is a victim of a drive-by shooting, sustaining a gunshot wound to the left lower extremity. The entrance wound is located over the medial aspect of the calf, with an exit wound over the anterior pretibial region. Neurovascular examination of the extremity is normal. There is associated soft-tissue injury from the blast effect and a severely comminuted tibial fracture demonstrated on radiographs. Appropriate management of this injury includes which of the following?
. Local wound irrigation, closure of the soft-tissue defect, closed reduction, and immobilization in a long-leg cast
. Local wound irrigation with antibiotic solution, closed reduction, and immobilization in a long-leg cast, with continued local wound care through an anterior cast window
. Tetanus prophylaxis, intravenous (IV) antibiotics, and operative wound irrigation and debridement, with application of an external fixation device
. Tetanus prophylaxis, IV antibiotics, operative wound irrigation with closure of the soft-tissue defect, closed reduction, and immobilization in a long-leg cast
. Tetanus prophylaxis, IV antibiotics, long leg splint for immobilization, and operative intervention during elective surgical schedule
179) A 16-year-old adolescent boy sustains head trauma in a motor vehicle collision. He has a GCS of 15 and an obvious depressed skull fracture with 1cm displacement. During his hospital stay, he notices clear fluid draining from his nose. What is the best management strategy for this patient?
. Immediate surgical elevation of the skull fracture
. Delayed surgical elevation of the skull fracture
. Immediate dural repair
. Elevation of the head of the bed and placement of a lumbar drain
. Antibiotic therapy for sinusitis
180) A 41-year-old woman has noted bilateral thin serous discharge from her breasts. There seems to be no mass associated with it. Which of the following statements would be appropriate to tell the patient?
. Intermittent thin or milky discharge can be physiologic.
. Expressible nipple discharge is an indication for open biopsy.
. Absence of a mass on mammogram rules out malignancy.
. Galactorrhea is indicative of an underlying malignancy.
. Pathologic discharge is usually bilateral.
181) A 42-year-old woman presents to the ER with the worst headache of her life. A noncontrast CT scan of the head is negative for lesions or hemorrhage. She then undergoes a lumbar puncture, which appears bloody. All 4 tubes collected have red blood cell counts greater than 100,000/mL. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Repeat the head CT scan with intravenous contrast.
. Perform an angiogram of the aorta and lumbar branches for immediate embolization of the injured vessel.
. Perform a 4-vessel cerebral angiogram.
. Administer a dose of mannitol.
. Consult neurosurgery for immediate ventriculostomy.
182) A 16-year-old girl with a history of ulcerative colitis managed with steroid therapy presents to the emergency department with a 36-hour history of nausea, crampy abdominal pain, and severe bloody diarrhea. On examination, the patient is febrile and pale, with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and heart rate of 130 beats/min. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender. A complete blood count (CBC) demonstrates a leukocytosis with a left shift. The patient receives IV fluid resuscitation and nasogastric (NG) tube decompression. We inject high-dose IV steroids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. After 48 hours, there is no clinical improvement. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Colonoscopic decompression
. cyclosporine
. Abdominal colectomy and ileostomy and Hartmann’s procedure
. Proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis
. Abdominal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis
183) After being injured by a bull on his mother’s farm, a young man is placed in a cast for a supracondylar fracture of his humerus. A few hours later he begins to experience intense pain, swelling, and weakness in the ipsilateral hand. Pulses are normal in bilateral upper extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Observation
. Repeat imaging of the humerus
. Elevation of the extremity
. Removal of the cast
. Surgical decompression (fasciotomy)
184) A 39-year-old man presents with an isolated fracture of the tibia after being hit on the leg with a car. The patient is stable and a radiograph of the leg shows a tibial shaft fracture with severe dislocation. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the fracture?
. Closed reduction and application of a long leg cast
. Intramedullary nailing
. Surgical fixation with unreamed nailing
. External fixation
. Plate fixation
185) A 63-year-old woman notices lumps on both sides of her neck. A fine-needle aspirate is nondiagnostic, and she undergoes total thyroidectomy. Final pathology reveals a 2-cm Hürthle cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate postsurgical management of this patient?
. No further therapy is indicated.
. Chemotherapy.
. External beam radiotherapy.
. Radioiodine ablation.
. Chemotherapy, external beam radiotherapy, and radioiodine ablation.
186) A 51-year-old man presents with a 2-cm left thyroid nodule. Thyroid scan shows a cold lesion. FNA cytology demonstrates follicular cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient?
. External beam radiation to the neck.
. Multidrug chemotherapy.
. TSH suppression by thyroid hormone.
. Prophylactic neck dissection is indicated along with a total thyroidectomy.
. Thyroid lobectomy.
187) A 25-year-old man is stabbed once in the right chest. The entrance wound is on the midaxillary line, at the level of the fifth intercostal space. He arrives at the emergency department moderately short of breath, but he is fully awake and alert, is talking with a normal tone of voice, and has no distended veins visible in his neck or forehead. His blood pressure is 130/75 mm Hg, and his pulse is 82/min. Physical examination of the chest shows the wound, which is not visibly "sucking air," and demonstrates no breath sounds at all on the right side, which is tympanitic to percussion. There is no evidence of mediastinal displacement. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management?
. Cover the wound with a regular dressing and get a chest x-ray
. Cover the wound with Vaseline gauze, taped on three sides
. Endotracheal intubation
. Insert a chest tube at the right pleural base
. Insert an 18-gauge needle into the right pleural space at the second intercostal space
188) A term infant is born at a small community hospital by cesarean section for failure to progress. The infant is noted to have the following abnormality at birth. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
 
9
. IV antibiotics alone
. Emergency surgery for reduction
. Monitor for spontaneous closure, with surgical intervention for persistent fascial defect
. IV fluids, IV antibiotics, warm occlusive dressing, and transfer to a center with a pediatric surgeon
. Elective umbilical exploration
189) A 2-year-old child presents with a 2-day history of painless rectal bleeding. On examination, the child is pale with tachycardia. The abdomen is nondistended and nontender. There is dark blood on rectal examination. The child has the following imaging study (see Figure 6-2). Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
 
10
. Surgical exploration
. Aggressive resuscitation followed by surgical exploration
. colonoscopy
. Acid suppression therapy
. IV steroids
190) A 40-year-old previously healthy man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain that radiates from the right loin (flank) to groin. This pain is associated with nausea, sweating, and urinary urgency. He is distressed and restless, but an abdominal examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Insertion of a urethral catheter
. IV fluid hydration, IV analgesics, and nonenhanced computed tomography (CT) scan
. IV fluid hydration, IV analgesics, and arrangements for lithotripsy
. Cystoscopy and retrograde pyelogram
. Urine culture, followed by initiation of antibiotic therapy
191) Incisional biopsy of a breast mass in a 35-year-old woman demonstrates cystosarcoma phyllodes at the time of frozen section. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this lesion?
. Wide local excision with a rim of normal tissue
. Lumpectomy and axillary lymphadenectomy
. Modified radical mastectomy
. Excision and postoperative radiotherapy
. Excision, postoperative radiotherapy, and systemic chemotherapy
192) A 36-year-old woman, 20 weeks pregnant, presents with a 1.5-cm right thyroid mass. FNA is consistent with a papillary neoplasm. The mass is cold on scan and solid on ultrasound. Which of the following methods of treatment is contra-indicated in this patient?
. Right thyroid lobectomy
. Subtotal thyroidectomy
. Total thyroidectomy
. Total thyroidectomy with lymph node dissection
. 131I radioactive ablation of the thyroid gland
193) A 45-year-old man presents to the physician’s office complaining of dysphagia and retrosternal pressure and pain of 2-year duration. The symptoms have worsened over the last 3 months. He has a 30 pack-year smoking history and drinks beer on weekends. Vital signs include a BP of 150/90 mmHg, pulse rate of 90/min, and respiratory rate of 12/min, with a normal temperature. Examination reveals a thin man with a normal heart, lung, and abdomen examination. An esophagogram reveals a 6-cm, smooth, concave defect in the mid-esophagus with sharp borders. Esophagoscopy reveals intact overlying mucosa and a mobile tumor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
. Repeat esophagoscopy with biopsy
. Thoracotomy with extramucosal resection
. Thoracotomy with esophageal resection
. Radiation therapy
. chemotherapy
194) A 45-year-old woman presents with dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and weight loss. She had x-rays shown here as part of her workup. Upper endoscopy reveals no evidence of malignancy and esophageal motility studies show incomplete lower esophageal sphincter relaxation. Which of the following is the next best step in the treatment of this patient?
. Laparoscopic myotomy of the lower esophageal sphincter (Heller)
. Laparoscopic posterior 180 (Toupet) fundoplication
. Laparoscopic anterior 180 (Dor) fundoplication
. Laparoscopic 360 (Nissen) fundoplication
. Transhiatal esophagectomy
195) During diagnostic evaluation, a 14-year-old girl with menorrhagia, frequent nosebleeds, and irondeficiency anemia is found to have a low platelet count with a normal coagulation profile. Bone marrow biopsy reveals abundant megakaryocytes. On abdominal examination, no organomegaly is noted. The patient has a satisfactory response to the initial therapeutic intervention, but over 6–12 months’ time, the response is less dramatic and shorter in duration. There are signs and symptoms of increasing side effects from therapy. The next step in management should be to recommend which of the following?
. Partial splenectomy
. splenectomy
. Increase in steroid dose and frequency
. Bone marrow transplant
. plasmapheresis
196) A 70-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He has a prior history of hypertension and mild congestive heart failure, which were adequately controlled with digoxin and diuretics. To facilitate perioperative management, a Swan-Ganz (multilumen pulmonary artery) catheter was inserted in the operating room. During the first few hours postoperatively, the patient is noted to have a blood pressure of 140/70 mmHg, heart rate of 110/min, flat neck veins, a pulmonary arterial wedge pressure of 9 mmHg, and poor urine output. Several hours after this intervention a bolus of IV crystalloid, the patient is reassessed. The blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg, heart rate is 90/min, neck veins are distended, and the pulmonary arterial wedge pressure is 17 mmHg. Urine output is still low in volume. At this point, management should be which of the following?
. IV furosemide
. A bolus of IV crystalloid
. A dopamine infusion
. A nitroprusside infusion
. IV digoxin administration
197) A 19-year-old previously healthy man is an unbelted driver of a motor vehicle involved in a front-end collision. On arrival in the emergency department, the patient is noted to have stridor, with marked respiratory distress, and an oxygen saturation of 88% despite 100% oxygen by mask. He has obvious extensive facial injuries, a flail chest, and poor chest expansion. Bag-mask-valve ventilation is ineffective. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Orotracheal intubation
. Nasotracheal intubation
. cricothyroidotomy
. tracheostomy
. Placement of bilateral chest tubes
198) A 32-year-old man presents with an asymptomatic mass in his right testicle. On examination, the mass cannot be transilluminated. Ultrasound shows a solid mass in the right testicle. Which of the following is the most accurate method in obtaining a diagnosis of testicular cancer?
. Serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein and beta human chorionic gonadotrophin
. Percutaneous biopsy of the testicular mass
. Incisional biopsy of the testicular mass through a scrotal incision
. Excisional biopsy of the testicular mass through a scrotal incision
. Radical inguinal orchiectomy
199) A 10-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with pain in the left testicle. The pain was acute in onset and began 1 hour ago. On physical examination, he is noted to have a high-riding, firm, and markedly tender left testis. The right testicle is normal. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Manual detorsion of the left testicle with external rotation toward the thigh; orchiopexy if the condition recurs
. Manual detorsion of the left testicle with internal rotation toward the thigh; orchiopexy if the condition recurs
. Orchiopexy of the left testicle
. Orchiopexy of bilateral testicles
. Orchiectomy of the left testicle
200) A pedestrian is hit by a speeding car. Radiologic studies obtained in the emergency room, including a retrograde urethrogram (RUG), are consistent with a pelvic fracture with a rupture of the urethra superior to the urogenital diaphragm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
. Immediate percutaneous nephrostomy
. Immediate placement of a Foley catheter through the urethra into the bladder to align and stent the injured portions
. Immediate reconstruction of the ruptured urethra after initial stabilization of the patient
. Immediate exploration of the pelvis for control of hemorrhage from pelvic fracture and drainage of pelvic hematoma
. Immediate placement of a suprapubic cystostomy tube
201) A previously healthy 45-year-old man presents with a 9-month history of a slow-growing, painless right neck mass. He is a nonsmoker and has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is a nontender, discrete, 3-cm mass over the angle of the right mandible. Facial muscle function and sensation are normal. An oropharyngeal examination is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. antibiotics
. Excisional biopsy
. Observation with re-evaluation in 2–4 weeks
. Superficial parotidectomy
. Chest x-ray
202) A 63-year-old man underwent a 3-vessel coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) 5 hours ago. Initially, his mediastinal chest tube output was 300 mL blood/h, but an hour ago, there was no further evidence of bleeding from the tube. His mean arterial pressure has fallen, and several fluid boluses were administered. His central venous pressure (CVP) is elevated to 20 mm Hg, and he has required the addition of inotropes. Which of the following is the best management strategy?
. Addition of vasopressors along with the inotropes
. Transfusion of packed red blood cells
. Return to the operating room for exploration of the mediastinum
. Placement of an intraaortic balloon pump
. Infusion of streptokinase into the mediastinal chest tube
203) An 89-year-old man has lost 30 lb over the past 2 years. He reports that food frequently sticks when he swallows. He also complains of a chronic cough. Barium swallow is shown here. What is the best treatment option for this patient?
. Placement of an esophageal stent
. Diverticuloplasty
. Excision of the diverticulum
. Excision of the diverticulum and administration of a promotility agent
. Excision of the diverticulum and cricopharyngeal myotomy
204) A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a soft-tissue injury to the left lower extremity. The injury was sustained 8 hours earlier in a motorcycle accident on a gravel road. On examination, the patient has a 7-cm deep laceration to the calf, with visible road debris. He had full tetanus immunization as a child and a tetanus booster immunization at age 15. Appropriate management of this injury would include which of the following?
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound; tetanus toxoid and tetanus immune globulin
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound; tetanus toxoid
. Irrigation and debridement of the wound; IV antibiotics
. Tetanus toxoid and IV antibiotics
205) A 6-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a painful, markedly swollen elbow. While ice-skating, he fell with his arm outstretched. Radiographs of the elbow demonstrate a displaced, supracondylar fracture of the humerus. On examination, there is pain on passive flexion at the wrist and a decreased radial pulse, with diminished capillary refill in the hand. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this injury?
Admission to hospital for close observation, with immobilization of the elbow at 90 of flexion
Closed reduction with percutaneous pinning under general anesthesia
Open reduction and pinning under general anesthesia
Open reduction with pinning, and exploration of the brachial artery
Open reduction with pinning, exploration of the brachial artery, and decompression fasciotomy of the forearm fascial compartments
206) A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest. He comes in fully awake and alert, and, in a normal tone of voice, he states that he feels short of breath. His vital signs are normal and stable. On physical examination, he has no breath sounds at the right base, and only faint breath sounds at the apex. He is dull to percussion over the right base. A chest x-ray film confirms that he has a hemothorax on that side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Oxygen by mask, analgesics, and no specific intervention
. Intubation and use of a respirator
. Insertion of a chest tube in the right second intercostal space
. Insertion of a chest tube at the right base
. Exploratory thoracotomy
207) A 35-year-old woman with a history of previous right thyroidectomy for a benign thyroid nodule now undergoes completion thyroidectomy for a suspicious thyroid mass. Several hours postoperatively, she develops progressive swelling under the incision, stridor, and difficulty breathing. Orotracheal intubation is successful. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
. Fiberoptic laryngoscopy to rule out bilateral vocal cord paralysis
. Administration of intravenous calcium
. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and debridement of the wound
. Wound exploration
. Administration of high-dose steroids and antihistamines
208) In a 6-month-old previously healthy male infant, an abnormality is revealed during a routine diaper change, as illustrated in Figure 6-19. The parents have noted this finding on and off on several occasions over the last month. On each occasion, the child has been feeding well, and is content and playful. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
 
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. antibiotics
. Reassurance to the parents that the abnormality will resolve without intervention
. Referral to the emergency department for immediate surgical consultation
. Referral for elective surgical repair
. Scrotal support
209) A 60-year-old man seeks medical attention because of recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient also reports a history of increasing difficulty in urination (decreased flow, straining, and hesitancy) over the last several months. A prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is mildly elevated and a prostate biopsy proves benign. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
. α-Adrenergic blocker
. 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
. α-Adrenergic blocker and 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
. Open prostatectomy
210) An 83-year-old woman presents to a mammographic facility for a screening mammogram. The technician notices a mass in the lateral right breast. The patient denies any breast pain, nipple discharge, skin changes, or breast trauma. A right breast CC view is shown in Figure 6-7. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Incisional biopsy
. Needle biopsy
. lumpectomy, axillary dissection, and irradiation
. Total mastectomy
. Modified radical mastectomy
211) A 25-year-old unhelmeted man involved in a motorcycle collision has multiple cerebral contusions on head computed tomographic (CT) scan. He is agitated but hemodynamically stable, with a heart rate of 80 beats per minute and a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 90 mm Hg. An intracranial pressure monitor is placed, and the initial ICP reading is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate in the management of his traumatic brain injury (TBI) over the next few days?
. Hyperventilation to maintain a cerebral PCO2 of 25 to 30 mm Hg
. Administration of neosynephrine to increase his MAP and, consequently, his cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
. Administration of mannitol (1 g/kg) to reduce his ICP
. Placement of the patient in Trendelenburg position to increase cerebral perfusion
. Avoidance of all sedating drugs in the first 24 to 48 hours in order to accurately assess his neurologic status
212) A 50-year-old woman complains of headaches and lateralizing weakness. A CT scan of the brain reveals an irregular mass in the right cerebral hemisphere. A biopsy documents that this is a glioblastoma. Which of the following is the best treatment strategy for potential cure?
. Chemotherapy with temozolomide alone
. Combination chemotherapy with carmustin, cisplatin, and temozolomide
. External beam radiation alone
. Surgical resection alone
. Combined surgical resection, external beam radiation, and chemotherapy with temozolomide
213) An 85-year-old man presents to the emergency room with an acute onset of midepigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and hiccups starting 2 days ago. He is unable to keep any food down. Past history is pertinent for a long-standing hiatal hernia, hypertension, and diet-controlled diabetes. Examination reveals vital signs of pulse rate 82/min, BP 100/52 mmHg, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 97.2°F. The patient is in no acute distress, but has epigastric tenderness without guarding. Laboratory analysis revealed a hematocrit of 46 and a normal white blood cell (WBC) count. A chest x-ray is shown in Figure 6-5a. A fluoroscopically guided NG tube was placed using contrast, and his stomach was decompressed. After adequate fluid and electrolyte resuscitation, an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) contrast study was obtained and is shown in 6-5b. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
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. Laparotomy or laparoscopy and operative repair
. continued NG tube decompression and initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
. Thoracotomy or thoracoscopy and operative repair
. Endotracheal intubation and initiation of ventilatory support
. Upper endoscopy
214) A 49-year-old woman presents to her physician with dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food eaten hours earlier, and coughing over the last 6 months. She was hospitalized 1 month ago for aspiration pneumonia and successfully treated with antibiotics. Examination reveals a thin-appearing woman with normal vital signs and unremarkable chest, heart, and abdominal examination. A UGI contrast study is performed and reveals a pharyngoesophageal (Zenker’s) diverticulum. Which of the following is the most important aspect of treatment?
. Resection of the diverticulum
. Cricopharyngeal muscle myotomy
. H2 blockers
. Elevation of the head of the bed
. diverticulopexy
215) A 40-year-old alcoholic is brought to the emergency department with frostbite to both lower extremities. His core body temperature is 36°C. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for the patient’s thermal injury?
. Sympathectomy without any delay
. Debridement of devitalized tissues
. Slow rewarming at room temperature
. Slow rewarming with dry heat
. Rapid rewarming in warm water
216) A 35-year-old woman presents with a serum calcium level of 15.2 mg/dL and an elevated parathyroid hormone level. Following correction of the patient’s hypercalcemia with hydration and furosemide, which of the following is the best therapeutic approach?
. Administration of steroids
. Radiation treatment to the neck
. Neck exploration and resection of all 4 parathyroid glands
. Neck exploration and resection of a parathyroid adenoma
. Avoidance of sunlight, vitamin D, and calcium-containing dairy products
217) A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of pain and weakness of the left lower extremity of 2-hour duration. Past history reveals chronic atrial fibrillation following a myocardial infarction 12 months ago. On examination, he is found to have a cool, pale left lower extremity with decreased strength and absent popliteal and pedal pulses. The opposite leg has a normal appearance with palpable pulses. Following successful treatment for an embolus to the left femoral artery with no evidence of a reperfusion injury (anticoagulation with heparin and thromboembolecctomy), which of the following long-term treatments would most likely decrease the chance of recurrent embolus?
. anticoagulation
. Exercise program
. Coronary artery bypass grafting
. Aortofemoral bypass grafting
. Placement of a vena cava filter
218) A 63-year-old man has a chylothorax that after 2 weeks of conservative therapy appears to be persistent. The chest tube output is approximately 600 mL/day. Appropriate management at this time includes which of the following procedures?
. Neck exploration and ligation of the thoracic duct
. Subdiaphragmatic ligation of the thoracic duct
. Thoracotomy and repair of the thoracic duct
. Thoracotomy and ligation of the thoracic duct
. Thoracotomy and abrasion of the pleural space
219) A 32-year-old woman has a CXR screening, and a 1.5-cm mass is noted in the right lower lobe. She is a nonsmoker. Bronchoscopy shows a mass in the right lower lobe orifice, covered with mucosa. Biopsy indicates this is compatible with a carcinoid tumor. Imaging suggests ipsilateral mediastinal lymph node involvement but no extrathoracic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment plan?
. Right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection
. Right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection followed by adjuvant chemotherapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by right lower lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection
. Chemoradiation
220) A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of weight loss, abdominal cramps, and intermittent nonbloody diarrhea. On examination, her abdomen is mildly distended and there is a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant. Stool cultures yield normal fecal flora. CT scan with oral contrast demonstrates an inflammatory mass in the right lower quadrant, with thickening of the terminal ileum and ileocecal valve.Initial management should include which of the following?
. Antibiotics and IV fluids
. lactose-free diet
. antispasmodics
. Nutritional supplementation and systemic steroids
. laparotomy
221) A 33-year-old woman is found to have a palpable thyroid nodule during a routine medical checkup. A sonogram confirms the presence of a solid, 1.5-cm nodule in the right lobe of the thyroid gland. Fine needle aspirate cytology (FNA) is reported as "follicular tumor, otherwise unspecified." At surgery, a frozen section is read as follicular carcinoma. With the neck open, the surgeon can feel for enlarged jugular and peritracheal lymph nodes, and finds none. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
. Enucleation of the tumor
. Right thyroid lobectomy
. Total thyroidectomy
. Total thyroidectomy plus postoperative radioactive iodine
. Total thyroidectomy, radical neck dissection, and postoperative radioactive iodine
222) A 63-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a several-week history of fever, night sweats, weight loss, and cough. Her CXR is noted to have a density in the left upper lobe with a relatively thin-walled cavity. Bronchoscopy and computed tomographic (CT) scan are suggestive of a lung abscess rather than a malignant process. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
. Percutaneous drainage of the lung abscess
. Systemic antibiotics directed against the causative agent
. Tube thoracostomy
. Left upper lobectomy
. Surgical drainage of the abscess
223) A 4-year-old previously healthy girl presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of rectal bleeding and dizziness. She has no other gastrointestinal symptoms. On examination, she appears pale. Her heart rate is 140 beats/min, and she has a 20 mmHg postural drop in systolic blood pressure. The child’s abdomen is nondistended and nontender, and fresh blood and clots are in the rectal vault on rectal examination. Definitive management of this child should include which of the following?
. Immediate exploratory laparotomy
. IV fluid resuscitation, transfusion with blood products as indicated, followed by a laparotomy with Meckel’s diverticulectomy and ileal resection
. IV fluid resuscitation, followed by a colonoscopic polypectomy
. hemorrhoidectomy
. Stool softeners and topical steroids
224) A 29-year-old nonhelmeted motorcycle driver is involved in a single vehicular crash, resulting in a significant closed-head injury. He is intubated in the field and transported to a level 1 trauma center. On arrival, he is oxygenating well with assisted ventilation and has a normal blood pressure and moderate tachycardia. His Glasgow Coma Score is 7, and his pupils are equal and sluggishly reactive. After stabilization in the emergency department, the patient undergoes a CT scan of the head that demonstrates a small amount of subarachnoid blood and a right frontal lobe contusion with edema with no midline shift. CT scan of the abdomen is normal. The patient is transferred to the ICU. The optimal initial management of this patient’s intracranial pressure (ICP) would be which of the following?
. craniotomy
. Fluid restriction, hyperventilation, and osmotic diuresis
. Fluid restriction, hyperventilation, and ventriculostomy
. Hyperventilation and IV steroids
. normovolemia, normocarbia, sedation, and ventriculostomy
225) A 49-year-old obese man has become irritable, his face has changed to a round configuration, he has developed purplish lines on his flanks, and he is hypertensive. A 24-hour urine collection demonstrates elevated cortisol levels. This is confirmed with bedtime cortisol measurements of 700ng/mL. Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of Cushing disease?
. Decreased ACTH levels
. Glucocorticoid use for the treatment of inflammatory disorders
. A 3-cm adrenal mass on computed tomography (CT) scan
. Suppression with high-dose dexamethasone suppression testing
. A 1-cm bronchogenic mass on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
226) A 70-year-old man presents with back pain and increasing difficulty with initiating a urinary stream. On rectal examination, he is found to have a hard, irregularly enlarged prostate. He has an elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and osteoblastic lesions in the vertebral column and bones of the pelvis. A needle biopsy of the prostate shows well-differentiated adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the treatment of choice?
. Radical prostatectomy
. Transurethral prostatectomy
. Cytotoxic chemotherapy
. Hormonal manipulation
. radiotherapy
227) A 69-year-old man with mild hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with transient ischemic attacks and the angiogram shown here. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?
 
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. Medical therapy with aspirin 325 mg/day and medical risk factor management
. Medical therapy with warfarin
. Angioplasty of the carotid lesion followed by carotid endarterectomy if the angioplasty is unsuccessful
. Carotid endarterectomy
. Medical risk factor management and carotid endarterectomy if neurologic symptoms develop
228) A 5-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of progressive nonbilious emesis, associated with a 24-hour history of decreased urine output. The infant continues to be active and eager to feed. On examination, the infant has a sunken fontanelle and decreased skin turgor. The abdomen is scaphoid, and with a test feed, there is a visible peristaltic wave in the epigastrium. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this infant?
. Immediate surgical exploration
. Send the child home with an oral electrolyte rehydration solution
. Change the infant’s formula and feeding regimen
. IV fluid resuscitation, followed by surgical intervention
. Initiate therapy with a prokinetic agent
229) A 49-year-old woman has a firm, 2-cm mass in the right breast that has been present for 3 months. Mammogram has been read as "cannot rule out cancer," but it cannot diagnose cancer either. A fine-needle aspiration of the mass (FNA) and cytology do not identify any malignant cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Reassurance and reappointment in a year
. Repeat mammogram and FNA in 1 month
. Core or incisional biopsies
. Lumpectomy and axillary dissection
. Modified radical mastectomy
230) A 60-year-old man sees a urologist for what he describes as bloody urine. A urine sample is positive for cytologic evidence of malignancy. Cystoscopy confirms the presence of superficial transitional cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for stage A (superficial and submucosal) transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
. Topical (intravesicular) chemotherapy
. Radical cystectomy
. Radiation therapy
. Local excision and topical (intravesicular) chemotherapy
. Systemic chemotherapy
231) A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency room with renal colic. His vital signs are normal and a urinalysis shows microscopic hematuria. A radiograph reveals a 1.5-cm stone. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Hydration and analgesics
. α-Adrenergic blocker
. Extracorporeal lithotripsy
. Percutaneous nephrostomy tube
. Open surgery to remove the stone
232) An 8-month-old boy is seen by a pediatrician for the first time. The physician notes that there are no testes in the scrotum. Which of the following is the optimal management of bilateral undescended testicles in an infant?
. Immediate surgical placement into the scrotum
. Chorionic gonadotropin therapy for 1 month; operative placement into the scrotum before age 2 if descent has not occurred
. Observation until age 2; operative placement into the scrotum if descent has not occurred
. Observation until age 5; if no descent by then, plastic surgical scrotal prostheses before the child enters school
. No therapy; reassurance of the parent that full masculinization and normal spermatogenesis are likely even if the testicle does not fully descend
233) A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain has been present for 1 week, but has increased in intensity over the last 2 days associated with nausea, constipation, and dysuria. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals a temperature of 101°F, pulse rate of 95/min, BP of 130/70 mmHg, and normal heart and lung examinations. Abdominal examination reveals fullness and marked tenderness in the left lower quadrant, with voluntary guarding and decreased bowel sounds. Laboratory tests reveal a WBC count of 18,000 with a left shift and 20–50 WBCs in the urinalysis. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a thickened sigmoid colon with pericolonic inflammation. He is admitted to the hospital for treatment. We find this patient has diverticulitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. NPO, IV fluids, and IV antibiotics for gram-negative and anaerobic coverage
. NPO, IV fluid hydration, followed by immediate sigmoid colon resection
. NPO, IV fluids, and anticoagulation
. NPO, IV fluids, evaluation of stool for Clostridium difficile toxin, and either metronidazole or vancomycin antibiotic therapy
. NPO, IV fluids, initiation of bowel preparation for elective sigmoid colon resection during the current hospitalization
234) A 39-year-old woman completed her last course of postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer 6 months ago. She now comes to the clinic complaining of constant back pain for about 3 weeks. She is tender to palpation over two well-circumscribed areas in the thoracic and lumbar spine. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. CT scan of the trunk
. Needle biopsy of the tender spots
. Radionuclide bone scan
. Sonogram of the affected areas
. X-ray films of the affected areas
235) A 42-year-old woman returns to the clinic following an uneventful biopsy for a well-defined, mobile mass. The pathology report describes the mass as a fibro adenoma, but LCIS is identified in the breast parenchyma adjacent to the fibro adenoma and extending to the margin of resection. She has no current illnesses, is on no medications, and her family history is negative for breast cancer. Breast imaging studies show fatty breasts with no abnormal findings except for the fibro adenoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?
. re-excision of the biopsy cavity to gain negative margins of resection
. Ipsilateral mastectomy
. Contralateral breast biopsy
. Observation including examinations and mammography
. Bilateral total mastectomies
236) A 59-year-old man is found to have a 6-cm thoracoabdominal aortic aneurysm which extends to above the renal arteries for which he desires repair, but he is concerned about the risk of paralysis postoperatively. Which of the following maneuvers should be employed to decrease the risk of paraplegia after repair?
. Infusion of a bolus of steroids immediately postoperatively with a continuous infusion for 24 hours
. Maintenance of intraoperative normothermia
. Clamping of the aorta proximal to the left subclavian artery
. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage
. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
237) A man who weighs 65 kg sustains second and third degree burns over both of his lower extremities when his pants catch on fire. When examined shortly thereafter, it is ascertained that virtually all of the skin from both groins to the tip of the toes, front and back, has been burned. According to the modified Parkland formula, which of the following is the approximate total amount of IV fluid that he can be expected to require during the first 24 hours post-burn?
. 3,460 mL
. 4,960 mL
. 6,760 mL
. 8,160 mL
. 11,360 mL
238) A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of pain and weakness of the left lower extremity of 2-hour duration. Past history reveals chronic atrial fibrillation following a myocardial infarction 12 months ago. On examination, he is found to have a cool, pale left lower extremity with decreased strength and absent popliteal and pedal pulses. The opposite leg has a normal appearance with palpable pulses. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in management of this patient?
. echocardiography
. Anticoagulation with heparin
. Anticoagulation with warfarin
. arteriography
. Alkalinization of the urine with IV sodium bicarbonate
239) A 29-year-old woman with a history of difficulty becoming pregnant presents to her primary care physician and is diagnosed with Grave disease on iodine uptake scan; her thyrotropin (TSH) level is markedly suppressed and her free thyroxine (T4) level is elevated. She desires to conceive as soon as possible and elects to undergo thyroidectomy. After she is rendered euthyroid with medications preoperatively, which of the following management strategies should also be employed to reduce the risk of developing thyroid storm in the operating room?
. Drops of Lugol iodine solution daily beginning 10 days preoperatively.
. Preoperative treatment with phenoxybenzamine for 3 weeks.
. Preoperative treatment with propranolol for 1 week.
. Twenty-four hours of corticosteroids preoperatively.
. No other preoperative medication is required.
240) A 72-year-old woman with severe COPD who requires home oxygen is unable to ambulate inside her home without experiencing severe left hip pain. She was hospitalized 1 year ago for a viral pneumonia and was ventilator-dependent at that time for 6 weeks. On examination, her blood pressure is 165/80 mm Hg. She has weakly palpable bilateral femoral pulses. An angiogram demonstrates severe aortoiliac disease involving bilateral iliac vessels. Which of the following is the most appropriate vascular procedure for this patient?
. Femorofemoral bypass
. Axillofemoral bypass
. Femoropopliteal bypass
. Aortobifemoral bypass
. Common femoral and profunda femoral endarterectomise
241) A 52-year-old woman has terminal cervical cancer with extensive pelvic invasion, and requires strong opiate analgesia to control severe pain. Intermittent nausea and vomiting have precluded the use of oral agents. She was on fentanyl patches but she developed allergic skin reactions to the adhesive and now requests to be switched to parenteral medication. Because of prior chemotherapy treatments she has no available venous access, but she is willing to have her family administer intramuscular injections. Assuming equianalgesic dosages, which of the following would be the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
. Codeine
. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
. Meperidine (Demerol)
. Methadone
. Morphine sulfate
242) A 71-year-old woman with a 40-year smoking history is noted to have a peripheral nodule in her left upper lobe on chest x-ray. Workup is consistent with small cell lung cancer with ipsilateral mediastinal lymph node involvement but no extrathoracic disease. What is the best treatment option for this patient?
. Thoracotomy with left upper lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection
. Thoracotomy with left upper lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection followed by adjuvant chemotherapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by thoracotomy with left upper lobectomy and mediastinal lymphnode dissection
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by thoracotomy with left upper lobectomy and mediastinal lymph-node dissection
. Chemoradiation
243) A 42-year-old homeless man presents with a 3-week history of shortness of breath, fevers, and pleuritic chest pain. Chest x-ray (CXR) reveals a large left pleural effusion. Thoracentesis reveals thick, purulent-appearing fluid, which is found to have glucose less than 40 mg/dL and a pH of 6.5. A chest tube is placed, but the pleural effusion persists. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Placement of a second chest tube at the bedside and antibiotic therapy
. Infusion of antibiotics via the chest tube
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Thoracotomy with instillation of antibiotics into the pleural space
. Thoracotomy with decortication and antibiotic therapy
244) During a campaign appearance, a political candidate is shot point blank in the right chest with a .22 caliber revolver. The entrance wound is well above the nipple line, just under the third rib, at the level of the anterior axillary line. His motorcade brings him to the emergency department, but he makes it a point to walk in, holding his right chest with a bloody hand and waving for the news media. A chest x-ray shows a hemothorax on the right, and the bullet is seen to be embedded in the right paraspinous muscles. A chest tube is placed in the right pleural cavity, and 650 mL blood is recovered. Over the ensuing 4 hours, he continues to drain between 250 and 350 mL blood per hour. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Continued observation and appropriate blood replacement
. A second chest tube in a better position to drain the blood
. Thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding vessels
. Thoracotomy, ligation of bleeding vessels, and removal of the bullet
. Thoracotomy and pneumonectomy
245) A 65-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for a second opinion on the management options for recently diagnosed breast cancer. She presents with a 2.5-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast associated with a palpable axillary node suspicious for metastatic disease. The remainder of her examination is normal. Mammography demonstrates the cancer and shows no other suspicious lesions in either breast. Chest x-ray, bone scan, and blood test panel, including liver function tests, are normal. Family history is positive for breast cancer diagnosed in her sister at age 65. Past history is unremarkable. The first physician recommended modified radical mastectomy. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for locoregional control yielding results equally effective as mastectomy?
. Radical mastectomy
. lumpectomy, irradiation, and axillary node dissection
. Lumpectomy and axillary node dissection
. Irradiation of the breast and axilla
. quadrantectomy, irradiation, and axillary node dissection
246) During a hunting trip, a young man is bitten by a coyote. The animal is captured and brought to the authorities alive. Which of the following is the most important criterion to determine the patient's need for rabies prophylaxis?
. The patient's history of previous immunizations
. The patient's clinical course over the next few weeks
. Observing the animal's behavior over the next few days
. Killing the animal and examining the brain
. The events that took place have already established the need to proceed with rabies immunization
247) A 64-year-old man with a history of a triple coronary artery bypasses 2 years ago presents with peripheral arterial occlusive disease. His only medication is a thiazide diuretic. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate in the medical management of his atherosclerosis?
. Aspirin
. Warfarin
. Low-dose heparin
. High-dose heparin
. Low-molecular-weight heparin
248) A 45-year-old man presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of a skin lesion on his abdomen. He states that the lesion has been present for 1 year, but has recently enlarged over the last 2 months. The mass is nontender, and he is otherwise asymptomatic. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals a 3-cm, pigmented, irregular skin lesion located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen, as shown in Figure 6-12. Heart, lung, and abdominal examination are normal. There are no palpable cervical, axillary, or inguinal lymph nodes. Chest x-ray and liver function tests are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
 
15
. Wide excision with 2 cm margin
. Wide excision with 2 cm margin and SLN mapping
. Shave biopsy
. Excisional biopsy with 1–2 mm margins
. Mohs’ surgical excision
249) A 62-year-old man has had gastroesophageal reflux disease diagnosed by pH monitoring, and present for several years. He has been less than totally compliant with medical management, which he follows when the pain is bad, but discontinues when he feels better. Endoscopy and biopsies show severe peptic esophagitis, with Barrett's esophagus and early dysplastic changes, but no overt carcinoma. Additional tests show good esophageal motility, with low pressure in the lower esophageal sphincter and normal gastric emptying. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
. Heller myotomy of the lower esophageal sphincter
. Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication
. Transhiatal total esophagectomy
. Transthoracic resection of the lower esophagus
. Vagotomy, pyloroplasty, and fundic gastric wrap
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